NEET Free Mock Test 2 – india vidya

NEET examination is one of the toughest exams in the country. NEET is aimed at selecting candidates for medical courses across the country. The exam consists of 180 questions for 720 marks. Each question carries 4 marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark. Duration of the exam is 180 minutes.

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. The radius of the planet is ‘R’ A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius ‘r’ with an angular velocity ‘ω’. The acceleration due to the gravity onthe planet surface is

1) r³ω/R

2) r³ω³/R

3) r³ω²/R

4) r³ω²/R²

Question 1 of 180

2. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates

1) OR

2) NAND

3)AND

4) NOR

Question 2 of 180

3. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 10³ kg/m³ with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are 8 × 10³ kg/m³ and 11 × 10³ kg/m³ The ratio of their radii is

1) 11/8

2) √(11/8)

3) 3/2

4) √(3/2)

Question 3 of 180

4. When a ferromagnet is inserted in a current-carrying loop, the magnetic field...

A. decreases slightly

B. decreases greatly

C. does not change

D. increases greatly

Question 4 of 180

5. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

1) A meter scale

2) A vernier callipers where the ‘10’ divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in ‘1 cm’

3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

Question 5 of 180

6. An electric cell of e.m.f ‘E’ is connected across a copper wire of diameter ‘d’ and length 'l' the drift velocity of electron in the wire is 'v_d' If the length and diameter of the wire are doubled the new drift velocity of electron is

1) v_d

2) 2v_d

3) v_d/2

3) v_d/4

Question 6 of 180

7. The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is ‘4.5 joule’. The charge on the sphere is '4μc' its radius will be [(1/4πε₀)=9×10⁹ N - m²c^-2]

1) 4mm

2) 8 mm

3) 2mm

4) 16 mm

Question 7 of 180

8. If for the planets in solar system, r is the radius of the orbit and T is the periodic time, then the ratio r³ /T² is...

A. 1

B. same for all planets

C. more for farther planets

D. less for farther planets

Question 8 of 180

9. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1:4 produce an interference pattern the fringe visibility will be

1) 1

2) 0.8

3)0.4

4) 0.6

Question 9 of 180

10. Two bodies ‘A and B’ of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid partition. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. A force of 200N is applied horizontally at ‘A’ action reaction force between A and B is (g = 10 m/sec²)

1) 170 N

2) 200 N

3) 190 N

4) 210 N

Question 10 of 180

11. For monatomic gases, C_p/C_vis equal to...

A. 1.67

B. R

C. 1.67 R

D. 1.5 R

Question 11 of 180

12. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 12 of 180

13. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index

1) Lies between √2 and 1

2) Lies between 2and √2

3) Is less than 1

4) Is grater 2

Question 13 of 180

14. A projectile is thrown in the direction making an angle θ with the horizontal. The projectile attains maximum height for θ equal to...

A. 0

B. π/4

C. π/2

D. π

Question 14 of 180

15. Gas at a pressure ‘P₀’ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their r.m.s speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

1) 4P₀

2) 2P₀

3) P₀

4) P₀/2

Question 15 of 180

16. Of the following the one that is a vector is...

A. electric charge

B. electric field

C. electric energy

D. potential difference

Question 16 of 180

17. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry and the solid sphere about its diameter axis. After ‘t’ sec their angular velocities are . Choose the correct answer (initial angular speed of each is 'ω₀'

1) ω₁ = ω₂

2) ω₁ < ω₂

3) ω₁ > ω₂

4) Both 2 & 3

Question 17 of 180

18. If the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. is V_mand maximum r.m.s. current is √ 2 ampere for an a.c. circuit with resistance R, then the value of V_min volt is equal to...

A. 2R

B. R

C. 1/R

D. √ 2/R

Question 18 of 180

19. A ‘2Mev’ proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ‘2.5 Tesla’. The force on the proton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10^-27 kg)

1) 3×10^-10 N

2) 8× 10^-11 N

3) 3×10^-11N

4) 8×10^-12N

Question 19 of 180

20. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 20 of 180

21. A particle moves along X –axis in such a way that coordinate X varies with time t according to the equation . x = ( 2-5t+6t²)m The initial velocity of the particle is

1) -5m/s

2) 6m/s

3) -3m/s

4) 3m/s

Question 21 of 180

22. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature ‘'T₁' expands according to the law (P/V) = constant expression for the workdone when its final temperature becomes 'T₂' is

1) R( T₂- T₁)

2) (R/2)( T₂- T₁)

3) (R/4)( T₂- T₁)

4) R (( T₂- (T_1/2))

Question 22 of 180

23. Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of mass 88000 kg. The inner and outer radii of each column are 30cm and 40cm respectively. Assuming load distribution is uniform. The compressional strain of each column is (Y = 2×10¹¹ N/m² )

1) 20×10^-6

2) 1.25×1010^-6

3) 5×10^-6

4) 10×10^-6

Question 23 of 180

24. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s² . Compared with her mass and weight on the earth, an astronaut on Mars has...

A. less mass and less weight

B. more mass and more weight

C. the same mass and less weight

D. the same mass and more weight

Question 24 of 180

25. A variable frequency A.C. source is connected to a capacitor. How will the displacement current change with decrease in frequency?

1) Increases

2) Decreases

3) Remains same

4) Becomes zero

Question 25 of 180

26. A square coil of side ‘25cm’ having 1000 turns is rotated with a uniform speed in a magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the direction of the field. At an instant ‘t’ the ‘e.m.f’ induced in the coil is E= 200 sin100πt. The strength of the magnetic field is (in Tesla)

1) 5/125π

2) 2/125π

3) 1/125π

4) 4/125π

Question 26 of 180

27. The de-Broglie wave length of an electron in first Bohr orbit is

1) Equal to one fourth the circumference of the first orbit

2) Equal to half the circumference of the first orbit

3) Equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit

4) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit

Question 27 of 180

28. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is (C is the Velocity of light )

1) E/C

2) 2E/C

3) EC

4) E/C²

Question 28 of 180

29. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

A. interference

B. diffraction

C. resolving power

D. polarization

Question 29 of 180

30. The value of the stopping potential depends on...

A. the intensity of light

B. the frequency of light

C. the metal surface area

D. the charge on the electron

Question 30 of 180

31. To charge a secondary cell, what is needed is...

A. a d.c. current

B. an a.c. current

C. fresh electrolyte

D. heating

Question 31 of 180

32. If the velocity v of a particle moving along a straight line decreases linearly with its displacement ‘S’ from 20ms-1 to a value approaching zero at S=30m. Then acceleration of the particle at S=15m is

1) 2/3 ms-2

2) -2/3 ms-2

3) 20/3 ms-2

4) -20/3 ms-2

Question 32 of 180

33. The distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is...

A. λ

B. λ/2

C. λ/3

D. λ/4

Question 33 of 180

34. Magnetic moment and angular moment of revolving electron in a hydrogen atom ‘M’ and ‘L’ respectively then

1) (M/L) = (e/2m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

2) (M/L) = (e/2m);M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

3) (M/L) = (2e/m); M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

4) (M/L) = (4e/m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

Question 34 of 180

35. The plane faces of two identical plano-convex lenses each having focal length of 40cm are pressed against each other to form a usual convex lens. The distance from lens, at which an object must be placed to obtain a real, inverted image with magnification one is

1) 80cm

2) 40cm

3) 20cm

4) 162 cm

Question 35 of 180

36. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents ‘SHM’

a) Y = sinωt - cosωt

b) Y = Sin³ ωt

c) Y = 5 cos[(3π/4) - 3ωt]

d) Y = 1 + ωt + ω²t²

1) only ‘a’ and ‘b’

2) only ‘a’

3) only ‘a’ and ‘d’

4) only ‘a’ and ‘c’

Question 36 of 180

37. A Carnot engine operates between 800K and 200K. If it absorbs 8 kJ of heat in each cycle, the work done by it per cycle is...

A. 1 kJ

B. 2 kJ

C. 2.7 kJ

D. 6 kJ

Question 37 of 180

38. A rocket of initial mass 'm₀' moving with velocity ‘v’ discharges a jet of gases of mean density ‘ρ’ and effective area ‘A’ the minimum value of ‘v’ of fuel gas, which enables the rocket to rise vertically above is nearly

1) √(ρg)/(m₀A)

2) √(ρgA)/m₀

3) √(m₀g)/(ρA)

4) √(2m₀gA)/ρ

Question 38 of 180

39. The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is half of its initial velocity ‘u’. Its range on the horizontal plane is

1) 2u2/3g

2) √3u2/2g

3) u2/3g

4) u2/2g

Question 39 of 180

40. A cart of mass ‘M’ is tied by one end of a massless rope of length ‘10m’. The other end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass ‘M’. The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. The man is at ‘x=o’ and the cart at ‘x=10m’ of the man pulls the cart by the rope , the man and the cart will meet at the point

1) X=0

2) x= 5 m

3) x = 10m

4) x=1.5m

Question 40 of 180

41. A solid sphere of mass ’M’ ; radius ‘R’ and having moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass is ‘I’. It recast into a disc of thickness ‘t’. Whose moment of inertia about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane remains ‘I’ then radius of the disc will be

1) 2R/√15

2) R/√2/15

3) 4R/√15

4) R/4

Question 41 of 180

42. A source and Listner both moving towards each other each with speed .frequency of the note emitted by the source is ‘600Hz’ Apparent wave length of sound wave received by the observer is ( V = 330 m/ sec)

1) 0.5m

2) 0.45m

3)0.1m

4) 0.6m

Question 42 of 180

43. Diamagnetic materials are substances that...

A. create a strong magnetic field

B. are attracted by a magnetic field

C. are repelled by a magnetic field

D. have double magnetism

Question 43 of 180

44. For a projectile, its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are equal, maximum height reached by it is (‘u’ is initial velocity of the projectile)

1) u²/2g

2) 3u²/4g

3) 16u²/17g

4) 8u²/17g

Question 44 of 180

45. A thin circular loop of radius ‘R’ rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ‘ ’. A small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω ≤ √(g/R) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = √(2g/R) (Neglect the friction)

1) 300

2) 600

3) 450

4) 1200

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. Which of the following is true w.r.t. grafting

1) Very commonly practiced in monocot plants

2) In air layering i.e. one typed grafting uses auxin to induce rooting

3) Stock is shoot piece which is used in grafting

4) New plant produced after grafting produces fruits similar to scion source

Question 46 of 180

47. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

1) 5n, 4n, 7n

2) 7n, 5n, 4n

3) 4n, 5n, 7n

4) 5n, 7n, 4n

Question 47 of 180

48. Meiosis involves

1. One nuclear, one chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

2. Two nuclear, one chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, one cycle of DNA replication

3. One nuclear, two chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

4. Two nuclear, two chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, two cycles of DNA replication

Question 48 of 180

49. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground tissue system of roots, is characterised by

1) Casparian bands

2) Starch grains

3) Complementary cells

4) Intercellular spaces

Question 49 of 180

50. S-I : Virus resistant plants can be recovered from virus infected plants in Potato and Banana by shoot apex culture

S-II : Pollen culture involving colchicine treatment always results in the production of male homozygous diploid plants only.

1) S-I is true and S-II is false

2) S-I is false and S-II is true

3) S-I and S-II are false

4) S-I and S-II are true

Question 50 of 180

51. Fuel of photosynthetic carbon oxidation, is

1) Glycerate

2) Glycolate

3) Glyceride

4) Glyoxylate

Question 51 of 180

52. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

1) Breast cancer

2) ADA deficiency

3) Meningitis

4) Chicken Pox

Question 52 of 180

53. Exogenous and endogenous spores of sac fungi respectively are

1) Conidia and zoospores

2) Ascospores and zoospores

3) Conidia and ascospores

4) Zoospores and ascospores

Question 53 of 180

54. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

1) Obtaining pure product

2) Addition of preservatives to the product

3) The non requirement of any quality control test

4) Ensuing aerobic conditions in the culture vessel

Question 54 of 180

55. Ability of sigma to recognise the pollen whether it is of right type or the wrong type

1) Starts by a chemical dialogue between pollen and stigma

2) Can occur even inside the styler canal when pollen tube growth is inhibited

3) Is called pollen-pistil interaction

4) All are correct

Question 55 of 180

56. The assemblage of all the population of different species that function as an integrated unit through coevolved metabolic transformation in a specific area is called

1) biome

2) biotic community

3) population

4) ecosystem

Question 56 of 180

57. Identify the incorrect statements

I) Trichoderma species are symbiotic fungi

II) Baculoviruses are nothing but bacteriophages

III) Diphtheria is commonly known as kali khansi

IV) Microbes are used to ferment fish, soyabean and bamboo-shoots to make foods

1) Except IV

2) IV only

3) I, II and IV only

4) II, III only

Question 57 of 180

58. Select the incorrect statements

(i) Cell organelle within cell organelle is plasmosome

(ii) Factory of protein factories is ergosome

(iii) Membraneless non-cell organelle is centrosome

(iv) nucleosomes are ribonucleoprotein bodies

(v) A eukaryotic cell in a eukaryotic cell is vegetative cell

1) ii, iii and iv only

2) i, iv and v only

3) iii, iv and v only

4) i, ii, iii, iv and v only

Question 58 of 180

59. Which of the following statements is true

1) Microbe resistant plant material is sporopollenin

2) Each node is a propagule in Opuntia

3) Bryophyllum reproduces through bulbils

4) Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from zygote

Question 59 of 180

60. Among the following the no. of asexual reproductive structures is/are Gemmae of Marchantia, Epiphyllous buds of Bryophyllum, Bulbils of Agave Rhizome of zinger, Tuberous stem of potato, Offsets of Pistia, Zoospores of Chlamydomonas, Hormogonia of Nostoc

1) 2 only

2) 4 only

3) 6 only

4) All eight

Question 60 of 180

61. The phytohormone/s which play(s) an important role in development, maturation and dormancy of seeds is
I. GA3 II. ABA III. IAA IV. Kinetin

1) I and III

2) II and III

3) II alone

4) III and IV

Question 61 of 180

62. Photorespiration is performed by

1) Peroxisome

2) Chloroplast

3) Mitochondrion

4) All the above

Question 62 of 180

63. Agar - agar, an inert polysaccharide is extracted from

1) Polysiphonia and Porphyra, members of red algae

2) Gracilaria and Gelidium members of brown algae

3) Ectocarpus and Laminaria, members of brown algae

4) Gracilaria and Gelidium, members of red algae

Question 63 of 180

64. Which of the following is true statement

1) Pribnow box lies in mRNA in upstream stream sequence.

2) In clover leaf model of tRNA, amino acid is attached to 5’ by ester bond, if it is a charged one

3) Translation is initiated by factor, formed of -chain, of RNA polymerase enzyme

4) Sn RNA, 5S RNA and tRNA are transcribed with the help of RNA polymerase lll in eukaryotes

Question 64 of 180

65. How many chromosomes will be found in a cell at anaphase –II having 2n = 50 ?

1) 50

2) 40

3) 100

4) 25

Question 65 of 180

66. Go through the diagram given below and indentify the option having correct set of answers

1) A – Long shoot, B- Dwarf shoot, C- Seeds of Ginko plant

2) A – Long shoot, B- Dwarf shoot, C- Seeds of Sequoia plant

3) A – Dwarf shoot, B- Long shoot, C- Seeds of Ginko plant

4) A – Dwarf shoot, B- Long shoot, C- Seeds of Pinus plant

Question 66 of 180

67. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option

Column – I Column - II

Ascomycetes i) Ustilago
Phycomycetes ii) Saccharomyces
Basidionycetes iii) trichoderma
Deuteromycetes iv) Albugo

1) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

3) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

4) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)

Question 67 of 180

68. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

1) Independent sporophyte

2) Presence of archegonia

3) Well developed vascular tissues

4) Independent gametophyte

Question 68 of 180

69. Apple, Custard apple, Pine apple and thorn apple are

1) Parthenocarp, Pseudocarp, Baccate fruit, Schizocarp

2) Pseudocarp, Etaerio of berries, Composite fruit and true fruit

3) Simple fruit, Aggregate fruit, False fruit and multiple fruit

4) Amphisarca, Balausta, Cypsela and Drupe

Question 69 of 180

70. Find out the incorrect pair

1) Brassica, Datura - Radial symmetry

2) Cassia, Dolichos - Zygomorphic

3) Pea, Gulmohur - Bilateral symmetry

4) Canna, Cassia – Actinomorphic

Question 70 of 180

71. How many DNA fragments will be obtained on the digestion of a linear DNA and a circular DNA with a type of restriction enzyme having four recognition sites in both the cases?

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 71 of 180

72. Identify the set of plants without archegonia

1) Chara, Cladophora, Capsicum and Colchicum

2) Marchantia, Marselia, Cycas and Pinus

3) Riccia, Pteris, Polytrichum, Cycas

4) Sphagnum, Adiantum, Salvinia, Ginkgo

Question 72 of 180

73. Which one of the following statements regarding enzymes is wrong

1) Most enzymes are non-proteins but some are ribozymes

2) Enzymes require optimum temperature for maximum activity

3) Majority of the enzymes function well at neutral pH

4) Enzymes are active in minute concentration also

Question 73 of 180

74. Number of genotypes present in yellow round, yellow wrinkled, green round and green wrinkled phenotypes of 2F generation progeny of Mendel’s dihybrid cross respectively is

1) 1, 2, 2, 4

2) 4, 1, 2, 2

3) 2, 1, 2, 4

4) 4, 2, 2, 1

Question 74 of 180

75. ‘Vascular cryptogams’ are not the first group to exhibit

1) Heterospory

2) Root system

3) Complex tissues

4) Homospory

Question 75 of 180

76.

Select the correct match
Column – I Column – II

A. Terminalisation I. Pachytene

B. Synapsis II. Anaphase II

C. Disjunction III. Zygotene

D. Recombinations IV. Anaphase I

V. Diakinesis
A B C D

1) III V IV II

2) V III II I

3) V III IV I

4) III IV II V

Question 76 of 180

77. The minerals involved in water-splitting reaction during light phase of photosynthesis is/are

1) Calcium, Magnesium and Chlorine

2) Calcium, Potassium and Manganese

3) Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine

4) Calcium, Molydenum and Manganese

Question 77 of 180

78. Number of amembraneous structures from the following is/areRibosome, Centriole, Cytoskeleton, Peroxisome, Nucleolus, Inclusion bodies, Power house of the cell

1) 7

2) 5

3) 6

4) 4

Question 78 of 180

79. Read the following and identify the correct statement

1) The price of earth’s fundamental ecosystem services is – US $18 trillion

2) Among the all ecosystem services soil formation alone accounts for about 50%.

3) Bees are alone responsible for 30-45% of food production in US by bringing cross pollination in crops

4) The lungs of the word are cows, buffaloes, goats and sheep

Question 79 of 180

80. The correct sequence of electron acceptors in respiratory electron transport is

1) Cyt a, a3, c

2) cyt b, c, a, a3

3) cyt c, b, a, a3

4) Cyt a3, c, b, a

Question 80 of 180

81. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon compound by a reaction between

1) Succinic acid and pyruvic acid

2) Malic acid and Acetyl CO-A

3) Fumaric acid and pyruvic acid

4) OAA and Acetyl CO-A

Question 81 of 180

82. Identify the non-suberised loosely arranged cells for gaseous exchange in the given diagram

1) C

2) B

3) A

4) D

Question 82 of 180

83. Main function of centromere is

1) Chromosome splitting

2) to help in migration of chromosomes to the poles

3) Crossing over

4) Cytokinesis

Question 83 of 180

84. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M-phase, what will be the content of DNA at G1 phase chromosome and S - phase chromosome of mitosis?

1) 2C & 4C

2) 4C & 4C

3) 4C & 2C

4) 2C & 3C

Question 84 of 180

85. The leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in mature plant in

1) China rose

2) Mango

3) Delphenium

4) Nerium

Question 85 of 180

86. Structures observed both in prokaryotic and eukaryotc cells are

1) 70s ribosomes, cytoplasm, plasma membrane

2) 80s ribosomes, plastids, cytoplasm, mesomes

3) 80s ribosomes, mitochondria, vacuoles

4) 70s ribosomes, ER, dictyosomes

Question 86 of 180

87. Culture of the following SCP organism does not require any organic nutrients in the nutrient medium

1) Spirulina

2) Methylophilus

3)Candida

4) Brevibacterium

Question 87 of 180

88. Wall less protistans among the following are

1) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella

2) Paramoecium & Amoeba

3) Nostoc & Anabaena

4) Diatoms & Dinoflagellates

Question 88 of 180

89. Select the correct combination of the statements (i-iv) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms

i) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas

ii) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen

iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesise cellulose from glucose

iv) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.

1) (ii) and (iii)

2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

3)(ii), (iii) and (iv)

4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 89 of 180

90. Which of the following are correct statements?

j) Pinus and orchid seeds can’t germinate and establish without the formation of mycorrhiza

k) Plants absorbs maximum water from the soil by passive absorption

l) In endodermis region of roots, water follow symplastic pathway

m) High O₂ concentration high light intensity induces photorespiration in sciophytes.

n) paper used to compare transpiration from two surfaces of leaf

1) j, k and m only

2) l, m and n only

3) j, k and n only

4) All of these

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. The four structure listed are part of the human excretory system.
I. Bladder II. Kidney III. Ureter IV. Urethra
In which order does a molecule of urea pass through these structures?

1) 1-I,1-II, 1-III, 1-IV

2) 2-I, 2-IV, 2-III, 2-II,

3) 3-II, 3-I, 3-III, 3-IV,

4) 4-II, 4-III, 4-I, 4-IV,

Question 91 of 180

92. What is common to whale, seal and shark?

1) Homoiothermy

2) Seasonal migration

3) Thick subcutaneous fat

4) Convergent evolution

Question 92 of 180

93. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

1) Temperate deciduous forest

2) Tropical rain forest

3) Tropical deciduous forest

4) Temperate evergreen forest

Question 93 of 180

94. Bundle of His is a network of:

1) Muscle fibres distributedthroughout the heart walls

2) Muscle fibres found only in theventricle wall

3) Nerve fibres distributed inventricles

4) Nerve fibres found throughoutheart

Question 94 of 180

95. Arrange the periods of palaeozoic era in ascending order in a geological time scale

1) Silurian – Devonian – Carboniferous - Permian

2) Devonian – Silurian – Carboniferous – Permian

3) Permian -Devonian– Silurian – Carboniferous

4) Silurian – Carboniferous – Permian – Devonian

Question 95 of 180

96. Which is correctly labeled with respect to the given diagram?

1) B : Logistic curve

2) C: Carrying capacity

3) C: Exponential curve

4) A : Carrying capacity

Question 96 of 180

97. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 97 of 180

98. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovolution?

1) Vitelline membrane

2) Graafian follicle

3) Stroma

4) Germinal epithelium

Question 98 of 180

99. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?
Examples Type of immunity
1) Polymorphonuclear

leucocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers
2) anti-tetanus and anti-snake

bite injections Active immunity
3) Saliva in mouth and

tears in eyes Physical barriers
4) mucous coating of epithelium lining Physiological barriers
the urinogenital tract and the HCl in stomach

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

Question 99 of 180

100. Which of the following is correct match w.r.t. human ancestor, its cranial capacity and certain feature?

1) Australopithecus 500 CC: Hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit

2) Homo habilis 650-800 CC: First human like being the hominid. They probably ate meat

3) Homo erectus 900 CC: Probably did not ate meat

4) More than one option is correct

Question 100 of 180

101. Function of thyrocalcitonin

1) To reduce the calcium level inblood

2) To increase the calcium level inblood

3) Oppose the action of thyroxine

4) Maturation of gonads

Question 101 of 180

102. Based on observations made during a sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S. Beagle, Charles Darwin concluded that

1) Evolution of life forms had occurred driven by use and disuse of organs

2) Allelic frequencies in a population are stable and is constant from generation to generation

3) Mutation causes evolution as these are random and directionless

4) Existing life forms share similarities to varying degrees not only among themselves but also with life forms that existed millions of years ago

Question 102 of 180

103. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates 5. Annelid

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 103 of 180

104. In the resting muscle fiber, tropomyosin partially covers

1) calcium binding sites on troponin

2) actin binding sites on myosin

3) myosin binding sites on actin

4) calcium binding sites on actin

Question 104 of 180

105. Identify the molecules (a) and (B) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.

Molecule Source Use
1) A - Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine
2) B - Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions
3) B - Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations
4) A - Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 105 of 180

106. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates 5. Annelid

1) a – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 5, E – 3

2) a – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 3

3) a – 5, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2, E – 4

4) a – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2

Question 106 of 180

107. A phenomena in which a bee visits a flower at the same time every day is called

1) biological clock

2) circadian rhythm

3) commensalism

4) mutualism

Question 107 of 180

108. Nephrostome occurs in

1) septal nephridia

2) integumentary nephridia

3) pharyngeal and septal nephridia

4) pharyngeal and integumentary nephridia

Question 108 of 180

109. Which of the following is responsible for rejection of graft ?

1) Cell mediated immunity

2) Antibody mediated immunity

3) Cytokine barrier

4) Inflammation

Question 109 of 180

110. ‘Penicillin rich medium proves detrimental to bacteria but not beneficial to Penicillium which releases it’. This association can be symbolized as

1) + +

2) - 0

3) - -

4) + 0

Question 110 of 180

111. Making two varieties of a cattle breed like Red Dane which have no common ancestors on either sides of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations is an example for

1) inbreeding

2) cross breeding

3) out crossing

4) interspecific hybridization

Question 111 of 180

112. When Glomerular filtrate is passing through PCT which of the following Biomolecule’s selective reabsorption is 100% into PTC

B1)Creatinine B2) Glucose

B3) Amino Acids B4) Potassium

1)B2-B3

2)B1

3) B2-B3-B1

4) All except B2

Question 112 of 180

113. Consider the following statements
I) The fertile top soil is removed by human activities like over – cultivation, unrestricted grazing, deforestation and poor irrigation practices
II) Desertification has become a major problem due to increased urbanization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1) Only I

2) Only II

3) Both I and II

4) None of these

Question 113 of 180

114. Choose the wrong statement.

1) In grasshoppers, besides autosomes, males have only one X-chromosome, whereas femaleshave a pair of X-chromosomes.

2) In Xy type of sex determination, both males and females have same number ofchromosomes.

3) In Drosophila, males have one X and one y chromosome, whereas females have a pair of Xchromosomebesides autosomes.

4) In insects with XO type of sex determination, all sperms bear X-chromosome besidesautosomes.

Question 114 of 180

115. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli, atmospheric air and tissue will be ------- mm of Hg

1) 40, 159, 45

2) 40, 0.3, 45

3) 104, 159, 40

4) 104, 0.3, 45

Question 115 of 180

116. According to Forestry Commission Report 1997 the total forest cover of India:

1) 11%

2) 19.5%

3) 17%

4) 18.7%

Question 116 of 180

117. Consider the following features:

A. Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical diploblastic organisms with tissue level of organisation.

B. The body bears eight external rows of ciliary comb plates.

C. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular

D. Exhibit bioluminescence

E. Monoecious, fertilisation external with indirect development The above-mentioned features belong to the animal

1) Physalia

2) Euspongia

3) Fasciola

4) Pleurobrachia

Question 117 of 180

118. Which of the following statements about blood transfusion is correct

1) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-B.

2) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B and receive from group-AB

3) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-O and receive from group-B

4) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-AB

Question 118 of 180

119. A 26 years old female has 2 offsprings(NOTE:not twins). If menses start at the age of 12 years then the number of ova formed are

1) 270

2) 2

3) 288

4) 8

Question 119 of 180

120. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart are partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

1) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.

2) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.

3) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.

4) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.

Question 120 of 180

121. which of the the following statement is false?

1)Spleen contains lymphocytes and act as SLO

2) In secondary lymphoid organs immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes

3) Both bone-narrow and thymus provide micro-environments for the development and maturation of lymphocytes

4) MALT also has a large reservoir of lymphocytes

Question 121 of 180

122. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

1)Lemur

2)Tasmanian wolf

3) Numbat

4)Bobcat

Question 122 of 180

123. If the light source in front of an eye becomes bright suddenly

1) Pupil dilates

2) retinal blood supply is cut

3) vitreous humour becomes fluid

4) pupil will contract

Question 123 of 180

124. Consider the following diagrammatic representation of the sectional view of cochlea with certain labeled parts A,B,C and D. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t labeled part and its identification/description.

1) A – Scala media-Contains endolymph

2) B- Tectorial membrane – Vibrates and sends Sensory impulses to auditory area of brain

3) C- Scala vestibuli – Contains perilymph

4) D-Basilar membrane-Organ of Corti rest upon it

Question 124 of 180

125. Observe the relaxed myocyte’s myofibril

Which of the following muscles have those traits?

a) Lateral rectus muscle

b) Iris muscles

c) Ciliary muscles

d) Sartorius muscle

1) a and c

2) b only

3) a, b and d

4)a and d

Question 125 of 180

126. The embryonic membrane involved in the formation of placenta in human is

1) yolk sac

2) umbilical cord

3) amnion

4) chorion

Question 126 of 180

127. Olfactory bulbs are extensions of

1) Lymphatic system

2) Limbic system

3) Diencephalon

4) Mesencephalon

Question 127 of 180

128. How many of the following Animals are non-chordates with water vascular system?

A₁) Sea – Cucumber A₂) Sea – Horse

A₃) Brittle star A₄) Sea – Hare

A₅) Sea – fan A₆) Sea – urchin

1) Two

2) Four

3)Five

4) Three

Question 128 of 180

129. Who was awarded the three prizes widely regarded as the triple crown of biology

1) Linnaeus

2) Darwin

3) Ernst Mayr

4) Mendel

Question 129 of 180

130. Select the synovial joint which is exclusive to Axial skeleton

1) Tibiofemoral joint

2) Atlanto-Axial joint

3) Inter tarsal joint

4) Humero scapular joint

Question 130 of 180

131. Find out the correctly matching set

1) Gamitocytes – Infective stages of plasmodium to man

2) IgE anti body – Rich in colostrums

3) Metagenesis – Malignant tumor

4) SCID – Somatic line gene therapy

Question 131 of 180

132. The three-chambered heart of frog is not as efficient as the human heart with four chambers, because

1) the muscles of the heart are not strong

2) both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the ventricle

3) the ventricle cannot pump blood properly

4) it cannot hold enough quantity of blood

Question 132 of 180

133. Choose the wrong statement.

1) Teeth in chondrichthyes are modified ctenoid scales.

2) air bladder in fishes regulates buoyancy.

3) In amphibians, the tympanum represents the ear.

4) Long bones in birds are pneumatic.

Question 133 of 180

134. The concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels in a food chain, through

1) Anthropogenic Eutrophication

2) Biomagnification

3)Cultural Eutrophication

4) Ecological Succession

Question 134 of 180

135. All of the following are functions of secretions from (b) except

1) Glycogenolysis

2) Glucogenesis

3) proteolysis

4) hypoglycemia

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. Which of the following will have highest negative enthalpy of formation?

1) RbF

2) KF

3) CsF

4) NaF

Question 136 of 180

137. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 137 of 180

138. The molecule which is having maximum number of lone pair

1) SiF₄

2) BrF₃

3) XeF₂

4) SF₄

Question 138 of 180

139. I_2(aq)+ I^-(aq) --> I^-_3(aq)+We started with 1 mole of I^₂and 0.5 mole of I^- in one litre flask. After equilibrium is reached excess of AgNO₃ gave 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate. Then
Equilibrium constant is

1) 1.33

2) 2.66

3) 2.0

4) 3.0

Question 139 of 180

140. When 0.1mole MnO₄^2- is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required in coulombs to completely oxidize MnO₄^2- to MnO₄^- is

1) 96500

2) 2×96500

3)9650

4) 96.50

Question 140 of 180

141.

Question 141 of 180

142. Which of the following is incorrect for the indicated property

1) Beo < Mgo (Basic strength)

2) SO2> SeO2> TeO2 (Acidic strength)

3) Nacl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl (Melting point)

4) BaSO4> SrSO4> CaSO4>MgSO4> BeSO4 (Solubility)

Question 142 of 180

143. Number of stereoisomers of the given compound

1) 2

2)3

3)4

4)6

Question 143 of 180

144. Which of the following is used as “morning after pill”?

1) Ethynyl estradiol

2) Mifepristone

3) Norethindrone

4) Promethazine

Question 144 of 180

145. Incorrect statement among the following is

1) Pure CO is prepared bydehydration of formic acid with conc. H₂S4

2) Commercially CO is prepared byassing steam over red hot coke

3) CO is a powerful reducing agentand reduces almost all metal oxidesother than IA, IIA group elements,Al etc...

4) CO is a Lewis acid

Question 145 of 180

146. For the given complex ,[CoCl₂(en)(NH₃)]⁺the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

1) 2,2 and 4

2) 2,0 and 2

3) 2,2 and 3

4) 0,2 and 2

Question 146 of 180

147. Xe has max. EN in:-

1) XeF₂

2) XeF₄

3) XeO₄

4) XeOF₂

Question 147 of 180

148. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except

1) sodium

2) NaOH / I₂

3) Neutral FeCl3

4) Br₂ / H₂O

Question 148 of 180

149. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solution will record the highest p^H?

1) BaCl2

2) MgCl2

3) CaCl2

4) SrCl2

Question 149 of 180

150. DNA & RNA are chiral molecules due to the presence of

1) Chiral bases

2) Phosphate ester unit

3) D- sugar component

4) L – sugar component

Question 150 of 180

151.

Number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain

1) 7

2) 4

3)6

4)5

Question 151 of 180

152.

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

1) 4 : 5

2) 5 : 4

3) 1 : 1

4) 2 : 3

Question 152 of 180

153. Which of the following ‘gem’ diols is stable?

Question 153 of 180

154. The equivalent weight of HCl in the given reaction is
KCr₂O₇ +14 HCl -->2KCl + 2CrCl₃ +3Cl₂ +H₂O

1) 16.25

2) 36.5

3) 73

4) 85.1

Question 154 of 180

155. At Boyles temperature, compressibility factor Z for a real gas is

1) Z = 1

2) Z = 0

3) Z > 1

4) Z >> 1

Question 155 of 180

156. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl₃solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

1) peptisation

2) dialysis

3) osmosis

4) coagulation

Question 156 of 180

157. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

1) Aspartame

2) Saccharin

3) Sucralose

4) Alitame

Question 157 of 180

158. Which of the following compound react faster through SN²mechanism

1) CH3- CH2Br

2) CH3- O - CH₂Br

3) C₆H5- CO - CH2Br

4) CH₃ - C (CH₃ )2- CH2Br

Question 158 of 180

159. To form osazone, mumber of moles of phenyl hydrazine required by one mole of glucose is

1) 4

2) 3

3) 2

4) 1

Question 159 of 180

160. Which of the following C – H bond has the least bond dissociation energy

Question 160 of 180

161. Which of the following has minimum flocculation value for positively charged sol ?

1) Cl^-

2) SO₄^2-

3) PO₄^3-

4) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-

Question 161 of 180

162. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 ×10^-2
mol L^-1 min^-1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reactant. The
half life of the reaction is

1) 23.1 min

2) 8.73 min

3) 7.53 min

4) 0.383 min

Question 162 of 180

163. The conductivity of saturated solution of BaSO₄is 3.06×10^-6 mho cm^-1and its equivalent conductance is 1.53 mho cm^-2 eq^-1. Then K_sp for BaSO₄ will be

1) 4×10^-12M

2) 1×10⁶M

3) 4×10⁶M²

4) 1×10^-6M²

Question 163 of 180

164. When H₂S is passed through acidified KMnO₄ we get

1) K₂ SO₃

2) MnO₂

3) KHSO₃

4) Sulphur

Question 164 of 180

165. If lone pair of electron occupy axial position then, incorrect about is :

1) It is a planar molecule

2) It has T-shape

3) All bond lengths are equal

4) repulsion will be minimum

Question 165 of 180

166. Find the correct order of acidity of the following compounds

1) III> II> I> IV

2) III> I> II> IV

3)III> II> IV> I

4) IV> I> II> III

Question 166 of 180

167. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

1) (CH3)3N

2) (SiH3)3N

3) XeF2

4) SF₄

Question 167 of 180

168. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption.

Question 168 of 180

169. Compound having least heat of hydrogenation:

Question 169 of 180

170. If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ions discharged at cathode are

1) H⁺

2) Na⁺

3) OH^-

4) Cl^-

Question 170 of 180

171. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural?

1) NH₃ , PH₃

2) XeF₄ , XeO₄

3) SiCl₄ , PCl⁺₄

4) diamond, silicon carbide

Question 171 of 180

172. The weight of H₂O₂present in 80 ml of 10V H₂O₂ solution is

1) 3.2 gr

2) 4.2 gr

3) 2.4 gr

4) 3.6 gr

Question 172 of 180

173. A possitive carbylamine test is given by

1) N,N – dimethyl aniline

2) Isopropyl amine

3) diethyl amine

4) trimethyl amine

Question 173 of 180

174. Which one of the following oxyacids of chlorine is the least
oxidising in nature

1) HOCl

2) HClO₂

3) HClO₄

4) HClO₃

Question 174 of 180

175. A solution ‘X’ contains 30 mole percent of A and is in equilibrium with its vapour that contains 40 mole percent of ‘B’. The ratio of vapor pressure of pure A and B will be:

1) 2 : 1

2) 7 : 2

3) 3 : 4

4) 4 : 3

Question 175 of 180

176. The pH of a solution of H₂O₂is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

1) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0

2) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant solution

3) The pH of resultant solution becomes less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated

4) Cl₂O is formed in the resultant solution

Question 176 of 180

177. Which of the substances added to soap make it antiseptic?

1) Iodine

2) KMnO4

3) Bithional

4) Cl2

Question 177 of 180

178. The impure 7g of NaCl is dissolved in water and then treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The weight of precipitate of silver chloride is found to be 14g. The % purity of NaCl solution would be (M. Wt of AgCl = 143.5, NaCl = 58.5)

1) 81.5%

2) 63%

3) 93%

4) 77%

Question 178 of 180

179. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in

1) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides

2) forming polymeric hydrides

3) forming covalent halides

4)exhibiting same covalency incompounds

Question 179 of 180

180. In Na₂O having antifluorite structure

1) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupy all the octahedral voids.

2) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupyall the eight tetrahedral voids

3) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangement and O2-
occupy all tetrahedral voids.

4) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangementand O2- occupy all octahedral voids

Question 180 of 180

Physics

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Zoology

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