NEET Free Mock Test 2

NEET examination is one of the toughest exams in the country. NEET is aimed at selecting candidates for medical courses across the country. The exam consists of 180 questions for 720 marks. Each question carries 4 marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark. Duration of the exam is 180 minutes.

  • Physics
  • Botany
  • Zoology
  • Chemistry

Physics

1. A solid sphere of mass ’M’ ; radius ‘R’ and having moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass is ‘I’. It recast into a disc of thickness ‘t’. Whose moment of inertia about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane remains ‘I’ then radius of the disc will be

Question 1 of 180

2. If for the planets in solar system, r is the radius of the orbit and T is the periodic time, then the ratio r³ /T² is...

Question 2 of 180

3. A projectile is thrown in the direction making an angle θ with the horizontal. The projectile attains maximum height for θ equal to...

Question 3 of 180

4. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetization of 8 A/m when placed in an external magnetic field of 0.6 T at a temperature of 4 K. When the same sample is placed in an external magnetic field of 0.2 T at a temperature of 16 K, the magnetization will be

Question 4 of 180

5. Gas at a pressure ‘P0’ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their r.m.s speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

Question 5 of 180

6. A sonometer wire resonate with a given tuning fork forming standing wave with five antinode between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of M is

Question 6 of 180

7. A single slit of width ‘0.1mm’ is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wave length and diffraction bands are observed on a screen ‘0.5m’ from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is

 

Question 7 of 180

8. A variable frequency A.C. source is connected to a capacitor. How will the displacement current change with decrease in frequency?

Question 8 of 180

9. Pick out the wrong statement from the following.

Question 9 of 180

10. A rocket of initial mass  'm0' moving with velocity ‘v’ discharges a jet of gases of mean density ‘ρ’ and effective area ‘A’ the minimum value of ‘v’ of fuel gas, which enables the rocket to rise vertically above is nearly

Question 10 of 180

11. The aperture of the objective lens of a telescope is made large so as to

 

Question 11 of 180

12. A Carnot engine operates between 800K and 200K. If it absorbs 8 kJ of heat in each cycle, the work done by it per cycle is...

Question 12 of 180

13. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

Question 13 of 180

14. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 600, the angle of refraction ‘A’, angle of deviation ‘δ ’ and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is

Question 14 of 180

15. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s² . Compared with her mass and weight on the earth, an astronaut on Mars has...

Question 15 of 180

16. The plane faces of two identical plano-convex lenses each having focal length of 40cm  are pressed against each other to form a usual convex lens. The distance from lens, at which an object must be placed to obtain a real, inverted image with magnification one is

 

Question 16 of 180

17. The horizontal component of a force of 10 N inclined at 30° to the vertical is...

Question 17 of 180

18. Mark out the incorrect statement regarding transverse standing waves on a string

Question 18 of 180

19. A nucleus of mass 'M + ∆m'  is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass '(M/2)' each speed of light is ‘C’. The speed of daughter nuclei is

Question 19 of 180

20. A thin ring has mass M and radius R. Its moment of inertia about the axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is...

Question 20 of 180

21. An electric cell of e.m.f ‘E’ is connected across a copper wire of diameter ‘d’ and length 'l' the drift velocity of electron in the wire is 'vd' If the length and diameter of the wire are doubled the new drift velocity of electron is

Question 21 of 180

22. A thin circular loop of radius ‘R’ rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ‘ ’. A small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω ≤ √(g/R) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = √(2g/R) (Neglect the friction)

Question 22 of 180

23. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1:4 produce an interference pattern the fringe visibility will be

 

Question 23 of 180

24. To keep a vehicle moving at the speed v requires a force F. The power needed is...

Question 24 of 180

25. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

 

Question 25 of 180

26. In a large building there are 15 bulbs of ‘40w’ 5 bulbs of ‘100w’. 5 fans of ‘80w’ and 1 heater of ‘1kw’ . The voltage of electric mains is ‘220 volts’.The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building will be

 

Question 26 of 180

27. The distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is...

Question 27 of 180

28. The value of the stopping potential depends on...

Question 28 of 180

29. Magnetic moment and angular moment of revolving electron in a hydrogen atom ‘M’ and ‘L’ respectively then

Question 29 of 180

30. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

Question 30 of 180

31. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease of cross sectional area by 2%. The percentage increase in its length is

Question 31 of 180

32. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2ev and the stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface is ‘5volt’. The incident radiation lies in

 

Question 32 of 180

33. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

Question 33 of 180

34. Two satellites have periods P1 and P2, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h1 and h2,respectively. If h1 > h2, then...

 

Question 34 of 180

35. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 'λ1'and 'λ2' respectively are placed at a distance ‘R’. The force per unit length on either wire will be (k = (1/4πε0))

Question 35 of 180

36. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10-4 m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

Question 36 of 180

37. Two identical containers each of volume V joined by a normal pipe contains gas at a
temperature T. If one of the containers is now maintained at the same temperature T while the other is maintained at 2T, the number of moles of gas in the container having temperature 2T will be

Question 37 of 180

38. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of emf ‘e’ is balanced at a length l/5 from the positive end of the wire. Assuming there is no contribution in resistance from any part of the circuit except the potentiometer wire, the balancing length for the same cell if length of the wire is increased by l/2 is

Question 38 of 180

39. Of the following the one that is a vector is...

Question 39 of 180

40. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

Question 40 of 180

41. A boy swings from a rope 4.9 m long. His approximate period of oscillation is...

Question 41 of 180

42. Two bodies ‘A and B’ of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid partition. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. A force of 200N is applied horizontally at ‘A’ action reaction force between A and B is (g = 10 m/sec2)

Question 42 of 180

43. In a uniform segment of a circuit the current is proportional to the...

Question 43 of 180

44. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

 

Question 44 of 180

45. When a ferromagnet is inserted in a current-carrying loop, the magnetic field...

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. How many of the following statements are true

i) Volvox and Fucus show oogamy

ii) Agar is commercially obtained from Gelidium and Gracillaria

iii) Gametophyte is parasite on sporophyte in Sphagnum

iv) Funaria is monoecious and Marchantia is dioecious

v) Source of SCP are Spirullina and Chlorella

Question 46 of 180

47. Which is incorrect about coenzyme

Question 47 of 180

48. How many of the following statements are correct

A. Yellow mosaic resistance mung bean was developed by hybridisation

B. Yellow mosaic resistant bhindi was produced by mutation breeding

C. White rust resistant mustard was developed by hybridisation

D. Pomato was developed by somatic hybridisation E. Golden rice variety was produced by trans genies

Question 48 of 180

49. Which of the following are the simple mechanical tissues

Question 49 of 180

50. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

Question 50 of 180

51. In dicot roots, the pericycle gives rise to

Question 51 of 180

52. Root nodules (tubercles) are found on

Question 52 of 180

53. Which of the following instruments are correctly matched, except?

i) Potometer – Transpiration rate

ii) Atmometer – Demonstrate transpiration pull

iii) Auxanometer – Growth measurement

iv) Ganog’s light screen – Measure light intensity

v) Manometer – Demonstreate toot pressure

Question 53 of 180

54. Deficiency of the following nutrients causes inhibition of cell division, delay in flowering and chlorosis

Question 54 of 180

55. Exogenous and endogenous spores of sac fungi respectively are

Question 55 of 180

56. Mesokaryotic condition and mixotrophic nutrition are found, respectively, in

Question 56 of 180

57. Primary succession results in formation of communities on area

Question 57 of 180

58. A pure pea plant having yellow pods and yellow cotyledons is crossed with another pure pea plant having green pods and green cotyledons. What will be the ratio of recombinants and non-recombinants in F2 generation?

Question 58 of 180

59. Photorespiration is performed by

Question 59 of 180

60. The leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in mature plant in

Question 60 of 180

61. Which of the following is a wrong match?

Question 61 of 180

62. How many chromosomes will be found in a cell at anaphase –II having 2n = 50 ?

Question 62 of 180

63. Identify the correct matched related to plant movements

Question 63 of 180

64. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

Question 64 of 180

65. In dicotyledonous stem, which of the following is the sequence of tissues from inside to outside?

Question 65 of 180

66. Which inflorescences are of similar type?

Question 66 of 180

67. An abnormality in humans called ‘Sickle cell anemia’ is resulted due to point mutation leading to the change of

Question 67 of 180

68. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

Question 68 of 180

69. Resistance to shoot and fruit borer is observed in a bhindi variety namely

Question 69 of 180

70. Number of amembraneous structures from the following is/areRibosome, Centriole, Cytoskeleton, Peroxisome, Nucleolus, Inclusion bodies, Power house of the cell

Question 70 of 180

71. A  cell under hypertonic solution shows incipient plasmolysis, then what will be present between cell wall and cell membrane

Question 71 of 180

72. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground tissue system of roots, is characterised by

Question 72 of 180

73. Find out the incorrect pair

Question 73 of 180

74. Read the following character given with respect to short distance transport and identify correct combination
Property                Simple diffusion               Facilitated diffusion            Activetransport
I) Requires special              Yes                                       No                                    Yes
membrane proteins
II) Requires ATP energy      No                                       No                                   Yes
III) Highly selective              Yes                                      Yes                                   No
IV) Uphill transport              No                                      No                                   Yes

Question 74 of 180

75. A cell is kept in hypotonic solution, after sometime is

Question 75 of 180

76. Select the correct statement regarding activated sludge formed during secondary sewage treatment

Question 76 of 180

77. Study of arrangement of perianth parts in bud condition, is not possible in

Question 77 of 180

78. Pioneers of xerarch succession are

Question 78 of 180

79. Identify P,Q,R and S in the given diagram

Question 79 of 180

80. S-I : Virus resistant plants can be recovered from virus infected plants in Potato and Banana by shoot apex culture

S-II : Pollen culture involving colchicine treatment always results in the production of male homozygous diploid plants only.

Question 80 of 180

81. The probabilities of homozygous tall, heterozygous tall, and homozygous dwarf plants in F2 generation of a monohybrid cross respectively, is

Question 81 of 180

82. Regarding ATP synthesis in aerobic respiration select the correct match 

 

A B C D

Question 82 of 180

83. Which one of the following statements regarding enzymes is wrong

Question 83 of 180

84. The following is not a fungal plant disease

Question 84 of 180

85. DNA polymerase enzyme used in PCR technique is isolated from

Question 85 of 180

86. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon compound by a reaction between

Question 86 of 180

87. Ability of sigma to recognise the pollen whether it is of right type or the wrong type

Question 87 of 180

88.

Select the correct match
Column – I                      Column – II

A. Terminalisation                 I. Pachytene

B. Synapsis                             II. Anaphase II

C. Disjunction                        III. Zygotene

D. Recombinations               IV. Anaphase I

V. Diakinesis
A B C D

Question 88 of 180

89. Select the wrong match for microbial products

Question 89 of 180

90. Identify the set of plants without archegonia

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. Which of the following animal is correctly matched with its genus and two of its characteristics?

 

Question 91 of 180

92. Olfactory bulbs are extensions of

Question 92 of 180

93. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I                          Column II
A. Choanocytes               1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts                 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells                  3. Porifera
D. Nephridia                   4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates               5. Annelid

Question 93 of 180

94. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

Question 94 of 180

95. Satellite DNA is useful tool in

Question 95 of 180

96. The three-chambered heart of frog is not as efficient as the human heart with four chambers, because

Question 96 of 180

97. Observe the following

The above device is used to

Question 97 of 180

98. Nephrostome occurs in

Question 98 of 180

99. Bundle of His is a network of:

Question 99 of 180

100. The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic process. On this basis fill up A and B boxes in the given diagram with correct options

Question 100 of 180

101. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

Question 101 of 180

102. Which of the following technique has been shown in the given diagram

 

Question 102 of 180

103. How many of  the following Animals are non-chordates with water vascular system?

A1) Sea – Cucumber      A2) Sea – Horse

A3) Brittle star                 A4) Sea – Hare

A5) Sea – fan                     A6) Sea – urchin

Question 103 of 180

104. Which is correctly labeled with respect to the given diagram?

Question 104 of 180

105. The following depiction is the karyotype of “Cinderalla of genetics”

The sex of the Hexapod should beThe sex of the Hexapod should be

Question 105 of 180

106. Milk of first transgenic cow Rosie consists

Question 106 of 180

107. A tumour in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the hormones in that region. Which of the following you might expect to find in a patient with such a tumour?

Question 107 of 180

108. Which of the following structures are found in female cockroach ?

Question 108 of 180

109. The diagram shows an antibody molecule. Identify A to F.

Question 109 of 180

110. Match the following columns
Column-I                                          Column-II
A. Dodo                                           I) Rauwolfia
B. Reserpine                                  II) Mauritius
C. Nile perch in lake Victoria       III) Habitat destruction
D. Main cause for biodiversity loss  IV) Alien species

Question 110 of 180

111. ABO blood group has

Question 111 of 180

112. Amniocentesis is a technique

Question 112 of 180

113. Given below are four statements A-D w.r.t. mechanism of muscle contraction. Choose from the option stating them as true (T) and false (F)

A. The action potential in the sarcolemma is generated by release of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm

B. The globular head of meromyosin possesses ATPase enzyme activity which causes hydrolysis of ATP and the energy derived make myosin head bind to exposed active sites on actin.

C. Cross bridge formation is followed by pulling the attached myosin filaments towards the centre of ‘I’ band.

D. The breaking of cross bridge requires binding of new ATP at the myosin head.

A B C D

Question 113 of 180

114. Select the synovial joint which is exclusive to Axial skeleton

Question 114 of 180

115. In which one of the following , erythrocytes are repositories of more  ions as compared to others?

Question 115 of 180

116. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

Question 116 of 180

117. Human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle they are

Question 117 of 180

118. Choose the combination of conditions in a tissue that would influence the most rapid dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 118 of 180

119. Match the following columns
Column-I                                                        Column-II
A) Thomas Malthus                                I) Branching descent
B) Hugo de Vries                                     II) Studies on                                                                                     populations
C) Charles Darwin                                   III) Use disuse                                                                                  principle
D) Lamarck                                               IV) Saltation

Question 119 of 180

120. Find out the correct labelling of bones A, B, C and D in the given figure

Question 120 of 180

121. In a population of 60,000 individuals if the frequency of dominant allele is 60%. Then extrapolate the % of Dominant individuals

Question 121 of 180

122. Select the correct statement from the following

Question 122 of 180

123. A phenomena in which a bee visits a flower at the same time every day is called

Question 123 of 180

124. Choose the wrong statement.

Question 124 of 180

125. Two adaptive radiations are shown in the figure below. Animal ‘B’ acquires the same adaptations as the Animal ‘Q’. This type of evolution is called as

Question 125 of 180

126. Choose the wrong statement.

Question 126 of 180

127. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?

Question 127 of 180

128. Which of the following statements about blood transfusion is correct

Question 128 of 180

129. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

Question 129 of 180

130. In cockroach the flow of haemolymph is

Question 130 of 180

131. The four structure listed are part of the human excretory system.
I. Bladder II. Kidney III. Ureter IV. Urethra
In which order does a molecule of urea pass through these structures?

Question 131 of 180

132. The correct match for structures of cockroach is
Column-I                                                  Column-II
A. Ommatidia                             I. Articulates with thorax
B. Trochanter                             II. For vision
C. Coxa                                        III. Forming exoskeleton
D. Sclerites                                  IV. Fused with large and                                                                  stout femur

Question 132 of 180

133. Which of the following statements are false/true?
I. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium level
II. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth.
III. Grave’s disease is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal cortex
IV. ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine output.

Question 133 of 180

134. Fill in the blank A involves mating of animals of two different breeds. Hisardale, a new breed of B, has been developed through this mechanism. A B

Question 134 of 180

135. A sensitized Rh --ve woman gives birth dizygotic twins with different Rh phenotypes then

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural?

Question 136 of 180

137. The most volatile alkane is

Question 137 of 180

138. The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1eV The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be

Question 138 of 180

139. Which of the following C – H bond has the least bond dissociation energy

Question 139 of 180

140. The plots of 1/ XA Vs 1/YA ( where X and YA are the mole fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercepts respectively

Question 140 of 180

141. The pH of a solution of H2O2is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

Question 141 of 180

142. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

Question 142 of 180

143. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except

Question 143 of 180

144. For decolourization of one mole of KMnO4 the required litre of 30 volume H2O2 in acidified medium is

 

Question 144 of 180

145. Total number of coordination isomers shown by complex  [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(Cl)6] is:

Question 145 of 180

146. Which of the following vitamin contains ionone ring and
hydrocarbon chain.

Question 146 of 180

147. In  Na2O having antifluorite structure

Question 147 of 180

148. Method which is based on difference in solubility of impurities in molted metal and solid state
of metal is

Question 148 of 180

149. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

Question 149 of 180

150. The correct statement/s about H2 S2 O7 is/are

Question 150 of 180

151. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

 

Question 151 of 180

152. At Boyles temperature, compressibility factor Z for a real gas is

Question 152 of 180

153. Which of the following is used as “morning after pill”?

Question 153 of 180

154. 51. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zn dust and water gives compound ‘E’. Compound ‘E’ on further treatment with aqu.KOH yields compound ‘F’. Compound ‘F’ is

Question 154 of 180

155. To form osazone, mumber of moles of phenyl hydrazine  required by one mole of glucose is

 

Question 155 of 180

156. Incorrect statement among the following is

Question 156 of 180

157. I2(aq) + I- (aq) --> I-3(aq)+  We started with 1 mole of I2 and 0.5 mole of I- in one litre flask. After equilibrium is reached excess of AgNO3 gave 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate. Then
Equilibrium constant is

Question 157 of 180

158. For the given complex ,[CoCl2(en)(NH3)]+ the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

Question 158 of 180

159. Xe has max. EN in:-

Question 159 of 180

160. Which of the following will have highest negative enthalpy of formation?

Question 160 of 180

161. The correct statement among the following is:
i) NaBH4 produce BH6 on reaction with I2

ii) Reaction between B2H6 and NMe3 is an acid base reaction

iii) BH6 is produced on industrial scale by reaction with BF3, NaH

iv) Boranes on hydrolysis produce
B2H6 and H2 gas

 

 

 

Question 161 of 180

162. The molecule which is having maximum number of lone pair

Question 162 of 180

163. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl3 solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

Question 163 of 180

164. V1 ml of 3M HCl solution is mixed with V2ml of 3M H2SO4 to from a solution in which molarity of H+ ions is 5M, then the relation between V1and V2is

 

Question 164 of 180

165.

 

 

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

Question 165 of 180

166. The equivalent weight of HCl in the given reaction is
KCr2O7 +14 HCl -->2KCl + 2CrCl3 +3Cl2 +H2O

Question 166 of 180

167. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption.

 

Question 167 of 180

168. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M-O-H and M1-O-H have been prepared in two different
beakers. If the electronegativity of M=3.5, M1=0.9, O=3.5 and H=2.1, then the solutions respectively are

Question 168 of 180

169. 100ml of O 2 on partial ozonisation, O2 and O3are obtained in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 what % of O2is converted into ozone

Question 169 of 180

170. The correct order of EM+2/M values with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr,Mn,Fe and Co is

Question 170 of 180

171. At what temperature will average speed of the molecules of the second member of the series  CnH2n be the same of Cl2 at 6270C?

Question 171 of 180

172. Number of stereoisomers of the given compound

 

Question 172 of 180

173. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

 

Question 173 of 180

174. When 0.1mole MnO42- is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required in coulombs to completely oxidize MnO42- to MnO4- is

Question 174 of 180

175.

Number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain

 

Question 175 of 180

176. The number of carbon atoms per unitcell of diamond unitcell is

Question 176 of 180

177. Which of the following ‘gem’ diols is stable?

Question 177 of 180

178.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

Question 178 of 180

179. In Kjeldahl ‘s method, the nitrogen gas evolved from 1.325 g sample of a fertilizer is passed into 50.0 mL of 0.2030 N H2SO4mL of 0.1980 N NaOH are required for the titration of unused acid. The percentage of nitrogen in fertilizer is

Question 179 of 180

180. Which one of the following oxyacids of chlorine is the least
oxidising in nature

Question 180 of 180


 

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