SBI POs General Awareness Practice Questions

1. Of the following statements which one is correct regarding R.B.I?
1. R.B.I is the apex institution of country’s monetary system and financial system
2. It was established under R.B.I Act 1934 and was established on 1 APR 1935
3. Its initial fully paid up capital was Rs.5 crores
4. Its first head office was established at Kolkatha (in those days Calcutta) and in 1937 it was shifted to Mumbai (in those days Bombay) 5. All of above

2. State Bank of India has subsidiaries. Pick up the incorrect one among them?
1. SBI Capital Markets 2. SBICAP Securities
3. SBI DFHI 4. SBI Real Estates
5. SBI Life

3. Which Bank in India opened INDIA’S FIRST OFFSHORE BANKING UNIT?
1. SBH 2. ICICI 3. SBI 4. Axis 5. Bank of Baroda

4. Which among the following statements is wrong related to World Bank?
1. Its real name is International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
2. The World Bank was created following the ratification of the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference Bretton Woods
agreement. It was established in 1945.
3. IBRD head quarters is at New York
4. From 60’s to 80’s the World Bank gave loans on poverty alleviation
5. From 80’s to 90’s main focus on debt management and structural management

5. News papers, magazines, Economists call RBI with many names. Pick up wrong one?
1. Apex Bank
2. Government’s Bank
3. Banker’s bank
4. India’s world bank
5. Topbank

6. Surabhi deposit scheme details are given below. Pick up incorrect statement?
a) This scheme initiated by State Bank of India
b) Usually this account cover non-individual customers like Corporate, Institutions, and PF Funds etc
c) Who have surplus funds for investments, but at the same time need the convenience of liquidity, can opt this deposit scheme
d) If anybody wants to open this scheme they should get prior permission from R.B.I
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. All of above

7. For financial inclusion and to facilitate lowincome group customers, Which SBI subsidiary inaugurated NO FRILLS ACCOUNT
by name ‘Saral Bachat Khata’?
1. State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur
2. State Bank of Hyderabad
3. State Bank of Mysore
4. State Bank of Travancore
5. State Bank of Patiala

8. Rastriya Krishi Bima Yojna was introduced in Kharif 1999. Bring out the correct statements?
a) This Scheme is administered by Agriculture Insurance Corporation which is promoted by NABARD, GIC and 4 public sector
Insurance Companies
b) It proposes that Government of India will underwrite the losses of the companies rather than subsiding the premia by state and central governments
c) It covers all the crops weather food crops, oil crops horticultural crops or even commercial crops
d) The state governments pay Rs. 1000 on behalf of the farmers to Agriculture Insurance Corporation every month
e) India and Israel co-operate in Agriculture insurance
1. a b c d e 2. a b c d 3. a b c 4. a b d 5. a c d e

9. Which facts are true about the relation between the development of roads and poverty in India?
a) World Bank has been supporting India’s rural connectivity programme— Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
b) It aids projects in several places like Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh
c) Over the years, World Bank’s concessionary lending arm International Development Association (IDA) has supported many
rural roads projects, both stand alone and components of larger projects
d) IDA said adding every Rs 10 lakh spent on rural roads has helped lift 163 people out of poverty.
e) Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), which targets to connect villages with a population of 1,000, has got an allocation of Rs 9,995 crore in 2010-2011 budget as against 2009-10 revised allocation of Rs 9,475 crore
f) India is the poorest country among the SAARC countries after Bhutan
1. a c d e f 2. a b c e f 3. a b c d e 4. b c d 5. a b c d f

10. Pick up the correct statements relating to State Bank of
Hyderabad?
a. State Bank of Hyderabad was constituted as Hyderabad State Bank on 8 Aug 1941
b. The first branch of the Bank was opened at Gun foundry, Hyderabad on 5th April, 1942.
c. In 1953, the Bank took over the assets and liabilities of the Hyderabad Mercantile Bank Ltd
d. In 1956, the Bank was taken over by Reserve Bank of India as its first subsidiary and its name was changed from ‘Hyderabad State Bank’ to ‘State Bank of Hyderabad’.
e. The Bank became a subsidiary of the State Bank of India on the 1st October 1959
f. SBH is the largest Associate Bank of State Bank of India
1. a b c d e f 2. b c d e 3. c d e f 4. b c e f 5. a c d e

11. Of the following statements which one is correct regarding State Bank of Patiala?
1. it was founded by Late His Highness Bhupinder Singh, Maharaja of erstwhile Patiala state in 1917.
2. its original name was ‘Patiala State Bank”
3. Bank became a subsidiary of the State Bank of India on 1st April, 1960 when it was named as the State Bank of Patiala
4. by fully networking all its branches on Core Banking Solutions on 8 Aug 2005 it became the first fully networked Public Sector Bank in the country.
5. All of above

12. The Indian rural people incomes are doubled, the literacy rate increased by 10 %. The agriculture land prices appreciated by 80 %. The above achievements were seen in Indian rural areas according to the report given by world bank due to introduction of
…. schemes.
1. Mid day meal scheme
2. Free power to farmers
3. Subsidies for fertilizers
4. digging of bore wells
5. Relief pack to farmers

13. The Issue Department is responsible for the issue of notes as per demand made by Banking Department of R.B.I. From 1939 till 1956 it followed Proportional Reserve System. It means?
1. R.B.I was required to hold 50 % worth of assets in the form of Gold/foreign securities against issue of currency. However the worth of gold must not be below than Rs. 50 Crores
2. R.B.I was required to hold 60 % worth of assets in the form of Gold/foreign securities against issue of currency. However the worth of gold must not be below than Rs. 60 Crores
3. R.B.I was required to hold 45 % worth of assets in the form of Gold/foreign securities against issue of currency. However the worth of gold must not be below than Rs. 45 Crores
4. R.B.I. was required to hold 70 % worth of assets in the form of
Gold/foreign securities against issue of currency. However the
worth of gold must not be below than Rs. 70 Crores
5. R.B.I. was required to hold 40 % worth of assets in the form of Gold/ foreign securities against issue of currency. However the worth of gold must not be below than Rs. 40 Crores

14. Punjab National Bank details are given. Pick up correct one?
a) On 12th April 1895, the bank opened for business
b) Recently it opened its 5000 branch on the eve of its inauguration day (12-4-2010)
c) By assets wise PNB is the third largest bank in India
d) By bank branch net work wise, it is the second largest bank in India
e) with its policy of inclusive growth in the Indo-Gangatic Belt, the bank’s mission is ‘Banking for unbanked’
1. a b c d e 2. a b c d 3. b c d 4. a c d e 5. a b c e

15. The details of Bank of Baroda are given. Pick up correct statement?
1. it was established in 1908
2. its logo has dual ‘B’ letter forms that hold the rays of the rising sun
3. The Bank has adopted 101 villages for integrated development.
4. Bank of Baroda has been awarded with prestigious Dalal Street-DSIJ PSU Award recently
5. All of above

16. Reshaping Economic Geography is the title of a report released in 2009. This report released by…?
1. Asian-Pacific Economic Co-operation
2. International Monetary Fund
3. World Bank
4. International Development Association
5. International Economic Forum

17. Proportional Reserve System was replaced in 1956 by minimum of Foreign Reserve System. It means?
1. R.B.I to hold assets minimum of Rs. 515 crores worth of foreign reserves in which Rs. 115 Cr of gold and Rs. 400 cr of foreign
securities must be maintained.
2. R.B.I to hold assets minimum of Rs. 515 crores worth of foreign reserves in which Rs. 115 Cr of gold and Rs. 400 cr Dollars must be maintained
3. R.B.I to hold assets minimum of Rs. 515 crores worth of foreign reserves in which Rs. 400 Cr of gold and Rs. 115 cr of foreign
securities must be maintained.
4. R.B.I to hold assets minimum of Rs. 515 crores worth of foreign reserves in which Rs. 200 Cr of gold and Rs. 315 cr of foreign
direct investments
5. R.B.I to hold assets minimum of Rs. 515 crores worth of foreign reserves in any mode.

KEY : 1. 5 2. 4 3.3 4. 3 5. 4 6. 4 7. 1 8. 3 9. 3 10. 1 11. 5 12. 5 13. 5 14. 1 15. 5 16. 3 17. 1.

SBI POs Reasoning Important Questions and Answers

Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement or two are followed by two conclusions. Give answer
(a) if conclusion I follows
(b) if conclusion II follows
(c) if both I and II follow
(d) if either I or II follows; and
(e) if neither I nor II follows.

1. Statement: Ten persons who were on the waiting list could finally get berth reservation in the Frontier Mail.
Conclusions: I. Wait-listed passengers generally find it difficult to get berth reservation in the Frontier Mail.
II. The number of berths available in the
Frontier Mail is small.

2. Statement: Parents are prepared to pay any price for an elite education to their children.
Conclusions: I. All parents these days are very well-off.
II. Parents have an obsessive passion for a perfect development of their children through good schooling.

3. Statement: I. Mud houses are cooler in summers than stone-and-brick houses.
II. Mud houses are occupied by the poor only.
Conclusions: I. Poor people are more comfortable in summers than the rich.
II. Stone-and-brick houses are more sophisticated than mud houses.

4. Statement: Patients with minor ailments usually do not go to eminent doctors.
Conclusions: I. Eminent doctors remain too busy with patients suffering from serious complications.
II. Their charges are rather high.

5. Statement: The use of non-conventional sources of energy will eliminate the energy crisis in the world.
Conclusions: I. Modern technology is gradually replacing the conventional sources of energy.
II. The excessive exploitation of environment has led to depletion of conventional sources of energy.

6. Statement: The increase in adult literacy will lead to the country’s development and progress.
Conclusions: I. The educated persons offer less resistance to new innovations.
II. The country’s population is totally illiterate.

7. Statement: In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160 runs were made by the spinners.
Conclusions: I. 80% of the team consists of spinners.
II. The opening batsmen were spinners

8. Statement: The doctors nursed only those bleeding wounds which were caused by bullets. A patient X was bleeding profusely.
Conclusions: I. X was nursed by the doctors.
II. The doctors did not nurse X.

9. Statement: Apart from the educational value of newspaper, their
entertainment value should also be realised.
Conclusions: I. People take newspaper to be a means of education.
II. The entertainment value of newspapers is realised properly.

10. Statement: These apples are too expensive to be bad.
Conclusions: I. When apples are in short supply, the prices go up.
II. The higher the selling price, the superior is the quality of the commodity.

11. Statement: In deserts, camels are indispensable for people to travel from one place to another.
Conclusions: I. Camels are the only cheapest mode of transport available in deserts.
II. There are plenty of camels in deserts.

12. Statement: Of all the television sets manufactured in India, the ‘solar’ brand has the largest sale.
Conclusions: I. The volume of sales of all the brands of television sets manufactured in India is known.
II. The production of no other television set in India is as large as that of ‘solar’.

13. Statement: I. The TV programmes telecast specially for women are packed with a variety of recipes and household hints.
II. A major portion of magazines for women also contains the items mentioned above.
Conclusions: I. Women are not interested in other things.
II. An average woman’s primary interest lies in home and specially in the kitchen.

14. Statement: Cases of bride-burning for dowry are not uncommon.
Conclusions: I. In spite of anti-dowry laws, the ill practice continues.
II. The punishment inflicted on the party concerned is not sufficient.

15. Statement: Players who break various records in a fair way get special prizes. Player X broke the world record but was found to be under the influence of a prohibited drug.
Conclusions: I. X will get the special prize.
II. X will not get the special prize.

16. Statement: I know nothing except the fact of my ignorance.
Conclusions: I. The writer’s knowledge is very poor.
II. The world of knowledge is too vast to be explored by a single person.

17. Statement: The devil can cite scripture for his purpose.
Conclusions: I. Even an unscrupulous person has some principles.
II. The real wisdom is to be found in scriptures.

18. Statement: I. Reading makes a full man, conference a ready man, and writing an exact man.
II. Extensive reading makes a complete man.
Conclusions: I. Pointed and precise expression comes only through extensive writing.
II. Extensive reading makes a complete man.

19. Statement: Fashion is a form of ugliness so intolerable that we have to alter it every six months.
Conclusions: I. Fashion designers do not understand people’s mind very well.
II. People by and large are highly susceptible to novelty.

20. Statement: All those political prisoners were released on bail who had gone to jail for reasons other than political dharnas. Bail was not granted to persons involved in murders.
Conclusions: I. No political prisoner had committed murder.
II. Some politicians were not arrested.

KEY
1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – E, 4 – D, 5 – B, 6 – E, 7 – E, 8 – D, 9 – A, 10 – B, 11 – E, 12 – A, 13 – B, 14 – A, 15 – D, 16 – B, 17 – E, 18 – B, 19 – E, 20 – E.

Answers with Explanations
1 – a, The use of ‘could’ implies a difficulty in obtaining reservation. Hence, conclusion I is valid. Conclusion II is not certain.

2 – b, Since all parents are not very well off it must mean that all of them are driven by a desire as mentioned in conclusion II.

3 – e, Since the poor live in mud houses and mud houses are cooler in summer, it means that poor people would have been more comfortable in summer, had everything else remained the same. But
what about the coolers and air-conditioners that rich people have?
Conclusion II is irrelevant to the given statement.

4 – d, Only one of the two reasons mentioned could stop patients from going to eminent doctors.

5 – b, The statement says that the user of non-conventional energy sources will replace the energy crisis. It does not say that the replacement is already on. Hence, the first conclusion is invalid.
The second is valid because there is an energy crisis.

6 – e, The given conclusions are far-fetched and not certain.

7 – e, Neither of the conclusion is certain. May be only one spinner made 160 runs.

8 – d, Although no certain conclusion can be derived because it is not given whether X was hit by a bullet or not, yet one of the two conclusions must be true.

9 – a, The first does follow because the tone of the statement is that educational value of newspapers is given due importance while its entertainment value is not. Clearly, the second conclusion is
invalid.

10 – b, The first conclusion is irrelevant. The second is the meaning of the given statement. ‘Too expensive to be bad’ means that it can’t be bad because it is expensive.

11 – e, The statement merely says that camels are very useful for deserts. It does not state whether they are cheap or available in large number.

12 – a, The first conclusion is obviously true; otherwise how could one know that the brand has the largest sale? The second speaks of ‘production’ and not ‘sale’, and hence it is not certain.

13 – b, From the two facts given the second conclusion seems valid. But the first conclusion is fallacious as it declares that women are not interested in anything else.

14 – a, The first conclusion is obviously valid as it is a restatement of the given sentence. The second may or may not be true.

15 – d, What happens to players who broke records with the help of drugs is not given. Hence either the player will receive the prize or he will not.

16 – b, The authors tone implies that he knows some things but does not know so many more; that he is practically ignorant of everything. This means conclusion II is valid.

17 – e,

18 – b, Conclusion I is vague, nothing has been mentioned about ‘expressions’. II is obvious.

19 – e, None of the conclusions is in any way related to the given statement.

20 – e, None of the conclusions can be definitely asserted in the light of the given statement.

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