NEET Free Mock Test 1 – india vidya

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. The maximum value of ‘F’ for which both the blocks move together is

1) 95N

2) 100 N

3) 105 N

4) 110 N

Question 1 of 180

2. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

A. 40 °C

B. 80 °C

C. 313 °C

D. 586 °C

Question 2 of 180

3. Gas at a pressure ‘P₀’ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their r.m.s speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

1) 4P₀

2) 2P₀

3) P₀

4) P₀/2

Question 3 of 180

4. If the velocity v of a particle moving along a straight line decreases linearly with its displacement ‘S’ from 20ms-1 to a value approaching zero at S=30m. Then acceleration of the particle at S=15m is

1) 2/3 ms-2

2) -2/3 ms-2

3) 20/3 ms-2

4) -20/3 ms-2

Question 4 of 180

5. Mark out the incorrect statement regarding transverse standing waves on a string

1) Within a loop, the total energy of the wave remains constant.

2) When the particles are at the maximum displacements, the entire energy within the loopappears as potential energy

3) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy is equally divided aspotential energy and kinetic energy.

4) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy appears as kineticenergy

Question 5 of 180

6. A thin ring has mass M and radius R. Its moment of inertia about the axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is...

A. MR²

B. M²R

C. M/R²

D. M²/R

Question 6 of 180

7. A rocket of initial mass 'm₀' moving with velocity ‘v’ discharges a jet of gases of mean density ‘ρ’ and effective area ‘A’ the minimum value of ‘v’ of fuel gas, which enables the rocket to rise vertically above is nearly

1) √(ρg)/(m₀A)

2) √(ρgA)/m₀

3) √(m₀g)/(ρA)

4) √(2m₀gA)/ρ

Question 7 of 180

8. A light ray passes through a prism with an angle of incidence θ, an angle of deviation δ and an angle of emergence ε. Minimum deviation occurs when...

A. δ = θ

B. δ = ε

C. θ = ε

D. δ = θ - ε

Question 8 of 180

9. The value of the stopping potential depends on...

A. the intensity of light

B. the frequency of light

C. the metal surface area

D. the charge on the electron

Question 9 of 180

10. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6. The amount of water should be put inside the balloon so that it accelerates down at rate of g/6. (Assume buoyancy force remains the same)

1) m/5

2) 2m/5

3) 3m/5

4) 4m/5

Question 10 of 180

11. Two equal masses ‘A and B’ moving along the same straight line with velocities 3i m/sec and '-5i m/sec respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively

1) 4i m/sec for both

2) -3i m/sec and 5i m/sec

3) -4i m/sec and 4i m/sec

4) -5i m/sec and 3i m/sec

Question 11 of 180

12. A solid sphere of mass ’M’ ; radius ‘R’ and having moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass is ‘I’. It recast into a disc of thickness ‘t’. Whose moment of inertia about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane remains ‘I’ then radius of the disc will be

1) 2R/√15

2) R/√2/15

3) 4R/√15

4) R/4

Question 12 of 180

13. The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is ‘4.5 joule’. The charge on the sphere is '4μc' its radius will be [(1/4πε₀)=9×10⁹ N - m²c^-2]

1) 4mm

2) 8 mm

3) 2mm

4) 16 mm

Question 13 of 180

14. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of emf ‘e’ is balanced at a length l/5 from the positive end of the wire. Assuming there is no contribution in resistance from any part of the circuit except the potentiometer wire, the balancing length for the same cell if length of the wire is increased by l/2 is

1) 2l/15

2) 3 l /15

3) 3 l /10

4) 4 l /10

Question 14 of 180

15. A voltage of peak value 283 volt and varying frequency is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which R =3 ohm, ‘L=25 mH and C = 40μF . The frequency of the source at which maximum power is dissipated in the circuit is

1) (5000/π) Hz

2) (50/π)Hz

3) (500/π)Hz

4) (5/π)Hz

Question 15 of 180

16. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

1) A meter scale

2) A vernier callipers where the ‘10’ divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in ‘1 cm’

3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

Question 16 of 180

17. The power of a lens having refractive index 1.25 is +3 diopters. When placed in a liquid its power is -2 diopters. The refractive index of the liquid is

1) 1.2

2) 1.4

3) 1.5

4) 1.6

Question 17 of 180

18. When the velocity of a moving object is doubled...

A. its acceleration is doubled

B. its momentum is doubled

C. its kinetic energy is doubled

D. its potential energy is doubled

Question 18 of 180

19. The aperture of the objective lens of a telescope is made large so as to

1) Increase the magnifying power of the telescope

2) Increase the resolving power of the telescope

3) Focus on distant objects

4) Ease of Manufacture

Question 19 of 180

20. A Carnot engine operates between 800K and 200K. If it absorbs 8 kJ of heat in each cycle, the work done by it per cycle is...

A. 1 kJ

B. 2 kJ

C. 2.7 kJ

D. 6 kJ

Question 20 of 180

21. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 21 of 180

22. The distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is...

A. λ

B. λ/2

C. λ/3

D. λ/4

Question 22 of 180

23. A cart of mass ‘M’ is tied by one end of a massless rope of length ‘10m’. The other end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass ‘M’. The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. The man is at ‘x=o’ and the cart at ‘x=10m’ of the man pulls the cart by the rope , the man and the cart will meet at the point

1) X=0

2) x= 5 m

3) x = 10m

4) x=1.5m

Question 23 of 180

24. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 600, the angle of refraction ‘A’, angle of deviation ‘δ ’ and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is

1) 1.73

2) 1.15

3) 1.5

4) 1.33

Question 24 of 180

25. Fermi is a unit of...

A. length

B. mass

C. time

D. electric flux

Question 25 of 180

26. A wave represented by the given equation y = a cos(kx - ωt) is superposed with another wave to form a stationary wave such that the point x=0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is

1) y = a sin(kx + ωt)

2) y = -a cos(kx + ωt)

3) y = -a cos(kx - ωt)

4) y = -a sin(kx - ωt)

Question 26 of 180

27. The intermolecular potential is dependent on...

A. the shape of the molecules only

B. the molecular separation only

C. both the shape and the molecular separation

D. none of the above

Question 27 of 180

28. Magnetic moment and angular moment of revolving electron in a hydrogen atom ‘M’ and ‘L’ respectively then

1) (M/L) = (e/2m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

2) (M/L) = (e/2m);M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

3) (M/L) = (2e/m); M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

4) (M/L) = (4e/m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

Question 28 of 180

29. Two parallel wires carry current in the same direction,...

A. they attract each other

B. they repel each other

C. they neither attract nor repel

D. they attract or repel depending on current type

Question 29 of 180

30. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 10³ kg/m³ with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are 8 × 10³ kg/m³ and 11 × 10³ kg/m³ The ratio of their radii is

1) 11/8

2) √(11/8)

3) 3/2

4) √(3/2)

Question 30 of 180

31. A nucleus of mass 'M + ∆m' is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass '(M/2)' each speed of light is ‘C’. The speed of daughter nuclei is

1) C√[∆m/M + ∆m]

2) C√[∆m/M]

3) C√[2∆m/ M]

4) C√[M/2∆m]

Question 31 of 180

32. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

A. frequency

B. amplitude

C. wavelength

D. both frequency and amplitude

Question 32 of 180

33. In the figure shown a source of sound of frequency 510 Hz move with constant velocity V_s=20 m/ s in the direction shown. The wind is blowing at a constant velocity V_w=20 m/S towards an observer who is at rest at point B. Corresponding to the sound emitted by the source in initial position A, the frequency detected by the observer is equal to (speed of sound relative to air = 330 m/s)

1) 510 Hz

2) 500 Hz

3) 525 Hz

4) 550 Hz

Question 33 of 180

34. A ‘2Mev’ proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ‘2.5 Tesla’. The force on the proton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10^-27 kg)

1) 3×10^-10 N

2) 8× 10^-11 N

3) 3×10^-11N

4) 8×10^-12N

Question 34 of 180

35. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through origin. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process will be

1) 4R

2) 2.5R

3) 3R

4)4R/3

Question 35 of 180

36. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

1) Temperature on ideal gas scale

2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale

3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale

4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

Question 36 of 180

37. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2ev and the stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface is ‘5volt’. The incident radiation lies in

1) Infrared region

2) Visible region

3) X- ray region

4) Ultra – violet region

Question 37 of 180

38. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

1) 0.25

2) 0.5

3) 0.75

4) 0.99

Question 38 of 180

39. Diamagnetic materials are substances that...

A. create a strong magnetic field

B. are attracted by a magnetic field

C. are repelled by a magnetic field

D. have double magnetism

Question 39 of 180

40. When a ferromagnet is inserted in a current-carrying loop, the magnetic field...

A. decreases slightly

B. decreases greatly

C. does not change

D. increases greatly

Question 40 of 180

41. Calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to raise temperature of 1g of water by 1⁰C and it is defined under which of the following conditions

1) From 14.50C to 15.50C at 760 mm of Hg

2) From 98.50C to 99.50C at 760 mm of Hg

3) From 13.50C to 14.50C at 76 mm of Hg

4) From 3.50C to 4.50C at 76 mm of Hg

Question 41 of 180

42. A boy swings from a rope 4.9 m long. His approximate period of oscillation is...

A. 0.5 s

B. 3.1 s

C. 4.4 s

D. 12 s

Question 42 of 180

43. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

A. interference

B. diffraction

C. resolving power

D. polarization

Question 43 of 180

44. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

1) The kinetic energy of α-particle is zero

2) The kinetic energy of daughter nucleus is always less than kinetic energy of α-particle

3) The magnitude of linear momentum of α-particle and daughter nucleus are not equal

4) The daughter nucleus is always stable

Question 44 of 180

45. The de-Broglie wave length of an electron in first Bohr orbit is

1) Equal to one fourth the circumference of the first orbit

2) Equal to half the circumference of the first orbit

3) Equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit

4) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. Identify the set of plants without archegonia

1) Chara, Cladophora, Capsicum and Colchicum

2) Marchantia, Marselia, Cycas and Pinus

3) Riccia, Pteris, Polytrichum, Cycas

4) Sphagnum, Adiantum, Salvinia, Ginkgo

Question 46 of 180

47. Resistance to shoot and fruit borer is observed in a bhindi variety namely

1) Pusa Swarnim

2) Pusa Sawani

3) Pusa Gaurav

4) Pusa Sem-2 & 3

Question 47 of 180

48. Which of the following is a correct sequence during life cycle of angiosperm for the following terms/ events?

A.Pollen grain

B. Sporogenous tissue

C.Microspore tetrad

D.PMC

E.Male gamete

1) B→D→C→A→E

2) B→C→D→A→E

3) C→B→D→A→E

4) C→D→B→A→E

Question 48 of 180

49. Which of the following instruments are correctly matched, except?

i) Potometer – Transpiration rate

ii) Atmometer – Demonstrate transpiration pull

iii) Auxanometer – Growth measurement

iv) Ganog’s light screen – Measure light intensity

v) Manometer – Demonstreate toot pressure

1) (iv)

2) (ii)

3) (iii)

Question 49 of 180

50. Study of arrangement of perianth parts in bud condition, is not possible in

1) Calotropis

2) Glycirrhiza

3) Euphorbia

4) Allium

Question 50 of 180

51. Which of the following is a wrong match?

1) Bolting in rosette plant - GA₃

2) Avena curvature test – IAA

3) Induction of immediate stomatal closure – ABA

4) Induction of growth in axillary buds – Ethephon

Question 51 of 180

52. Which of the following statements is true

1) Microbe resistant plant material is sporopollenin

2) Each node is a propagule in Opuntia

3) Bryophyllum reproduces through bulbils

4) Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from zygote

Question 52 of 180

53. Which one among the following represents the correct method of replication of DNA

Question 53 of 180

54. When PS-I is excited with the light of wavelength greater then 680nm, photophosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flow of electrons, results in synthesis of

1) NADPH + H+ and ATP

2) only NADPH + H+

3) only ATP

4) NADH and ATP

Question 54 of 180

55. Which of the following statement is wrong?

1) Uracil is a pyrimidine

2) Sucrose is a disaccharide

3) Cellulose is a homopolysaccharide

4) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid

Question 55 of 180

56. Which of the following four phases, in the post emergence life of an angiospermic plant, begins just after germination of seed and ends when the plant develops the capacity to reproduce ?

1) Death

2) Maturity

3) Ageing

4) Juvenility

Question 56 of 180

57. Study the following diagrams & choose the correct option.

1) It is a dioecious pteridophyte producing antheridiophore and archegoniophore

2) It is a dioecious alga producing antheridiophore and archegoniophore

3) a- Male plant of Marchantia, b-Female plant of Marchantia

4) a- Female plant of Marchantia, b-Male plant of Marchantia

Question 57 of 180

58. How many plants among the following have opposite phyllotaxy. China rose, Sun flower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium?

1) Two

2) Three

3) Four

4) Five

Question 58 of 180

59. Bacteria differ from cyanobacteria by which of the following features?

i) Absence of flagella and fimbriae

ii) dsDNA without attached histones

iii) Anoxygenic photosynthesis

iv) Stored food as glycogen

v) Absence of N₂ Fixing cells like heterocysts

1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

2) (ii), (iv) and (v)

3)(iii), (iv) and (v)

4) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

Question 59 of 180

60. A leafy vegetable ‘bathua’ produced by IARI is rich in

1) Vitamin A, proteins, calcium

2) Calcium, iron and vitamin C

3) Vitamin D, lysine and tryptophan

4) Iron, vitamin B and carotene

Question 60 of 180

61. How many chromosomes will be found in a cell at anaphase –II having 2n = 50 ?

1) 50

2) 40

3) 100

4) 25

Question 61 of 180

62. Wall less protistans among the following are

1) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella

2) Paramoecium & Amoeba

3) Nostoc & Anabaena

4) Diatoms & Dinoflagellates

Question 62 of 180

63. Exogenous and endogenous spores of sac fungi respectively are

1) Conidia and zoospores

2) Ascospores and zoospores

3) Conidia and ascospores

4) Zoospores and ascospores

Question 63 of 180

64. Match the following
Column-I (Tissues) Column-II (Product of)
1) Julius Von Sachs A) Polynucleotide Phosphorylase
2) Hershy and Chase B) Chromosome maps
3) A. Sturtevant C) Hydrophonics
4) Severo Ochoa enzyme D) Genetic nature of DNA

1) C-1,A-2,B-3,D-4

2) A-1,C-2,B-3,D-4

3) D-1,C-2,A-3,B-4

4) C-1,D-2,B-3,A-4

Question 64 of 180

65. A common step for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration is

1) ETS

2) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid

3) Glycolysis

4) Krebs cycle

Question 65 of 180

66. Processes which can never occur in the structure called “Cell brain” are

A. Polymerisation of ribonucleotides

B. Synthesis of ‘energy currency of cell’

C. Polymerisation of deoxyribonucleotides

D. Polymerisation of amino acids

1) A and B

2) C and D

3) A and C

4) B and D

Question 66 of 180

67. The fruit of Annona squamosa (custard apple) develops from

1) polycarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

2) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary and thalamus

3) single ovary

4) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary

Question 67 of 180

68. Among the following the no. of asexual reproductive structures is/are Gemmae of Marchantia, Epiphyllous buds of Bryophyllum, Bulbils of Agave Rhizome of zinger, Tuberous stem of potato, Offsets of Pistia, Zoospores of Chlamydomonas, Hormogonia of Nostoc

1) 2 only

2) 4 only

3) 6 only

4) All eight

Question 68 of 180

69. Select the correct statement

1) During early-M-phase cells may have more than 2C content of DNA

2) During early S-phase cells have 4C content of DNA

3) Replication continues in G2-phase

4) In plant cells G0-phase is absent

Question 69 of 180

70. The number of Phosphodiester bonds and ester bonds Present in 13.6 nm length DNA

1) 158 and 178

2) 80 and 160

3) 98 and 118

4) 78 and 158

Question 70 of 180

71. Root nodules (tubercles) are found on

1) primary root only

2) branchlets only

3) secondary roots only

4) primary and secondary roots

Question 71 of 180

72. The leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in mature plant in

1) China rose

2) Mango

3) Delphenium

4) Nerium

Question 72 of 180

73. Which of the following is true statement

1) Pribnow box lies in mRNA in upstream stream sequence.

2) In clover leaf model of tRNA, amino acid is attached to 5’ by ester bond, if it is a charged one

3) Translation is initiated by factor, formed of -chain, of RNA polymerase enzyme

4) Sn RNA, 5S RNA and tRNA are transcribed with the help of RNA polymerase lll in eukaryotes

Question 73 of 180

74. Bicollateral vascularbundles are present in which part of the Solanaceae and Cucurbitaceae members

1) Root

2) Leaves

3) Stem

4) All the above

Question 74 of 180

75. Which of the following taxonomical aids are used in identification of both plants and animals?

1) Herbarium only

2) Keys & Herbarium only

3) Museums only

4) Keys & Museums

Question 75 of 180

76. The minerals involved in water-splitting reaction during light phase of photosynthesis is/are

1) Calcium, Magnesium and Chlorine

2) Calcium, Potassium and Manganese

3) Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine

4) Calcium, Molydenum and Manganese

Question 76 of 180

77. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground tissue system of roots, is characterised by

1) Casparian bands

2) Starch grains

3) Complementary cells

4) Intercellular spaces

Question 77 of 180

78. Ability of sigma to recognise the pollen whether it is of right type or the wrong type

1) Starts by a chemical dialogue between pollen and stigma

2) Can occur even inside the styler canal when pollen tube growth is inhibited

3) Is called pollen-pistil interaction

4) All are correct

Question 78 of 180

79. Feature unrelated to slime moulds

1) Connecting link between protista and Fungi

2) Multinucleate body

3) Vegetative phase resembles with plants and reproductive phase with animals

4) Multiply by plasmotomy

Question 79 of 180

80. Which of the following cannot freely interbreed in nature

A. Winter and spring varieties of wheat

B. LDP and SDP varieties of Tobacco

C. Tall and Dwarf varieties of Pea

D. Red and white flowered varieties of Dog flower

1) C and D

2) A and C

3) B and D

3) B and D 4) A and B

Question 80 of 180

81. A primary root grows from 10 cm to 30 cm in a day. Calculate the Absolute Growth Rate (AGR) and Relative Growth Rate (RGR) over the period AGR

1) 20 cm 300%

2) 10 cm 200%

3) 20 cm 200%

4) 20 cm 30%

Question 81 of 180

82. Read carefully the table and fill up the blanks;

A,B,C and D in the above table refer to

1) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Starch and Laminarin; C-Cellulose; D-2-10 equal apical

2) A-chlorophyll-a and c; B-Mannitol and starch; C-Cellulose & algin, D-2-8 equal lateral

3) A-chlorophyll-a and b; B-Floridean starch; C-Cellulose & algin; D-Not present

4) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Mannitol and floridean; C-Cellulose; starch; D-Not present

Question 82 of 180

83. Different types of plastids (chloroplast, chromoplast and leucoplast) are quite related as:

1) These all store lipids and starch

2) These are restricted to the green parts of a plant

3) These al perform almost same function

4) These are interconvertible depending upon the requirement of an organ

Question 83 of 180

84. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

1) 5n, 4n, 7n

2) 7n, 5n, 4n

3) 4n, 5n, 7n

4) 5n, 7n, 4n

Question 84 of 180

85. Which of the following statements are correct

A. Guttation is the manifestation of root pressure

B. Natural antitranspirant is PMA

C. Turgor pressure, wall pressure
and pressure potential of a cell, all are numerically equal with same sign

D. High nitrogen to carbon ratio is found in Ureids

1) A B C only

2) B, C, D only

3) A B C D only

4) A, C, D only

Question 85 of 180

86. Which of the following is a correct match

1) Zn++ - an activator of alcohol dehydrogenase

2) Mn++ and Mo-an activator of PEP case

3) Fe+++ - activator of succinate dehydrogenase

4) Cu – part of cyta and cyta3

Question 86 of 180

87. In garden pea, round shape of seeds is dominant over wrinkled shape. A pea plant heterozygous for round shape of seed is selfed and 1600 seeds produced during the cross are subsequently germinatied. How many seedlings will have the parental phenotype?

1) 400

2) 1600

3) 1200

4) 800

Question 87 of 180

88. Agar - agar, an inert polysaccharide is extracted from

1) Polysiphonia and Porphyra, members of red algae

2) Gracilaria and Gelidium members of brown algae

3) Ectocarpus and Laminaria, members of brown algae

4) Gracilaria and Gelidium, members of red algae

Question 88 of 180

89. Match the columns, I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given

1) a – 2 – K , b – 1 – K, c – 3 – L

2) a – 2 – L , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – L

3) a – 2 – K , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – L

4) a – 2 – L , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – K

Question 89 of 180

90. Number of genotypes present in yellow round, yellow wrinkled, green round and green wrinkled phenotypes of 2F generation progeny of Mendel’s dihybrid cross respectively is

1) 1, 2, 2, 4

2) 4, 1, 2, 2

3) 2, 1, 2, 4

4) 4, 2, 2, 1

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. When Glomerular filtrate is passing through PCT which of the following Biomolecule’s selective reabsorption is 100% into PTC

B1)Creatinine B2) Glucose

B3) Amino Acids B4) Potassium

1)B2-B3

2)B1

3) B2-B3-B1

4) All except B2

Question 91 of 180

92. How many of the given statements are wrong?

A. The rate of diffusion of gas at the respiratory membrane depends upon its solubility as well as on the thickness of membrane

B. The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference if partial pressure is much higher when compared to that of O2

C. Oxygen can bind with haemoglobin in an irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin

D. The factors responsible for formation of oxyhaemoglobin include high pO2, low pCO2, high H+ concentration and low temperature.

1) One

2) Two

2) Three

4) Four

Question 92 of 180

93. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A. Dodo I) Rauwolfia
B. Reserpine II) Mauritius
C. Nile perch in lake Victoria III) Habitat destruction
D. Main cause for biodiversity loss IV) Alien species

1) A-II B-I C-III D-IV

2) A-II B-I C-IV D-III

3) A-II B-IV C-III D-I

4) A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Question 93 of 180

94. Nephrostome occurs in

1) septal nephridia

2) integumentary nephridia

3) pharyngeal and septal nephridia

4) pharyngeal and integumentary nephridia

Question 94 of 180

95. How many of the following Animals are non-chordates with water vascular system?

A₁) Sea – Cucumber A₂) Sea – Horse

A₃) Brittle star A₄) Sea – Hare

A₅) Sea – fan A₆) Sea – urchin

1) Two

2) Four

3)Five

4) Three

Question 95 of 180

96. Who was awarded the three prizes widely regarded as the triple crown of biology

1) Linnaeus

2) Darwin

3) Ernst Mayr

4) Mendel

Question 96 of 180

97. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

1)Lemur

2)Tasmanian wolf

3) Numbat

4)Bobcat

Question 97 of 180

98. Two adaptive radiations are shown in the figure below. Animal ‘B’ acquires the same adaptations as the Animal ‘Q’. This type of evolution is called as

1) Convergent evolution

2) Divergent evolution

3) Both Convergent and divergent

4) Retrogressive evolution

Question 98 of 180

99. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t alimentary canal of cockroach?

1) Oesophagus leads into a sac like structure called crop used for storing of food

2) Gizzard has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner cuticle forming six highly chitinous plate called teeth

3) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caeca is present at the junction of foregut and midgut

4) The hindgut is narrower than midgut and is differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum

Question 99 of 180

100. Human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle they are

1) Snail and Frog

2) Snake and Fish

3) Snail and Fish

4) Snake and Frog

Question 100 of 180

101. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli, atmospheric air and tissue will be ------- mm of Hg

1) 40, 159, 45

2) 40, 0.3, 45

3) 104, 159, 40

4) 104, 0.3, 45

Question 101 of 180

102. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are

1) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and parathormone

2) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucacorticoids

3) insulin, glucagon, glucacorticoids and calcitonin

4) insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and melatonin

Question 102 of 180

103. The enzyme which catalysis the following Biochemical reaction is released from which cells

Trypsinogen → Trypsin

1) Gastric Epithelium

2) Intestinal Mucosa (SI)

3) Hepatic lobules

4) Serous cells of Parotid glands

Question 103 of 180

104. All of the following are functions of catecholamines, except

1) Pupilary dilation

2) Piloerection

3) Tachycardia

4) Lipogenesis

Question 104 of 180

105. Identical twins are produced when

1) One fertilized egg divides and two blastomeres separate

2) One sperm fertilizes two eggs

3) One egg is fertilized with two sperms

4) Two eggs are fertilized

Question 105 of 180

106. Which of the following statements about blood transfusion is correct

1) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-B.

2) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B and receive from group-AB

3) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-O and receive from group-B

4) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-AB

Question 106 of 180

107. The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic process. On this basis fill up A and B boxes in the given diagram with correct options

1) A = Natality + Immigration, B = Mortality + Emigration

2) A = Natality + Mortality, B = Immigration + Emigration

3) A = Birth rate + Death rate, B = Migration + Emigration

4) A = Natality + Emigration, B = Mortality + Immigration

Question 107 of 180

108. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart are partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

1) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.

2) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.

3) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.

4) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.

Question 108 of 180

109. In kidneys, renal papillae are part of

1) renal columns

2) columns of Bertini

3) renal pelvis

4) medullary pyramids

Question 109 of 180

110. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A) Thomas Malthus I) Branching descent
B) Hugo de Vries II) Studies on populations
C) Charles Darwin III) Use disuse principle
D) Lamarck IV) Saltation

1) A-IV B-I C-III D-II

2) A-II B-IV C-I D-III

3) A-II B-IV C-III D-I

4) A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Question 110 of 180

111. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is

1) corona radiate, zona pellucid and vitelline membrane

2) zona pellucid, corona radiate and vitelline membrane

3) vitelline membrane, zona pellucid and corona radiate

4) zona pellucid, vitelline membrane and corona radiate

Question 111 of 180

112. Which of the following statements are correct related to human

A. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase.

B. Lipases are absent in secretion of gastric glands

C. Bile helps in emulsification of fats and also activates lipases.

D. Nucleases in the succus entericus acts on nucleic acids to form nucleotides and nucleosides

1) A, B, C

2) A, C

3) C, D

4) A, C, D

Question 112 of 180

113. ABO blood group has

1) Two codominants and onerecessive alleles

2) Two codominants and tworecessive alleles

3) Two incompletely dominant genes

4) Two pseudo alleles

Question 113 of 180

114. What is common to whale, seal and shark?

1) Homoiothermy

2) Seasonal migration

3) Thick subcutaneous fat

4) Convergent evolution

Question 114 of 180

115. Choose the wrong statement.

1) In grasshoppers, besides autosomes, males have only one X-chromosome, whereas femaleshave a pair of X-chromosomes.

2) In Xy type of sex determination, both males and females have same number ofchromosomes.

3) In Drosophila, males have one X and one y chromosome, whereas females have a pair of Xchromosomebesides autosomes.

4) In insects with XO type of sex determination, all sperms bear X-chromosome besidesautosomes.

Question 115 of 180

116. The embryonic membrane involved in the formation of placenta in human is

1) yolk sac

2) umbilical cord

3) amnion

4) chorion

Question 116 of 180

117. Consider the following diagrammatic representation of the sectional view of cochlea with certain labeled parts A,B,C and D. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t labeled part and its identification/description.

1) A – Scala media-Contains endolymph

2) B- Tectorial membrane – Vibrates and sends Sensory impulses to auditory area of brain

3) C- Scala vestibuli – Contains perilymph

4) D-Basilar membrane-Organ of Corti rest upon it

Question 117 of 180

118. Olfactory bulbs are extensions of

1) Lymphatic system

2) Limbic system

3) Diencephalon

4) Mesencephalon

Question 118 of 180

119. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?
Examples Type of immunity
1) Polymorphonuclear

leucocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers
2) anti-tetanus and anti-snake

bite injections Active immunity
3) Saliva in mouth and

tears in eyes Physical barriers
4) mucous coating of epithelium lining Physiological barriers
the urinogenital tract and the HCl in stomach

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

Question 119 of 180

120. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

1) Temperate deciduous forest

2) Tropical rain forest

3) Tropical deciduous forest

4) Temperate evergreen forest

Question 120 of 180

121. The copper ions of IUDs

1) Suppress the motility and fertilization capacity of sperms

2) Make the uterus suitable for implantation

3) Increase pinocytosis of sperms

4) Make cervix hostile to sperms

Question 121 of 180

122. A phenomena in which a bee visits a flower at the same time every day is called

1) biological clock

2) circadian rhythm

3) commensalism

4) mutualism

Question 122 of 180

123. The diagram shows a section through an alveolus and ablood capillary What are the oxygen concentrations at A,B and C?

A B C

1) Low High Low

2) Low High High

3) High Low Low

4) High Low High

Question 123 of 180

124. Following is a diagrammatic representation of endocrine glands with a labelled part ‘A’. The part ‘A’ serves as the connection between

1) Hypothalamus and adenohypophysis

2) Hypothalamus and neurohypophysis

3) Hypothalamus and pars nervosa

4) Hypothalamus and epiphysis

Question 124 of 180

125. In Anaphylaxis, IgE interacts with which one of the following biocyte to promote release of inflammatory mediators.

Question 125 of 180

126. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?

1) Ventral heart→Scorpion

2) Post-anal tail→Octopus

3) Ventral central nervous system→Leech

4) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo→Chamaeleon

Question 126 of 180

127. Statement(1): (S1): After primary immune response, subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response

Statement(2): (S2): Anamnestic response is because our body develops memory after the first encounter.

1) S1 and S2 are correct

2) S1 and S2 are incorrect

3) S1 is correct; S2 is incorrect

4) S1 is incorrect; S2 is correct

Question 127 of 180

128. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

1) A-1000, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

2) A-1400, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

3) A-1000, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

4) A-1400, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

Question 128 of 180

129. Ligament consists of

1) Yellow fibres + Elastic fibres

2) Yellow fibres + Collagen (white)fibres

3) Yellow fibres + Muscle fibres

4) White fibres + Muscle fibres

Question 129 of 180

130. Biodiversity is maximum in tropics because

1) Speciation is a function of time

2) Tropics have less seasonal variation and relatively more predictable environment

3) Tropics are more productive and can support a wider range of species

4) All are correct

Question 130 of 180

131. In cockroach the flow of haemolymph is

1) heart → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral sinus → pericardial sinus → ostia → heart

2) heart → pericardial sinus → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral sinus → ostia → heart

3) heart → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral sinus → ostia → pericardial sinus → heart

4) heart → ostia → perivisceral sinus → pericardial sinus → head → perineural sinus → heart

Question 131 of 180

132. Which one of the following hormone is derived from an Amino acid which the human beings are incapable of synthesizing

1) Glutamic acid

2) Dopamine

3) Adrenaline

4) Melatonin

Question 132 of 180

133. If a female having gene for haemophilia and colour blindness on its one chromosome marries a normal male, then what are the chances in their offspring

1) 50% son are diseased and 50%are normal

2) All normal offspring

3) 100% daughters are carrier

4) 100% son are diseased

Question 133 of 180

134. Milk of first transgenic cow Rosie consists

1) alpha lactalbumin

2) alpha-1 antitrypsin

3) alpha amylase

4) alpha polypeptide

Question 134 of 180

135. Identify the molecules (a) and (B) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.

Molecule Source Use
1) A - Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine
2) B - Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions
3) B - Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations
4) A - Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

1) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]

2) [ Acid ] × 10⁵ = [conjugatebase]

3) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]× 10⁵

4) [ Acid ] = 2[conjugatebase]

Question 136 of 180

137. 75% completion of a first order reaction takes 2.38 hours. How much time will it take for 99.9% completion?

1) 1.39 h

2) 7.14h

3) 11.9 h

4) 15.85 h

Question 137 of 180

138. Most basic and acidic oxides are formed by the following 3rd period elements.

1) Cs, Cl

2) Na, Cl

3) Na, F

4) Cs, S

Question 138 of 180

139. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solution will record the highest p^H?

1) BaCl2

2) MgCl2

3) CaCl2

4) SrCl2

Question 139 of 180

140. For the given complex ,[CoCl₂(en)(NH₃)]⁺the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

1) 2,2 and 4

2) 2,0 and 2

3) 2,2 and 3

4) 0,2 and 2

Question 140 of 180

141. The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1eV The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na⁺ will be

1) -2.55eV

2) -5.1eV

3) -10.21eV

4) +2.55eV

Question 141 of 180

142. Xe has max. EN in:-

1) XeF₂

2) XeF₄

3) XeO₄

4) XeOF₂

Question 142 of 180

143. When H₂S is passed through acidified KMnO₄ we get

1) K₂ SO₃

2) MnO₂

3) KHSO₃

4) Sulphur

Question 143 of 180

144.

Question 144 of 180

145. DNA & RNA are chiral molecules due to the presence of

1) Chiral bases

2) Phosphate ester unit

3) D- sugar component

4) L – sugar component

Question 145 of 180

146.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

1) formation of Y is a syn addition

2)during the formation of X, the intermediate is a carbocation

3) X is a positional isomer of Y

4) formation of Y follows markonikov's rule

Question 146 of 180

147. The pH of a solution of H₂O₂is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

1) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0

2) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant solution

3) The pH of resultant solution becomes less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated

4) Cl₂O is formed in the resultant solution

Question 147 of 180

148. What will be the equivalent weight of H₃PO₃ in the following reaction. 4H₃PO₃ → 3H₃PO₄+PH₃

1) M/6

2) 2M/3

3) M/12

4) M/2

Question 148 of 180

149. The conductivity of saturated solution of BaSO₄is 3.06×10^-6 mho cm^-1and its equivalent conductance is 1.53 mho cm^-2 eq^-1. Then K_sp for BaSO₄ will be

1) 4×10^-12M

2) 1×10⁶M

3) 4×10⁶M²

4) 1×10^-6M²

Question 149 of 180

150. The correct statement/s about H₂ S₂ O₇ is/are

1) It is called peroxydisulphuric acid

2) It is contains one O-O bond in its molecule

3) It is obtained by dissolution of SO3 in conc. H₂ SO₄

4) Both (2) & (3)

Question 150 of 180

151. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

1) (CH3)3N

2) (SiH3)3N

3) XeF2

4) SF₄

Question 151 of 180

152. Which one of the following oxyacids of chlorine is the least
oxidising in nature

1) HOCl

2) HClO₂

3) HClO₄

4) HClO₃

Question 152 of 180

153.

1) Glyptal

2) Dacron

3) Nylon-6,6

4) Nylon-6

Question 153 of 180

154. Which of the following is used as “morning after pill”?

1) Ethynyl estradiol

2) Mifepristone

3) Norethindrone

4) Promethazine

Question 154 of 180

155. An oxide of Nitrogen which form reddish brown fumes in air is

1) N₂O

2) NO₂

3) NO

4) N₂O₃

Question 155 of 180

156.

Number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain

1) 7

2) 4

3)6

4)5

Question 156 of 180

157. The weight of H₂O₂present in 80 ml of 10V H₂O₂ solution is

1) 3.2 gr

2) 4.2 gr

3) 2.4 gr

4) 3.6 gr

Question 157 of 180

158. V1 ml of 3M HCl solution is mixed with V₂ml of 3M H₂SO₄to from a solution in which molarity of H+ ions is 5M, then the relation between V₁and V₂is

1) V₁= V₂

2) V₂=2V₁

3) 3V₁= V₂

4) 2V₂= V₁

Question 158 of 180

159. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M-O-H and M¹-O-H have been prepared in two different
beakers. If the electronegativity of M=3.5, M¹=0.9, O=3.5 and H=2.1, then the solutions respectively are

1) acidic, acidic

2) acidic, basic

3) basic, basic

4) basic, acidic

Question 159 of 180

160. Which of the following is incorrect for the indicated property

1) Beo < Mgo (Basic strength)

2) SO2> SeO2> TeO2 (Acidic strength)

3) Nacl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl (Melting point)

4) BaSO4> SrSO4> CaSO4>MgSO4> BeSO4 (Solubility)

Question 160 of 180

161. Compound having least heat of hydrogenation:

Question 161 of 180

162. A and B are compounds of sodium. ‘A’ is thermally stable. On passing CO₂through aq. solution
‘A’, ‘B’ is formed. ‘B’ on heating gives ‘A’. Phenolpthalein is added to aqueous solutions of A, B.
The colours are

1) colourless, colourless

2) pink, pink

3) colourless, pink

4) pink, colourless

Question 162 of 180

163. If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ions discharged at cathode are

1) H⁺

2) Na⁺

3) OH^-

4) Cl^-

Question 163 of 180

164. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 ×10^-2
mol L^-1 min^-1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reactant. The
half life of the reaction is

1) 23.1 min

2) 8.73 min

3) 7.53 min

4) 0.383 min

Question 164 of 180

165. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form ‘A’ . ‘A’ is dissolved in water to give ‘Y’. The basicity of ‘Y’ is

1) 1

2) 2

3) 0

4) 3

Question 165 of 180

166. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural?

1) NH₃ , PH₃

2) XeF₄ , XeO₄

3) SiCl₄ , PCl⁺₄

4) diamond, silicon carbide

Question 166 of 180

167. The pH of a solution of H₂O₂is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

1) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0

2) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant solution

3) The pH of resultant solution becomes less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated

4) Cl₂O is formed in the resultant solution

Question 167 of 180

168. If lone pair of electron occupy axial position then, incorrect about is :

1) It is a planar molecule

2) It has T-shape

3) All bond lengths are equal

4) repulsion will be minimum

Question 168 of 180

169. The pair of molecules having same geometry and same bond angles are

1) NH₄+,PCl3

2) NH4+ , CH4

3) H2O , SO2

4) NH3 , PH3

Question 169 of 180

170. In Na₂O having antifluorite structure

1) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupy all the octahedral voids.

2) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupyall the eight tetrahedral voids

3) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangement and O2-
occupy all tetrahedral voids.

4) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangementand O2- occupy all octahedral voids

Question 170 of 180

171. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in

1) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides

2) forming polymeric hydrides

3) forming covalent halides

4)exhibiting same covalency incompounds

Question 171 of 180

172. At what temperature will average speed of the molecules of the second member of the series C_nH_2nbe the same of Cl₂ at 627⁰C?

1) 259.4K

2) 400K

3) 532.4K

4) 628K

Question 172 of 180

173. Number of stereoisomers of the given compound

1) 2

2)3

3)4

4)6

Question 173 of 180

174. The correct order of increasing acidic strength of the compounds
A) CH₃CO₂H
B) MeOCH₂CO₂H
C) CF₃CO₂H

1) D < A < B < C

2) A < D < B < C

3) B < D < A < C

4) D < A < C < B

Question 174 of 180

175. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

1) Aspartame

2) Saccharin

3) Sucralose

4) Alitame

Question 175 of 180

176. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl₃solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

1) peptisation

2) dialysis

3) osmosis

4) coagulation

Question 176 of 180

177. 51. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zn dust and water gives compound ‘E’. Compound ‘E’ on further treatment with aqu.KOH yields compound ‘F’. Compound ‘F’ is

Question 177 of 180

178. The vapour pressure of a dilute solution of glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373K. The mole fraction of solute is

1) 1/7.6

2) 1/76

3) 1/35

4) 1/10

Question 178 of 180

179. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except

1) sodium

2) NaOH / I₂

3) Neutral FeCl3

4) Br₂ / H₂O

Question 179 of 180

180. For decolourization of one mole of KMnO₄ the required litre of 30 volume H₂O₂ in acidified medium is

1) 0.94

2) 9.4

3) 0.094

4) 3.01

Question 180 of 180

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

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