Uncategorized – Page 149

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. To charge a secondary cell, what is needed is...

A. a d.c. current

B. an a.c. current

C. fresh electrolyte

D. heating

Question 1 of 180

2. To keep a vehicle moving at the speed v requires a force F. The power needed is...

A. F.v

B. (1/2)F.v²

C. F/v

D. F/v²

Question 2 of 180

3. A sonometer wire resonate with a given tuning fork forming standing wave with five antinode between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of M is

1) 25 kg

2) 5kg

3) 12.5kg

4) (1/25) kg

Question 3 of 180

4. A square coil of side ‘25cm’ having 1000 turns is rotated with a uniform speed in a magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the direction of the field. At an instant ‘t’ the ‘e.m.f’ induced in the coil is E= 200 sin100πt. The strength of the magnetic field is (in Tesla)

1) 5/125π

2) 2/125π

3) 1/125π

4) 4/125π

Question 4 of 180

5. A block of mass 10kg moving in X-direction with a constant speed of 10 msec^-1, is subjected to a retarding force F = (x/10) (Joule/meter) during its travel from x=10m to x=20m its final kenetic energy will be (in Joule)

1) 475

2) 450

3) 485

4) 515

Question 5 of 180

6. An object moving with a speed of 6.25 m/sec, is decelerated at a rate given by (dy/dt) = -2.5√v . Where ‘v’ is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object to come to rest, would be

1) 1 sec

2) 2 sec

3) 4 sec

4) 8 sec

Question 6 of 180

7. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature ‘'T₁' expands according to the law (P/V) = constant expression for the workdone when its final temperature becomes 'T₂' is

1) R( T₂- T₁)

2) (R/2)( T₂- T₁)

3) (R/4)( T₂- T₁)

4) R (( T₂- (T_1/2))

Question 7 of 180

8. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1:4 produce an interference pattern the fringe visibility will be

1) 1

2) 0.8

3)0.4

4) 0.6

Question 8 of 180

9. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s² . Compared with her mass and weight on the earth, an astronaut on Mars has...

A. less mass and less weight

B. more mass and more weight

C. the same mass and less weight

D. the same mass and more weight

Question 9 of 180

10. Two identical containers each of volume V joined by a normal pipe contains gas at a
temperature T. If one of the containers is now maintained at the same temperature T while the other is maintained at 2T, the number of moles of gas in the container having temperature 2T will be

1) PV/2RT

2) PV/RT

3) 2PV/3RT

4) PV/3RT

Question 10 of 180

11. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry and the solid sphere about its diameter axis. After ‘t’ sec their angular velocities are . Choose the correct answer (initial angular speed of each is 'ω₀'

1) ω₁ = ω₂

2) ω₁ < ω₂

3) ω₁ > ω₂

4) Both 2 & 3

Question 11 of 180

12. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease of cross sectional area by 2%. The percentage increase in its length is

1) 3%

2) 2.5%

3) 1%

4) 0.5%

Question 12 of 180

13. In a large building there are 15 bulbs of ‘40w’ 5 bulbs of ‘100w’. 5 fans of ‘80w’ and 1 heater of ‘1kw’ . The voltage of electric mains is ‘220 volts’.The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building will be

1) 8.5 amp

2) 10 amp

3) 11.3 amp

4) 14 amp

Question 13 of 180

14. The de-Broglie wave length of an electron in first Bohr orbit is

1) Equal to one fourth the circumference of the first orbit

2) Equal to half the circumference of the first orbit

3) Equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit

4) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit

Question 14 of 180

15. Diamagnetic materials are substances that...

A. create a strong magnetic field

B. are attracted by a magnetic field

C. are repelled by a magnetic field

D. have double magnetism

Question 15 of 180

16. A variable frequency A.C. source is connected to a capacitor. How will the displacement current change with decrease in frequency?

1) Increases

2) Decreases

3) Remains same

4) Becomes zero

Question 16 of 180

17. A particle moves along X –axis in such a way that coordinate X varies with time t according to the equation . x = ( 2-5t+6t²)m The initial velocity of the particle is

1) -5m/s

2) 6m/s

3) -3m/s

4) 3m/s

Question 17 of 180

18. The horizontal component of a force of 10 N inclined at 30° to the vertical is...

A. 5 N

B. 5√ 3 N

C. 3 N

D. 10/√ 3 N

Question 18 of 180

19. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates

1) OR

2) NAND

3)AND

4) NOR

Question 19 of 180

20. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

A. frequency

B. amplitude

C. wavelength

D. both frequency and amplitude

Question 20 of 180

21. Of the following the one that is a vector is...

A. electric charge

B. electric field

C. electric energy

D. potential difference

Question 21 of 180

22. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

A. 40 °C

B. 80 °C

C. 313 °C

D. 586 °C

Question 22 of 180

23. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 10³ kg/m³ with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are 8 × 10³ kg/m³ and 11 × 10³ kg/m³ The ratio of their radii is

1) 11/8

2) √(11/8)

3) 3/2

4) √(3/2)

Question 23 of 180

24. A source and Listner both moving towards each other each with speed .frequency of the note emitted by the source is ‘600Hz’ Apparent wave length of sound wave received by the observer is ( V = 330 m/ sec)

1) 0.5m

2) 0.45m

3)0.1m

4) 0.6m

Question 24 of 180

25. When a ferromagnet is inserted in a current-carrying loop, the magnetic field...

A. decreases slightly

B. decreases greatly

C. does not change

D. increases greatly

Question 25 of 180

26. A cable stretches by amount 'a' under a certain load. If it is replaced by a cable of the same material but half as long and half the diameter, the same load will stretch it by...

A. a/4

B. a/2

C. a

D. 2a

Question 26 of 180

27. Mark out the incorrect statement regarding transverse standing waves on a string

1) Within a loop, the total energy of the wave remains constant.

2) When the particles are at the maximum displacements, the entire energy within the loopappears as potential energy

3) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy is equally divided aspotential energy and kinetic energy.

4) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy appears as kineticenergy

Question 27 of 180

28. In a uniform segment of a circuit the current is proportional to the...

A. density of the segment

B. resistance of the segment

C. volume of the segment

D. potential difference at its ends

Question 28 of 180

29. The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is ‘4.5 joule’. The charge on the sphere is '4μc' its radius will be [(1/4πε₀)=9×10⁹ N - m²c^-2]

1) 4mm

2) 8 mm

3) 2mm

4) 16 mm

Question 29 of 180

30. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

1) Temperature on ideal gas scale

2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale

3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale

4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

Question 30 of 180

31. Two parallel wires carry current in the same direction,...

A. they attract each other

B. they repel each other

C. they neither attract nor repel

D. they attract or repel depending on current type

Question 31 of 180

32. Pick out the wrong statement from the following.

1) Viscosity depends upon the nature of the liquids

2) Generally viscosity of liquids is more than that of gases

3) In case of gases, viscosity decreases with increase in temperature

4) In case of liquids, viscosity decreases with increase in temperature

Question 32 of 180

33. The distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is...

A. λ

B. λ/2

C. λ/3

D. λ/4

Question 33 of 180

34. The power of a lens having refractive index 1.25 is +3 diopters. When placed in a liquid its power is -2 diopters. The refractive index of the liquid is

1) 1.2

2) 1.4

3) 1.5

4) 1.6

Question 34 of 180

35. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 600, the angle of refraction ‘A’, angle of deviation ‘δ ’ and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is

1) 1.73

2) 1.15

3) 1.5

4) 1.33

Question 35 of 180

36. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10^-4m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

A. 1.2 W

B. 1.4 W

C. 1.7 W

D. 12 W

Question 36 of 180

37. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

1) 0.25

2) 0.5

3) 0.75

4) 0.99

Question 37 of 180

38. A thin circular loop of radius ‘R’ rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ‘ ’. A small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω ≤ √(g/R) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = √(2g/R) (Neglect the friction)

1) 300

2) 600

3) 450

4) 1200

Question 38 of 180

39. A nucleus of mass 'M + ∆m' is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass '(M/2)' each speed of light is ‘C’. The speed of daughter nuclei is

1) C√[∆m/M + ∆m]

2) C√[∆m/M]

3) C√[2∆m/ M]

4) C√[M/2∆m]

Question 39 of 180

40. A Carnot engine operates between 800K and 200K. If it absorbs 8 kJ of heat in each cycle, the work done by it per cycle is...

A. 1 kJ

B. 2 kJ

C. 2.7 kJ

D. 6 kJ

Question 40 of 180

41. An electric cell of e.m.f ‘E’ is connected across a copper wire of diameter ‘d’ and length 'l' the drift velocity of electron in the wire is 'v_d' If the length and diameter of the wire are doubled the new drift velocity of electron is

1) v_d

2) 2v_d

3) v_d/2

3) v_d/4

Question 41 of 180

42. A voltage of peak value 283 volt and varying frequency is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which R =3 ohm, ‘L=25 mH and C = 40μF . The frequency of the source at which maximum power is dissipated in the circuit is

1) (5000/π) Hz

2) (50/π)Hz

3) (500/π)Hz

4) (5/π)Hz

Question 42 of 180

43. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

A. interference

B. diffraction

C. resolving power

D. polarization

Question 43 of 180

44. Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of mass 88000 kg. The inner and outer radii of each column are 30cm and 40cm respectively. Assuming load distribution is uniform. The compressional strain of each column is (Y = 2×10¹¹ N/m² )

1) 20×10^-6

2) 1.25×1010^-6

3) 5×10^-6

4) 10×10^-6

Question 44 of 180

45. If for the planets in solar system, r is the radius of the orbit and T is the periodic time, then the ratio r³ /T² is...

A. 1

B. same for all planets

C. more for farther planets

D. less for farther planets

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. The probabilities of homozygous tall, heterozygous tall, and homozygous dwarf plants in F2 generation of a monohybrid cross respectively, is

1) 1/4, 1/2, 1/4

2) 1/2, 1/4, 1/2

3) 1/2, 1/4, 1/4

4) 1/4, 1/4, 1/2

Question 46 of 180

47. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option

Column – I Column - II

Ascomycetes i) Ustilago
Phycomycetes ii) Saccharomyces
Basidionycetes iii) trichoderma
Deuteromycetes iv) Albugo

1) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

3) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

4) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)

Question 47 of 180

48. Study of arrangement of perianth parts in bud condition, is not possible in

1) Calotropis

2) Glycirrhiza

3) Euphorbia

4) Allium

Question 48 of 180

49. Photorespiration is performed by

1) Peroxisome

2) Chloroplast

3) Mitochondrion

4) All the above

Question 49 of 180

50. Eight bacteria kept in cup divide repeatedly and produce 64 bacteria in 2 hours. Find the time consumed in binary fission.

1) 15 minutes

2) 20 minutes

3) 40 minutes

4) 30 minutes

Question 50 of 180

51. A cell under hypertonic solution shows incipient plasmolysis, then what will be present between cell wall and cell membrane

1) Water with Ψ_W zero

2) Solution with same Ψ_W , as solution out the cell

3) Water with slightly high Ψ_W as compare to solution outside the cell

4) Vacume

Question 51 of 180

52. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

1) Independent sporophyte

2) Presence of archegonia

3) Well developed vascular tissues

4) Independent gametophyte

Question 52 of 180

53. Which of the following is a heterosporus fern

1) Salvinia

2) Selaginella

3) Dryopteris

4) Lycopodium

Question 53 of 180

54. Select the correct combination of the statements (i-iv) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms

i) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas

ii) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen

iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesise cellulose from glucose

iv) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.

1) (ii) and (iii)

2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

3)(ii), (iii) and (iv)

4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 54 of 180

55. Bicollateral vascularbundles are present in which part of the Solanaceae and Cucurbitaceae members

1) Root

2) Leaves

3) Stem

4) All the above

Question 55 of 180

56. DNA with one strand labeled with radioactive thymidine. Allowed to replicate in normal nutrient medium for three generations. Then proportion of DNA molecules showing radioactivity is

1) 12.5% only

2) 25%

3) 6.25%

4) 50%

Question 56 of 180

57. How many of the following statements are true

i) Volvox and Fucus show oogamy

ii) Agar is commercially obtained from Gelidium and Gracillaria

iii) Gametophyte is parasite on sporophyte in Sphagnum

iv) Funaria is monoecious and Marchantia is dioecious

v) Source of SCP are Spirullina and Chlorella

1) 4

2) 3

3) 5

4) 2

Question 57 of 180

58. Synthesis of human insulin in E.coli cells is the best evidence for

1) Ambiguity of genetic code

2) Universality of genetic code

3) Non cognate genetic code

4) Genetic code is not degenerate

Question 58 of 180

59. Among the following the no. of asexual reproductive structures is/are Gemmae of Marchantia, Epiphyllous buds of Bryophyllum, Bulbils of Agave Rhizome of zinger, Tuberous stem of potato, Offsets of Pistia, Zoospores of Chlamydomonas, Hormogonia of Nostoc

1) 2 only

2) 4 only

3) 6 only

4) All eight

Question 59 of 180

60. Pioneers of xerarch succession are

1) Vascular archegoniates

2) Archegoniate spermatophytes

3) Non- archegoniate spermatophytes

4) Composite plants having thalloid body with light harvesting pigments and thalloid bodywith chitinous cellwalls

Question 60 of 180

61. Agar - agar, an inert polysaccharide is extracted from

1) Polysiphonia and Porphyra, members of red algae

2) Gracilaria and Gelidium members of brown algae

3) Ectocarpus and Laminaria, members of brown algae

4) Gracilaria and Gelidium, members of red algae

Question 61 of 180

62. Find the correct match w.r.t annual rings

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 62 of 180

63. The biocatalyst ribozyme is synthesized by a process called

1) Replication

2) Reverse transcription

3) Transcription

4)Translation

Question 63 of 180

64. Which is incorrect about coenzyme

1) Every enzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is a coenzyme

2) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is not a coenzyme

3) Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides and are composed of vitamins

4) Coenzymes are the active constituents of enzymes.

Question 64 of 180

65. Select the nutritive tissue in the structure of anther

1) –S

2) –R

3) –Q

4) P

Question 65 of 180

66. A cell is kept in hypotonic solution, after sometime is

1) OP ↓ and Ψ_S ↑

2) Ψ_W↑ and DPD ↓

3) Ψ_P and TP both ↑

4) all of the above

Question 66 of 180

67. Colchicine is an alkaloid used to double the number of chromosomes (Polyplody). It is obtained from

1) Rhizome of colchicum autumnale

2) Corms of C. autumnale

3) Bulbs of C. autumnale

4) Root tubers of C. autumnale

Question 67 of 180

68. Select the incorrect statements

(i) Cell organelle within cell organelle is plasmosome

(ii) Factory of protein factories is ergosome

(iii) Membraneless non-cell organelle is centrosome

(iv) nucleosomes are ribonucleoprotein bodies

(v) A eukaryotic cell in a eukaryotic cell is vegetative cell

1) ii, iii and iv only

2) i, iv and v only

3) iii, iv and v only

4) i, ii, iii, iv and v only

Question 68 of 180

69. Which of the following statements are correct

A. Guttation is the manifestation of root pressure

B. Natural antitranspirant is PMA

C. Turgor pressure, wall pressure
and pressure potential of a cell, all are numerically equal with same sign

D. High nitrogen to carbon ratio is found in Ureids

1) A B C only

2) B, C, D only

3) A B C D only

4) A, C, D only

Question 69 of 180

70. Find the correct match
I) Aspergillus niger — fungus — citric acid
II) Streptococcus — bacterium — streptokinase
III) Trichoderma polysporum — fungus — cyclosporin A
IV) Monascus purpureus — yeast — statins
The correct answer is

1) I, II, IV only

2) I, II, III only

3) II, III, IV only

4) I, II, III, IV

Question 70 of 180

71. Meiosis involves

1. One nuclear, one chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

2. Two nuclear, one chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, one cycle of DNA replication

3. One nuclear, two chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

4. Two nuclear, two chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, two cycles of DNA replication

Question 71 of 180

72. Regarding ATP synthesis in aerobic respiration select the correct match

A B C D

1) III IV I V

2) IV III II I

3) IV III V I

4) III I IV V

Question 72 of 180

73. Consider the following statements and select the wrong one

1) Motile spores and gametes are absent in Rhodophyceae

2) Perfect stages are rare of occurrence in Deuteromycetes

3) Though sex organs are formed, sexual reproduction is missing in Basidiomycates

4) All bryophytes are homosporons

Question 73 of 180

74. Match the columns, I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given

1) a – 2 – K , b – 1 – K, c – 3 – L

2) a – 2 – L , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – L

3) a – 2 – K , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – L

4) a – 2 – L , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – K

Question 74 of 180

75. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

1) 5n, 4n, 7n

2) 7n, 5n, 4n

3) 4n, 5n, 7n

4) 5n, 7n, 4n

Question 75 of 180

76. Which site of a tRNA molecule forms hydrogen bonds with particular codon of mRNA molecule?

1) DHU loop

2) Anticodon end

3) Accessory arm

4)3' end of the t-RNA molecule

Question 76 of 180

77. Select the wrong match for microbial products

1) Monascus penpureus – Statins

2) Trichoderma polysporium – Cephalosporin A

3) Streptococcus – Streptokinase

4) Penicillum notatum – Penicillin

Question 77 of 180

78. Identify the set of plants without archegonia

1) Chara, Cladophora, Capsicum and Colchicum

2) Marchantia, Marselia, Cycas and Pinus

3) Riccia, Pteris, Polytrichum, Cycas

4) Sphagnum, Adiantum, Salvinia, Ginkgo

Question 78 of 180

79. The minerals involved in water-splitting reaction during light phase of photosynthesis is/are

1) Calcium, Magnesium and Chlorine

2) Calcium, Potassium and Manganese

3) Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine

4) Calcium, Molydenum and Manganese

Question 79 of 180

80. The following set of cell organs are included in endomembrane system

1) Lysosomes, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

2) Dictyosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

3) Glyoxysome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

4) ER, Golgicomplex, Suicidal bags, Vacuoles

Question 80 of 180

81. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M-phase, what will be the content of DNA at G1 phase chromosome and S - phase chromosome of mitosis?

1) 2C & 4C

2) 4C & 4C

3) 4C & 2C

4) 2C & 3C

Question 81 of 180

82. Consider the following statements and select the number of correct statements

1. Replication of DNA is carried out by semi-conservative method in prokaryotes only

2. Hershey and chase conducted transformation experiments to confirm the genetic nature of DNA

3. Three types of RNA polymerases or formed in the
nucleus of eukaryotes

4. After transcription also gene regulation is possible in eukaryotes

1) One

2) Four

3) Three

4) Two

Question 82 of 180

83. The leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in mature plant in

1) China rose

2) Mango

3) Delphenium

4) Nerium

Question 83 of 180

84. The number of Phosphodiester bonds and ester bonds Present in 13.6 nm length DNA

1) 158 and 178

2) 80 and 160

3) 98 and 118

4) 78 and 158

Question 84 of 180

85. The fruit of Annona squamosa (custard apple) develops from

1) polycarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

2) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary and thalamus

3) single ovary

4) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary

Question 85 of 180

86. In the given diagrams the correct labelling of A, B, C, D, respectively, is

1) A-Frond, B-Stipe, C-Branches, D-Holdfast

2) A-Flagella, B-Frond, C-Holdfast, D-Stipe

3) A-Air bladder, B-Holdfast, C-Stipe, D-branches

4) A-Air bladder, B-Frond, C-branches, D-Daughter colony

Question 86 of 180

87. Read the following and identify the correct statement

1) The price of earth’s fundamental ecosystem services is – US $18 trillion

2) Among the all ecosystem services soil formation alone accounts for about 50%.

3) Bees are alone responsible for 30-45% of food production in US by bringing cross pollination in crops

4) The lungs of the word are cows, buffaloes, goats and sheep

Question 87 of 180

88. Bacteria differ from cyanobacteria by which of the following features?

i) Absence of flagella and fimbriae

ii) dsDNA without attached histones

iii) Anoxygenic photosynthesis

iv) Stored food as glycogen

v) Absence of N₂ Fixing cells like heterocysts

1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

2) (ii), (iv) and (v)

3)(iii), (iv) and (v)

4) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

Question 88 of 180

89. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground tissue system of roots, is characterised by

1) Casparian bands

2) Starch grains

3) Complementary cells

4) Intercellular spaces

Question 89 of 180

90.

Select the correct match
Column – I Column – II

A. Terminalisation I. Pachytene

B. Synapsis II. Anaphase II

C. Disjunction III. Zygotene

D. Recombinations IV. Anaphase I

V. Diakinesis
A B C D

1) III V IV II

2) V III II I

3) V III IV I

4) III IV II V

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. Statement –1 (S₁): When one cardio myocyte receives a signal to contract, its neighbours are also stimulated to contract

Statement –2(S₂): Communication junctions (inter calated discs)

at some fusion points allow the cells to contract as a unit

1) S1 is false; S2 is true

2) S1 is true; S2 is false

3) Both S2 and S1 are true

4) Both S1 and S2 are false

Question 91 of 180

92. What is safe sex period regarding birth control?

1) A week before and a week after menses

2) A week before menses

3) A week after menses

4) None of these

Question 92 of 180

93. In present times the origin of life is not possible from inorganic compounds due to

1) Raw material not available

2) High O2 in atmosphere

3) Decrease in temperature

4) Excess of pollution

Question 93 of 180

94. The diagram shows a section through an alveolus and ablood capillary What are the oxygen concentrations at A,B and C?

A B C

1) Low High Low

2) Low High High

3) High Low Low

4) High Low High

Question 94 of 180

95. Following is a diagrammatic representation of endocrine glands with a labelled part ‘A’. The part ‘A’ serves as the connection between

1) Hypothalamus and adenohypophysis

2) Hypothalamus and neurohypophysis

3) Hypothalamus and pars nervosa

4) Hypothalamus and epiphysis

Question 95 of 180

96. Arrange the following habitats related to Bio diversity conservation in India in descending order

M)Biosphere reserves N)National Parks

O) Bio diversity hot spots P) Sanctuaries

1 )M-P-O-N

2) O-M-N-P

3) P-N-M-O

4) M-N-O-P

Question 96 of 180

97. Find out the correct labelling of bones A, B, C and D in the given figure

1) A-Clavicle B-Humerus C-Ulna D-Radius

2) A-Clavicle B-Humerus C-Radius D-Ulna

3) A-Scapula B-Humerus C-Ulna D-Ulna

4) A-Clavicle B-Femur C-Radius D-Ulna

Question 97 of 180

98. In kidneys, renal papillae are part of

1) renal columns

2) columns of Bertini

3) renal pelvis

4) medullary pyramids

Question 98 of 180

99. The copper ions of IUDs

1) Suppress the motility and fertilization capacity of sperms

2) Make the uterus suitable for implantation

3) Increase pinocytosis of sperms

4) Make cervix hostile to sperms

Question 99 of 180

100. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

1)Lemur

2)Tasmanian wolf

3) Numbat

4)Bobcat

Question 100 of 180

101. In Anaphylaxis, IgE interacts with which one of the following biocyte to promote release of inflammatory mediators.

Question 101 of 180

102. Which of the following statements about blood transfusion is correct

1) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-B.

2) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B and receive from group-AB

3) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-O and receive from group-B

4) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-AB

Question 102 of 180

103. The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic process. On this basis fill up A and B boxes in the given diagram with correct options

1) A = Natality + Immigration, B = Mortality + Emigration

2) A = Natality + Mortality, B = Immigration + Emigration

3) A = Birth rate + Death rate, B = Migration + Emigration

4) A = Natality + Emigration, B = Mortality + Immigration

Question 103 of 180

104. A tumour in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the hormones in that region. Which of the following you might expect to find in a patient with such a tumour?

1) Increased blood sodium levels

2) Increased blood glucose levels

3) Decreased blood calcium levels

4) Increased dehydration

Question 104 of 180

105. Which of the following is responsible for rejection of graft ?

1) Cell mediated immunity

2) Antibody mediated immunity

3) Cytokine barrier

4) Inflammation

Question 105 of 180

106. Which of the following recombinant protein has been used to treat emphysema?

1) β-galactosidase

2) Alpha – lactalbumin

3) α-1 antitrypsin

4) Adenosine deaminase

Question 106 of 180

107. If a female having gene for haemophilia and colour blindness on its one chromosome marries a normal male, then what are the chances in their offspring

1) 50% son are diseased and 50%are normal

2) All normal offspring

3) 100% daughters are carrier

4) 100% son are diseased

Question 107 of 180

108. The four structure listed are part of the human excretory system.
I. Bladder II. Kidney III. Ureter IV. Urethra
In which order does a molecule of urea pass through these structures?

1) 1-I,1-II, 1-III, 1-IV

2) 2-I, 2-IV, 2-III, 2-II,

3) 3-II, 3-I, 3-III, 3-IV,

4) 4-II, 4-III, 4-I, 4-IV,

Question 108 of 180

109. Complete the following Analogy

Seminal Vesicle: Cockroach: : --------: human

1) Spermatheca

2) rete-testis

3) Epididymis

4) Oothecal chamber

Question 109 of 180

110. Match the Columns and choose the Correct answer

Column I Column II

a.National aquatic (i) Endoskeleton fully

Animal ossified

b.National Heritage (ii) Seven cervical

Animal Vertebrae

c.National Bird (iii) Sheds scales as

Skin cast

d.National Reptile (iv) Longest gestation

Period

(v) Cormorant

1) a – ii, b – iii, c - i, d – v

2) a – ii, b – iv, c - i, d – iii

3) a – iii, b – v, c - i, d – ii

4) a – i, b – ii, c - iv, d – v

Question 110 of 180

111. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?

1) Haemocytes

2) Serum albumins

3) Serum globulins

4) Fibrinogen in the plasma

Question 111 of 180

112. Which of the following technique has been shown in the given diagram

1) Agarose gel electrophoresis in which smallest DNA fragment moves farther

2) Identification and elimination of non-transformants

3) Agarose gel electrophoresis in which DNA fragments resolve according to their size

4) More than one option is correct

Question 112 of 180

113. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t alimentary canal of cockroach?

1) Oesophagus leads into a sac like structure called crop used for storing of food

2) Gizzard has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner cuticle forming six highly chitinous plate called teeth

3) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caeca is present at the junction of foregut and midgut

4) The hindgut is narrower than midgut and is differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum

Question 113 of 180

114. According to Forestry Commission Report 1997 the total forest cover of India:

1) 11%

2) 19.5%

3) 17%

4) 18.7%

Question 114 of 180

115. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is

1) corona radiate, zona pellucid and vitelline membrane

2) zona pellucid, corona radiate and vitelline membrane

3) vitelline membrane, zona pellucid and corona radiate

4) zona pellucid, vitelline membrane and corona radiate

Question 115 of 180

116. The embryonic membrane involved in the formation of placenta in human is

1) yolk sac

2) umbilical cord

3) amnion

4) chorion

Question 116 of 180

117. Consider the following diagrammatic representation of the sectional view of cochlea with certain labeled parts A,B,C and D. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t labeled part and its identification/description.

1) A – Scala media-Contains endolymph

2) B- Tectorial membrane – Vibrates and sends Sensory impulses to auditory area of brain

3) C- Scala vestibuli – Contains perilymph

4) D-Basilar membrane-Organ of Corti rest upon it

Question 117 of 180

118. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

1) Calciferol – Pellagra

2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

4) Cobalamin – Beriberi

Question 118 of 180

119. Which of the following structures are found in female cockroach ?

1) Caudal styles

2) Phallomeres

3) Spermathecae

4) Seminal vesicles

Question 119 of 180

120. Choose the combination of conditions in a tissue that would influence the most rapid dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 120 of 180

121. Which of the following statements correctly defines the phenomenon of genetic drift?
I. Random change in gene allele frequency
II. Occur by chance
III. It is directional
IV. Causes elimination of certain alleles
V. Causes fixation of alleles
The correct combination is

1) I, II and III

2) III, IV and V

3) I, III and V

4) I, II, IV and V

Question 121 of 180

122. How many of the following Animals are non-chordates with water vascular system?

A₁) Sea – Cucumber A₂) Sea – Horse

A₃) Brittle star A₄) Sea – Hare

A₅) Sea – fan A₆) Sea – urchin

1) Two

2) Four

3)Five

4) Three

Question 122 of 180

123. Which of the following statements are false/true?
I. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium level
II. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth.
III. Grave’s disease is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal cortex
IV. ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine output.

1) I and III are true; II and IV are false

2) I and II are true; III and IV are false

3) II and III are true; I and IV are false

4) I, II and III are true; IV only false

Question 123 of 180

124. Find the incorrect match

1) Colostrum – IgA antibodies

2) Recombinant DNA – Hepatitis Bvaccine technology produced fromyeast

3) Allergy – Release of chemicals likehistamine and serotonin from themast cells

4) Autoimmune – Adrenaline disease

Question 124 of 180

125. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are

1) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and parathormone

2) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucacorticoids

3) insulin, glucagon, glucacorticoids and calcitonin

4) insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and melatonin

Question 125 of 180

126. In the resting muscle fiber, tropomyosin partially covers

1) calcium binding sites on troponin

2) actin binding sites on myosin

3) myosin binding sites on actin

4) calcium binding sites on actin

Question 126 of 180

127. Which is correctly labeled with respect to the given diagram?

1) B : Logistic curve

2) C: Carrying capacity

3) C: Exponential curve

4) A : Carrying capacity

Question 127 of 180

128. Which of the following animal is correctly matched with its genus and two of its characteristics?

1) Animal :

Genus: Scoliodon
Key : (a) Placoid scales on skin Characteristics: (b) Air Bladder Present

2) Animal:

Genus : Bufo
Key: (a) Body divisible into head and trunk (b) Cloaca absent

3) Animal :

Genus: Chelone
Key : (a) Epidermal scales present (b) Heart Myogenic

4) Animal :

Genus : Struthio
Key : (a) Skin is dry without glands (b) Fertilisation external

Question 128 of 180

129. Alienate the number of incorrect statement(s)

S1: Laccifer lacks circulatory system.

S2: Neries have nephridia but no nephrons

S3: Silver fish is Non-operculate marine fish

S4: Neophron has both neurons and nephrons

1) Two

2) Three

3) One

4) Four

Question 129 of 180

130. Consider the following features:

A. Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical diploblastic organisms with tissue level of organisation.

B. The body bears eight external rows of ciliary comb plates.

C. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular

D. Exhibit bioluminescence

E. Monoecious, fertilisation external with indirect development The above-mentioned features belong to the animal

1) Physalia

2) Euspongia

3) Fasciola

4) Pleurobrachia

Question 130 of 180

131. The area where wild populations, traditional life styles and genetic resources are protected is

1) Core zone

2) Buffer zone

3) Biosphere reserve

4) Manipulation zone

Question 131 of 180

132. The enzyme which catalysis the following Biochemical reaction is released from which cells

Trypsinogen → Trypsin

1) Gastric Epithelium

2) Intestinal Mucosa (SI)

3) Hepatic lobules

4) Serous cells of Parotid glands

Question 132 of 180

133. Observe the relaxed myocyte’s myofibril

Which of the following muscles have those traits?

a) Lateral rectus muscle

b) Iris muscles

c) Ciliary muscles

d) Sartorius muscle

1) a and c

2) b only

3) a, b and d

4)a and d

Question 133 of 180

134. Epididymis is

1) network of sinuses between seminiferous tubules and vasa efferentia

2) intermediate structure between rete testis and vasa efferentia

3) a long coiled tube between vasa efferentia and vasa deferens

4) connection between vas deferens and seminal vesicle

Question 134 of 180

135. Which of the following is correct match w.r.t. human ancestor, its cranial capacity and certain feature?

1) Australopithecus 500 CC: Hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit

2) Homo habilis 650-800 CC: First human like being the hominid. They probably ate meat

3) Homo erectus 900 CC: Probably did not ate meat

4) More than one option is correct

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. The equivalent weight of HCl in the given reaction is
KCr₂O₇ +14 HCl -->2KCl + 2CrCl₃ +3Cl₂ +H₂O

1) 16.25

2) 36.5

3) 73

4) 85.1

Question 136 of 180

137. For decolourization of one mole of KMnO₄ the required litre of 30 volume H₂O₂ in acidified medium is

1) 0.94

2) 9.4

3) 0.094

4) 3.01

Question 137 of 180

138. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solution will record the highest p^H?

1) BaCl2

2) MgCl2

3) CaCl2

4) SrCl2

Question 138 of 180

139. Which of the following will have highest negative enthalpy of formation?

1) RbF

2) KF

3) CsF

4) NaF

Question 139 of 180

140. Method which is based on difference in solubility of impurities in molted metal and solid state
of metal is

1) Parke’s process

2) bessemerisation

3) zone refining

4) electrolytic refining

Question 140 of 180

141. The weight of H₂O₂present in 80 ml of 10V H₂O₂ solution is

1) 3.2 gr

2) 4.2 gr

3) 2.4 gr

4) 3.6 gr

Question 141 of 180

142. Incorrect statement among the following is

1) Pure CO is prepared bydehydration of formic acid with conc. H₂S4

2) Commercially CO is prepared byassing steam over red hot coke

3) CO is a powerful reducing agentand reduces almost all metal oxidesother than IA, IIA group elements,Al etc...

4) CO is a Lewis acid

Question 142 of 180

143. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in

1) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides

2) forming polymeric hydrides

3) forming covalent halides

4)exhibiting same covalency incompounds

Question 143 of 180

144. Find the correct order of acidity of the following compounds

1) III> II> I> IV

2) III> I> II> IV

3)III> II> IV> I

4) IV> I> II> III

Question 144 of 180

145. In Na₂O having antifluorite structure

1) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupy all the octahedral voids.

2) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupyall the eight tetrahedral voids

3) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangement and O2-
occupy all tetrahedral voids.

4) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangementand O2- occupy all octahedral voids

Question 145 of 180

146. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M-O-H and M¹-O-H have been prepared in two different
beakers. If the electronegativity of M=3.5, M¹=0.9, O=3.5 and H=2.1, then the solutions respectively are

1) acidic, acidic

2) acidic, basic

3) basic, basic

4) basic, acidic

Question 146 of 180

147. The half life of a reaction is 46 minutes when the initial concentration of the reactant is 4 mol/L and 92 minutes when the initial concentration is 0.2mol/L. The order of the reaction is

1) Zero

2) 0.5

3) 2

4) 1

Question 147 of 180

148. I_2(aq)+ I^-(aq) --> I^-_3(aq)+We started with 1 mole of I^₂and 0.5 mole of I^- in one litre flask. After equilibrium is reached excess of AgNO₃ gave 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate. Then
Equilibrium constant is

1) 1.33

2) 2.66

3) 2.0

4) 3.0

Question 148 of 180

149. The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1eV The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na⁺ will be

1) -2.55eV

2) -5.1eV

3) -10.21eV

4) +2.55eV

Question 149 of 180

150. When two moles of an ideal gas (C_pm=(5/2)R) heated from 300K to 600K at constant pressure. The change in entropy of gas (∆s ) is

1) (3/2)R ln2

2) (-3/2)R ln2

3) 5R ln2

4) (5/2)R ln2

Question 150 of 180

151. Which of the following is incorrect for the indicated property

1) Beo < Mgo (Basic strength)

2) SO2> SeO2> TeO2 (Acidic strength)

3) Nacl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl (Melting point)

4) BaSO4> SrSO4> CaSO4>MgSO4> BeSO4 (Solubility)

Question 151 of 180

152. A possitive carbylamine test is given by

1) N,N – dimethyl aniline

2) Isopropyl amine

3) diethyl amine

4) trimethyl amine

Question 152 of 180

153. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

1) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]

2) [ Acid ] × 10⁵ = [conjugatebase]

3) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]× 10⁵

4) [ Acid ] = 2[conjugatebase]

Question 153 of 180

154. The values of electro negativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage ionic character of A-B bond is

1) 50%

2) 72.24%

3) 55.3%

4) 43%

Question 154 of 180

155. The most volatile alkane is

1) n – pentane

2) isopentane

3) neopentane

4) n–hexane

Question 155 of 180

156. Xe has max. EN in:-

1) XeF₂

2) XeF₄

3) XeO₄

4) XeOF₂

Question 156 of 180

157. Which of the substances added to soap make it antiseptic?

1) Iodine

2) KMnO4

3) Bithional

4) Cl2

Question 157 of 180

158. Which of the following organ metallic compound is σ and π
bonded?

1) [ Fe(η⁵-C₂H5)₂]

2) [ PtCl3 (η2 -C2H₄ ) ]

3) [ Co(Co)5 NH₃ ]⁺²

4) All the above

Question 158 of 180

159. For one mole of a vanderwaal’s gaswhen b=0 and T=300K, the PV vs1/V plot is shown below. The value of vander waal’s constant ‘a’ in atm.lit² mole^-2is (graph not to scale)

1) 1.0

2)4.5

3) 1.5

4) 3.0

Question 159 of 180

160. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except

1) sodium

2) NaOH / I₂

3) Neutral FeCl3

4) Br₂ / H₂O

Question 160 of 180

161. At what temperature will average speed of the molecules of the second member of the series C_nH_2nbe the same of Cl₂ at 627⁰C?

1) 259.4K

2) 400K

3) 532.4K

4) 628K

Question 161 of 180

162. Which of the following is used as “morning after pill”?

1) Ethynyl estradiol

2) Mifepristone

3) Norethindrone

4) Promethazine

Question 162 of 180

163.

Question 163 of 180

164. The standard reduction potential for Cu⁺²/ Cu  is +0.34V.Calculate the reduction potential at pH=14
for the above couple. ^K_s_pof Cu(OH)₂= 1.0×10^-19

1) +0.2205V

2) +0.386V

3) -0.2205V

4) -0.386V

Question 164 of 180

165. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C₆H₅CO NH₂ II) Pyridine
III) C₆H₅-N=N-C₆H₅

1) I,III

2) II,III

3) III,IV

4) I,II

Question 165 of 180

166. Which of the following compound react faster through SN²mechanism

1) CH3- CH2Br

2) CH3- O - CH₂Br

3) C₆H5- CO - CH2Br

4) CH₃ - C (CH₃ )2- CH2Br

Question 166 of 180

167. At Boyles temperature, compressibility factor Z for a real gas is

1) Z = 1

2) Z = 0

3) Z > 1

4) Z >> 1

Question 167 of 180

168. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

1) (CH3)3N

2) (SiH3)3N

3) XeF2

4) SF₄

Question 168 of 180

169. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 169 of 180

170. An oxide of Nitrogen which form reddish brown fumes in air is

1) N₂O

2) NO₂

3) NO

4) N₂O₃

Question 170 of 180

171. Number of stereoisomers of the given compound

1) 2

2)3

3)4

4)6

Question 171 of 180

172.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

1) formation of Y is a syn addition

2)during the formation of X, the intermediate is a carbocation

3) X is a positional isomer of Y

4) formation of Y follows markonikov's rule

Question 172 of 180

173. The correct order of increasing acidic strength of the compounds
A) CH₃CO₂H
B) MeOCH₂CO₂H
C) CF₃CO₂H

1) D < A < B < C

2) A < D < B < C

3) B < D < A < C

4) D < A < C < B

Question 173 of 180

174. Which of the following amines form N-nitroso derivative when treated with NaNO₂and HCl

1) CH3NH2

2) C₆H₅ - NH₂

3) C₆H₅ - NH - R

Question 174 of 180

175. The correct order of E⁰_M⁺²_/Mvalues with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr,Mn,Fe and Co is

1) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co

2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co

3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co

4) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co

Question 175 of 180

176. Assertion: Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
Reason: ΔH_f⁰ of graphite is taken as zero

1) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2) Both assertion and reason are correct reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion.

3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.

4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

Question 176 of 180

177. The number of carbon atoms per unitcell of diamond unitcell is

1) 8

2) 6

3) 1

4) 4

Question 177 of 180

178. Which of the following ‘gem’ diols is stable?

Question 178 of 180

179. The molecule which is having maximum number of lone pair

1) SiF₄

2) BrF₃

3) XeF₂

4) SF₄

Question 179 of 180

180. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural?

1) NH₃ , PH₃

2) XeF₄ , XeO₄

3) SiCl₄ , PCl⁺₄

4) diamond, silicon carbide

Question 180 of 180

NEET Free Mock Test 1

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