Ward Sanitation and Environment Secretary – Part B Previous Paper with Key

Following are the previous questions with official key for Ward Sanitation and Environment Secretary exam 2019 conducted by Government of Andhra Pradesh. The old questions are useful for the understanding of nature and depth of question paper. Same syllabus is prescribed for Ward / Grama Sachivalayam exams 20202. You can also see our mock tests / online exams for all Sachivalayam exams for both Part A and Part B syllabus. See previous questions of sanitation secretary exam.

e-waste is

  1. environmently friendly waste
  2. toxic chemicals
  3. C and D waste
  4. Obsolete electronic equipment
    ANSWER: 4

The least transboundary principle means

  1. import waste
  2. reduce waste
  3. export waste
  4. waste analysis
    ANSWER: 2

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Which composing method requires large areas?

  1. Manual composting
  2. Mechanical composting
  3. open window composting
  4. trenching
    ANSWER: 1
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What are the three Rs that are used to save the environment?

  1. reduce, reuse, recycle
  2. reserve, reduce, recycle
  3. reuse, reserve, reduce
  4. reserve, reuse, reduce
    ANSWER: 1

Paper, cardboard, textiles, plastics and wood are included in

  1. garbage
  2. non-combustible rubbish
  3. waste
  4. combustible rubbish
    ANSWER: 4

Metals are produced as waste in industries like

  1. skiing
  2. mining
  3. electroplasting
  4. quarrying
    ANSWER: 3

Which of the following improves efficiency of solid waste management?

  1. composting
  2. collection
  3. processing
  4. disposal
    ANSWER: 3

Which part of Integrated Waste Management can be addressed at an individual level?

  1. source reduction
  2. recycling
  3. disposal
  4. burning
    ANSWER: 1
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Reticulopodia is also called

  1. lobopodia
  2. folopodia
  3. myxopodia
  4. axopodia
    ANSWER: 3

Name the male frog that carries eggs in its spacious vocal sacs

  1. rhinoderms
  2. rhacophorus
  3. hyla
  4. pipa
    ANSWER: 1

The enzyme that fills the gap in leading and lagging strands during replication of DNA is

  1. helicase
  2. topoisomerase
  3. polymerase
  4. ligase
    ANSWER: 4

The following zooids are also called tasters

  1. gastrozooids
  2. gonzooids
  3. phyllozooids
  4. dactylozooids
    ANSWER: 4

mycorrhian represents a case of

  1. parasitism
  2. symbiosis
  3. competition
  4. anagonism
    ANSWER: 2

How many testicular nephridia are present in leech?

  1. 17 pairs
  2. 6 pairs
  3. 22 pairs
  4. 11 pairs
    ANSWER: 4

The egg of frog is

  1. Alecithal
  2. Micolecithal
  3. Mesolecithal
  4. Macrolecithal
    ANSWER: 3

New species formed from geographically isolated population is called

  1. sympatric speciation
  2. parapatric speciation
  3. peripatric speciation
  4. allopatric speciation
    ANSWER: 4

The myogenic heart of pila has

  1. one auricle and one ventricle
  2. one auricle and two ventricles
  3. two auricles and one ventricle
  4. two auricles and two ventricles
    ANSWER: 1

The pearl osyter pinctada belongs to

  1. gastropoda
  2. monoplacophora
  3. scaphopoda
  4. pelecypoda
    ANSWER: 4

Growth curve for human population is

  1. j shaped
  2. s shaped
  3. bell shaped
  4. inverted bell shaped
    ANSWER: 2

Thalassemia is also called

  1. aplastic anemia
  2. cooley’s anemia
  3. sickle cell anemia
  4. megaloblastic anemia
    ANSWER: 2

The lattice model of plasma membrane was proposed by

  1. singer and nicolson
  2. danielli and davson
  3. wolpers
  4. robertson
    ANSWER: 3

Trypsin sttacks interior peptide bonds on carboxyl end of the following amino acid

  1. tyrosine
  2. tryptophan
  3. arginine
  4. phenylalanine
    ANSWER: 3

Identify the malarial parasite which is highly prevalent in the temparate zone?

  1. plasmodium vivax
  2. plasmodium falciparum
  3. plasmodium ovale
  4. plasmodium malaria
    ANSWER: 1

Tetrad stage is found in

  1. leptotene stage
  2. zygotene stage
  3. pnchytene stage
  4. diplotene stage
    ANSWER: 3

Out of the five enzyme reactions of Urea Cycle, how many reactions take place in the mitchondrion?

  1. one
  2. two
  3. three
  4. four
    ANSWER: 2

Human embryonic stem cells were first isolated by

  1. Thompson
  2. Gordon
  3. Ruddle
  4. Palmiter
    ANSWER: 1

The resting membrane potential of a neuron is

  1. – 70 mV
  2. + 30 mV
  3. + 110 mV
  4. – 40 mV
    ANSWER: 1

With respect to the fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events.

  1. Karyogamy, Plasmogamy, and Meiosis
  2. Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy
  3. Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis
  4. Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy
    ANSWER: 3

In which plant does the anomalous secondary growth develop due to the formation of accessory cambium?

  1. Bignonia
  2. Aristolochia
  3. Boerhavia
  4. Dracaena
    ANSWER: 3

The term Meristem was coined by

  1. Hanstein
  2. Nageli
  3. Newman
  4. Schmidt
    ANSWER: 2

Difference between virus and viroid is

  1. absense of protein coat in viroid but present in virus
  2. presence of low molecular weight RNA in virus but absent in viroid
  3. both 1 and 2 are same
  4. Absense of protein coat in virus but present in viroid
    ANSWER: 1

Water potential of pure water at standard temparature is equal to

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 0
  4. 5
    ANSWER: 3

Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?

  1. sulphur
  2. magnesium
  3. nitrozen
  4. potassium
    ANSWER: 1

The age of cycads is the

  1. mesozoic era
  2. cenozoic era
  3. palaeozoic era
  4. carboniferous era
    ANSWER: 1

Eutrophication of water bodies resulting in killing of fishes is mainly due to

  1. non availability of food
  2. non availability of light
  3. non availability of oxygen
  4. non availability of essential minerals
    ANSWER: 3

Bradyrhizobium type of Rhizobium refers to

  1. fast growth showing rhizobium
  2. slow growth showing rhizobium
  3. only developed nodules
  4. no participation in nodulation
    ANSWER: 2

In which technique is PCR employed?

  1. RFLP
  2. RAPD
  3. Southern Blotting
  4. Western Blotting
    ANSWER: 2

Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?

  1. It has 80-S type of ribosomes present in mitochondria
  2. It has 80-S type ribosome present in cytoplasm
  3. Mitochondria contain circular DNA
  4. membrane bound organelles are present
    ANSWER: 1

Sickle cell anemia is an example for

  1. pleiotropy
  2. polygenic inheritance
  3. multiple alleles
  4. multiple inheritance
    ANSWER: 1

Post translational modificatins take place in

  1. nucleus
  2. mitochondria
  3. ribosome
  4. endoplasmic reticulum
    ANSWER: 4

For the formation of one molecule of hexose sugar, how many turns of Calvin Cycle are needed?

  1. 6
  2. 1
  3. 36
  4. 16
    ANSWER: 1

Which of the following molecule can be utilised for establishing early evolutionary process?

  1. mitochondrial DNA
  2. nuclear DNA
  3. chloroplast DNA
  4. ribosomal DNA
    ANSWER: 4

Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)?

  1. 760 – 1000
  2. 390 – 430
  3. 100 – 390
  4. 400 – 700
    ANSWER: 4

The nature of ribozyme is

  1. protein
  2. rRNA
  3. DNA
  4. hnRNA
    ANSWER: 2

The enzyme that is ot found in a c3 plant is

  1. RuBP carboxylase
  2. PEP Carboxylase
  3. NADP reductase
  4. ATP synthase
    ANSWER: 2

Carrageenan is present in

  1. phaeophyceae
  2. cyanobacteria
  3. rhodohyceae
  4. chlorophyceae
    ANSWER: 3

During germination of barley seeds enzymes for mobilisation of reserve material to developing embryo are secreted from

  1. endosperm
  2. embryo
  3. aleurone layer
  4. embryonic leaves
    ANSWER: 3

Which enzyme is an exopeptidase

  1. trypsin
  2. chymotrypsin
  3. pepsin
  4. carboxylpeptidase – A
    ANSWER: 4

The following microorganism regarded as natural genetic engineer.

  1. bacillus thuringiensis
  2. agrobacterium tumefaciens
  3. bacillus amiloliquefaciens
  4. streptomyces viridochromeogenes
    ANSWER: 2

AP Ward Sanitation and Environment Secretary Previous Paper with Key

Government of Andhra Pradesh has conducted Ward Sanitation and Environment Secretary exam in 2019. The new notification in 2020 also mentioned same syllabus and exam pattern. Following are questions from previous paper of 2019. You can also see details of online exams / mock tests for Sanitation and Environment Secretary posts and all other exams here-under.

Cataracts are formed due to accumulation of

  1. Ribitol in renal glycosuria
  2. Mannitol in galactosemia
  3. Xylitol in essential pentosuria
  4. Galactitol (dulcitol) in galactosemia
    ANSWER: 4

If a protien has 400 amino acids, what is its approximate molecular weight

  1. 11000 Daltons
  2. 20000 Daltons
  3. 44000 Daltons
  4. 88000 Daltons
    ANSWER: 3

Coconut milk contains

  1. Gibberellin
  2. Auxin
  3. ABA
  4. Cytokinin
    ANSWER: 4
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Alfa – Fetoprotein level in serum is increased due to

  1. Nephritis
  2. Lung cancer
  3. Prostate Cancer
  4. Hepatoma
    ANSWER: 4

The term pH was introduced by

  1. Bronsted
  2. Lewis
  3. Sorensen
  4. Linus Pauling
    ANSWER: 4

Homogentisic acid is excreted in urine in

  1. Tyrosinosis
  2. Phenylketonuria
  3. Alkaptonuria
  4. Maple Syrup Urine Disease
    ANSWER: 3

Nacin is

  1. Pyridine-1 carboxylic acid
  2. pyridine-2 carboxylic acid
  3. pyridine-3 carboxylic acid
  4. pyridine-4 carboxylic acid
    ANSWER: 3

Nucleic acid synthesis would be reduced most directly by the deficiency of

  1. Thiamine
  2. Folic acid
  3. Potassium
  4. Biotin
    ANSWER: 2

The genetic material present in polio virus is

  1. dsDNA
  2. dsRNA
  3. ssDNA
  4. ssRNA
    ANSWER: 4

Botulinum toxin acts as

  1. Hemotoxin
  2. Nephrotoxin
  3. Neurotoxin
  4. Enterotoxin
    ANSWER: 3

An example of exotoxin producing organism is

  1. corynebacterium diphtheriao
  2. Salmonella tyhi
  3. M. tuberculosis
  4. E.Coli
    ANSWER: 1

Psedomonas denitrificans is

  1. Heterotrophic Anaerobe
  2. Heterotrophic aerobe
  3. Photoautotroph
  4. Chemoautotroph
    ANSWER: 2

The method used for enumeration of Bacteriophage

  1. Cytopathic assay
  2. Pock assay
  3. Plaque assay
  4. Lawn culture assay
    ANSWER: 3

The spontaneous generation concept was disproved with experimental approach by

  1. Robert Koch
  2. Louis Pasteur
  3. John Needham
  4. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
    ANSWER: 2

The metabolic activity of bacterial endospore is

  1. Low
  2. High
  3. Nil
  4. Hyperactive
    ANSWER: 3

Presence of more organic matter content in polluted water is indicated by

  1. More BOD
  2. Less BOD
  3. Less DO
  4. More COD
    ANSWER: 1
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Disappearance of blue colour takes more time in MBRT of milk which indicates

  1. good quality of milk
  2. poor quality of milk
  3. MBRT is not related to milk quality
  4. good quality of cheese
    ANSWER: 1

Gluconic acid is not a product of

  1. Acetobacter
  2. Lactobacillus
  3. Gluconobacter
  4. Aspergillus niger
    ANSWER: 2

Actinomycetes are

  1. Gram – negative, non – filamentous aerobic
  2. Gram – positive, filamentous, anarobic
  3. Gram – positive, filamentous, aerobic
  4. Gram – negativ, filamentous, aerobic
    ANSWER: 2

Microorganisms capable of growing on molecular carbon dioxide as sole carbon source are

  1. Heterotrophs
  2. Diazotrophs
  3. Lithotrophs
  4. Chemotrophs
    ANSWER: 3

Bacillus Thuringiensis is used as

  1. biofertilizer
  2. protein
  3. biopesticide
  4. medicine
    ANSWER: 3

Sulphuric acid is produced from mine tailings by

  1. acidithiobacillus
  2. pseudomonas
  3. bacteroides
  4. Aeromonas
    ANSWER: 1

Peptidoglycan is present in the cell wall of

  1. fungus
  2. bacteria
  3. algae
  4. viruses
    ANSWER: 2

The microorganism that grow at pH 8.0 to pH 10-5 are called

  1. Neutrophiles
  2. Acidophiles
  3. Obligate anaerobes
  4. Alkaliphiles
    ANSWER: 4

The most common airborne epidemic disease is

  1. Influenza
  2. Malaria
  3. Typhoid
  4. Encephalitis
    ANSWER: 1

The following is used as vector in the production of transgenic plants

  1. Agrobacterium
  2. E.coli
  3. Yeast
  4. Chlorella
    ANSWER: 1

A disease outbreak that affects many members of a population in a short time is called

  1. Endemic
  2. Pandemic
  3. Epidemic
  4. Sporadic
    ANSWER: 3

Air stripping is very efficient removal of

  1. odour
  2. organic matter
  3. volatile organic compounds
  4. both 1 and 2
    ANSWER: 3

The process which causes stable dispersion of colloidal particles is

  1. stabilization
  2. peptization
  3. semimentation
  4. flocculation
    ANSWER: 2

The process of extracting mineral from an underground mine with an open space left is

  1. extraction
  2. stull stoping
  3. stoping
  4. retreat
    ANSWER: 3

The taste produced by microorganisms can be removed effectively by

  1. potassium permanganate
  2. chlorination
  3. silver
  4. 1, 2 and 3 are not correct
    ANSWER: 1

Which of the following is called Fewler’s solution?

  1. potassium arsenite
  2. sodium azide
  3. sodium propionate
  4. propylene glycol
    ANSWER: 1

Light interacting with ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere is

  1. rainbow
  2. dew
  3. sun halo
  4. nimbus
    ANSWER: 3

Imhoff tanks reduce suspended solids to

  1. 20 – 30 %
  2. 50 – 70 %
  3. 1 – 2 %
  4. 80 – 90 %
    ANSWER: 2

A comprehensive study of organisms and relation with surrounding is

  1. bionomics
  2. paedology
  3. kinesiology
  4. geomorphology
    ANSWER: 1

Study of natural and man-made lakes is

  1. hydrogeology
  2. hydrology
  3. limnology
  4. both 2 and 3
    ANSWER: 3

Lifting of moist air over mountain results in

  1. orographic rainfall
  2. relief rainfall
  3. frontal rainfall
  4. convectional rainifall
    ANSWER: 1

For the survival of fish in a river stream, the minimum dissolved sxygen is prescribed at

  1. 5 ppm
  2. 3 ppm
  3. 4 ppm
  4. 10 ppm
    ANSWER: 3

A sewer that receives discharge from two or more main sewers is known as

  1. a trunk sewer
  2. an outfall sewer
  3. a main sewer
  4. an intercepting sewer
    ANSWER: 1

Itai – Itai disease is caused by the presence of …….. metal in water.

  1. Hg
  2. Pb
  3. Cr
  4. Cd
    ANSWER: 4

Biochemical oxygen demand measures

  1. industrial pollution
  2. air pollution
  3. inorganic pollution
  4. dissolved O 2 needed by microbes to decomposes organic waste
    ANSWER: 4

If 2-5% solution of a sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 degree C and depltion of oxygen was found to be 5 ppm. BOD of the sewage is

  1. 250 ppm
  2. 200 ppm
  3. 225 ppm
  4. 275 ppm
    ANSWER: 2

Which of the following ISO series deals with environmental management?

  1. ISO 19000
  2. ISO 14000
  3. ISO 22000
  4. ISO 9000
    ANSWER: 2

Methemoglobinemia is caused by the presence of

  1. excess mercury in water
  2. excess sulphates in water
  3. excess chlarides in water
  4. excess nitrates in water
    ANSWER: 4

Mention the standard BOD 3 value for treated effluent of common effluent treatment plant to dispose into inland surface water.

  1. 30 mg / l
  2. 100 mg / l
  3. 50 mg / l
  4. 90 mg / l
    ANSWER: 1

Cause for Algal blooms in water causes

  1. presence of large amount of chlorides in water
  2. presence of large amount of COD in water
  3. presence of large amount of nutrients in water
  4. presence of large amount of BOD in water
    ANSWER: 3

The National Green Tribunal Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in the year

  1. 2010
  2. 1986
  3. 2002
  4. 2006
    ANSWER: 1

In general, the term Municipal Solid Waste(MSW) is used to describe

  1. wastes from industrial processes, construction and demolition debris
  2. wastes from households, commercial establishments and insitutions
  3. mining wastes
  4. agricultural wastes
    ANSWER: 2

Bio-Medical Waste (BMW) Management Rules, 2016 has c lassified the bio-medical waste into …….. categories.

  1. 5
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 2
    ANSWER: 2
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