NEET Free Mock Test 1 – india vidya

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. For a projectile, its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are equal, maximum height reached by it is (‘u’ is initial velocity of the projectile)

1) u²/2g

2) 3u²/4g

3) 16u²/17g

4) 8u²/17g

Question 1 of 180

2. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s² . Compared with her mass and weight on the earth, an astronaut on Mars has...

A. less mass and less weight

B. more mass and more weight

C. the same mass and less weight

D. the same mass and more weight

Question 2 of 180

3. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index

1) Lies between √2 and 1

2) Lies between 2and √2

3) Is less than 1

4) Is grater 2

Question 3 of 180

4. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

1) The kinetic energy of α-particle is zero

2) The kinetic energy of daughter nucleus is always less than kinetic energy of α-particle

3) The magnitude of linear momentum of α-particle and daughter nucleus are not equal

4) The daughter nucleus is always stable

Question 4 of 180

5. A Carnot engine operates between 800K and 200K. If it absorbs 8 kJ of heat in each cycle, the work done by it per cycle is...

A. 1 kJ

B. 2 kJ

C. 2.7 kJ

D. 6 kJ

Question 5 of 180

6. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

1) A meter scale

2) A vernier callipers where the ‘10’ divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in ‘1 cm’

3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

Question 6 of 180

7. When the velocity of a moving object is doubled...

A. its acceleration is doubled

B. its momentum is doubled

C. its kinetic energy is doubled

D. its potential energy is doubled

Question 7 of 180

8. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10^-4m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

A. 1.2 W

B. 1.4 W

C. 1.7 W

D. 12 W

Question 8 of 180

9. A square coil of side ‘25cm’ having 1000 turns is rotated with a uniform speed in a magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the direction of the field. At an instant ‘t’ the ‘e.m.f’ induced in the coil is E= 200 sin100πt. The strength of the magnetic field is (in Tesla)

1) 5/125π

2) 2/125π

3) 1/125π

4) 4/125π

Question 9 of 180

10. In a uniform segment of a circuit the current is proportional to the...

A. density of the segment

B. resistance of the segment

C. volume of the segment

D. potential difference at its ends

Question 10 of 180

11. Two equal masses ‘A and B’ moving along the same straight line with velocities 3i m/sec and '-5i m/sec respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively

1) 4i m/sec for both

2) -3i m/sec and 5i m/sec

3) -4i m/sec and 4i m/sec

4) -5i m/sec and 3i m/sec

Question 11 of 180

12. Of the following the one that is a vector is...

A. electric charge

B. electric field

C. electric energy

D. potential difference

Question 12 of 180

13. The only atom which has no neutron in the nucleus is...

A. hydrogen

B. helium

C. oxygen

D. polonium

Question 13 of 180

14. The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is ‘4.5 joule’. The charge on the sphere is '4μc' its radius will be [(1/4πε₀)=9×10⁹ N - m²c^-2]

1) 4mm

2) 8 mm

3) 2mm

4) 16 mm

Question 14 of 180

15. The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is half of its initial velocity ‘u’. Its range on the horizontal plane is

1) 2u2/3g

2) √3u2/2g

3) u2/3g

4) u2/2g

Question 15 of 180

16. The aperture of the objective lens of a telescope is made large so as to

1) Increase the magnifying power of the telescope

2) Increase the resolving power of the telescope

3) Focus on distant objects

4) Ease of Manufacture

Question 16 of 180

17. A ‘2Mev’ proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ‘2.5 Tesla’. The force on the proton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10^-27 kg)

1) 3×10^-10 N

2) 8× 10^-11 N

3) 3×10^-11N

4) 8×10^-12N

Question 17 of 180

18. A block of mass 10kg moving in X-direction with a constant speed of 10 msec^-1, is subjected to a retarding force F = (x/10) (Joule/meter) during its travel from x=10m to x=20m its final kenetic energy will be (in Joule)

1) 475

2) 450

3) 485

4) 515

Question 18 of 180

19. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 19 of 180

20. The radius of the planet is ‘R’ A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius ‘r’ with an angular velocity ‘ω’. The acceleration due to the gravity onthe planet surface is

1) r³ω/R

2) r³ω³/R

3) r³ω²/R

4) r³ω²/R²

Question 20 of 180

21. A solid sphere of mass ’M’ ; radius ‘R’ and having moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass is ‘I’. It recast into a disc of thickness ‘t’. Whose moment of inertia about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane remains ‘I’ then radius of the disc will be

1) 2R/√15

2) R/√2/15

3) 4R/√15

4) R/4

Question 21 of 180

22. Two bodies ‘A and B’ of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid partition. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. A force of 200N is applied horizontally at ‘A’ action reaction force between A and B is (g = 10 m/sec²)

1) 170 N

2) 200 N

3) 190 N

4) 210 N

Question 22 of 180

23. For monatomic gases, C_p/C_vis equal to...

A. 1.67

B. R

C. 1.67 R

D. 1.5 R

Question 23 of 180

24. A sonometer wire resonate with a given tuning fork forming standing wave with five antinode between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of M is

1) 25 kg

2) 5kg

3) 12.5kg

4) (1/25) kg

Question 24 of 180

25. A nucleus of mass 'M + ∆m' is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass '(M/2)' each speed of light is ‘C’. The speed of daughter nuclei is

1) C√[∆m/M + ∆m]

2) C√[∆m/M]

3) C√[2∆m/ M]

4) C√[M/2∆m]

Question 25 of 180

26. Two identical containers each of volume V joined by a normal pipe contains gas at a
temperature T. If one of the containers is now maintained at the same temperature T while the other is maintained at 2T, the number of moles of gas in the container having temperature 2T will be

1) PV/2RT

2) PV/RT

3) 2PV/3RT

4) PV/3RT

Question 26 of 180

27. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates

1) OR

2) NAND

3)AND

4) NOR

Question 27 of 180

28. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 28 of 180

29. Calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to raise temperature of 1g of water by 1⁰C and it is defined under which of the following conditions

1) From 14.50C to 15.50C at 760 mm of Hg

2) From 98.50C to 99.50C at 760 mm of Hg

3) From 13.50C to 14.50C at 76 mm of Hg

4) From 3.50C to 4.50C at 76 mm of Hg

Question 29 of 180

30. A wave represented by the given equation y = a cos(kx - ωt) is superposed with another wave to form a stationary wave such that the point x=0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is

1) y = a sin(kx + ωt)

2) y = -a cos(kx + ωt)

3) y = -a cos(kx - ωt)

4) y = -a sin(kx - ωt)

Question 30 of 180

31. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

1) 0.25

2) 0.5

3) 0.75

4) 0.99

Question 31 of 180

32. A projectile is thrown in the direction making an angle θ with the horizontal. The projectile attains maximum height for θ equal to...

A. 0

B. π/4

C. π/2

D. π

Question 32 of 180

33. The given graph represents V – I characteristic for a semiconductor device

Which of the following statement is correct

1) It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

2) It is for a LED and points A and B represents open circuit voltage and short circuit current respectively

3) It is V – I characteristic for solar cell where point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current

4) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

Question 33 of 180

34. The de-Broglie wave length of an electron in first Bohr orbit is

1) Equal to one fourth the circumference of the first orbit

2) Equal to half the circumference of the first orbit

3) Equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit

4) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit

Question 34 of 180

35. The distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is...

A. λ

B. λ/2

C. λ/3

D. λ/4

Question 35 of 180

36. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents ‘SHM’

a) Y = sinωt - cosωt

b) Y = Sin³ ωt

c) Y = 5 cos[(3π/4) - 3ωt]

d) Y = 1 + ωt + ω²t²

1) only ‘a’ and ‘b’

2) only ‘a’

3) only ‘a’ and ‘d’

4) only ‘a’ and ‘c’

Question 36 of 180

37. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of emf ‘e’ is balanced at a length l/5 from the positive end of the wire. Assuming there is no contribution in resistance from any part of the circuit except the potentiometer wire, the balancing length for the same cell if length of the wire is increased by l/2 is

1) 2l/15

2) 3 l /15

3) 3 l /10

4) 4 l /10

Question 37 of 180

38. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

A. interference

B. diffraction

C. resolving power

D. polarization

Question 38 of 180

39. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 10³ kg/m³ with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are 8 × 10³ kg/m³ and 11 × 10³ kg/m³ The ratio of their radii is

1) 11/8

2) √(11/8)

3) 3/2

4) √(3/2)

Question 39 of 180

40. To charge a secondary cell, what is needed is...

A. a d.c. current

B. an a.c. current

C. fresh electrolyte

D. heating

Question 40 of 180

41. If the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. is V_mand maximum r.m.s. current is √ 2 ampere for an a.c. circuit with resistance R, then the value of V_min volt is equal to...

A. 2R

B. R

C. 1/R

D. √ 2/R

Question 41 of 180

42. The image a camera forms on the film is...

A. always real

B. always virtual

C. always erect

D. sometimes inverted

Question 42 of 180

43. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

A. frequency

B. amplitude

C. wavelength

D. both frequency and amplitude

Question 43 of 180

44. When a ferromagnet is inserted in a current-carrying loop, the magnetic field...

A. decreases slightly

B. decreases greatly

C. does not change

D. increases greatly

Question 44 of 180

45. A thin circular loop of radius ‘R’ rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ‘ ’. A small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω ≤ √(g/R) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = √(2g/R) (Neglect the friction)

1) 300

2) 600

3) 450

4) 1200

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground tissue system of roots, is characterised by

1) Casparian bands

2) Starch grains

3) Complementary cells

4) Intercellular spaces

Question 46 of 180

47. Identify the non-suberised loosely arranged cells for gaseous exchange in the given diagram

1) C

2) B

3) A

4) D

Question 47 of 180

48. S-I : Virus resistant plants can be recovered from virus infected plants in Potato and Banana by shoot apex culture

S-II : Pollen culture involving colchicine treatment always results in the production of male homozygous diploid plants only.

1) S-I is true and S-II is false

2) S-I is false and S-II is true

3) S-I and S-II are false

4) S-I and S-II are true

Question 48 of 180

49. Who of the following scientists is not concerned with O2 release from water in photosynthesis?

1) Julius von Sachs

2) Van Neil

3) Robert Hill

4) T.W. Engelman

Question 49 of 180

50. Mesokaryotic condition and mixotrophic nutrition are found, respectively, in

1) Noctiluca and Euglena

2) Euglena and Gonyaulax

3) Entamoeba and Cosmarium

4) Pinnularia and Paramoecium

Question 50 of 180

51. Which is incorrect about coenzyme

1) Every enzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is a coenzyme

2) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is not a coenzyme

3) Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides and are composed of vitamins

4) Coenzymes are the active constituents of enzymes.

Question 51 of 180

52. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

1) 5n, 4n, 7n

2) 7n, 5n, 4n

3) 4n, 5n, 7n

4) 5n, 7n, 4n

Question 52 of 180

53. Go through the diagram given below and indentify the option having correct set of answers

1) A – Long shoot, B- Dwarf shoot, C- Seeds of Ginko plant

2) A – Long shoot, B- Dwarf shoot, C- Seeds of Sequoia plant

3) A – Dwarf shoot, B- Long shoot, C- Seeds of Ginko plant

4) A – Dwarf shoot, B- Long shoot, C- Seeds of Pinus plant

Question 53 of 180

54. Read the following character given with respect to short distance transport and identify correct combination
Property Simple diffusion Facilitated diffusion Activetransport
I) Requires special Yes No Yes
membrane proteins
II) Requires ATP energy No No Yes
III) Highly selective Yes Yes No
IV) Uphill transport No No Yes

1) I and II

2) II and III

3) II and IV

4) III and IV

Question 54 of 180

55. Which of the following taxonomical aids are used in identification of both plants and animals?

1) Herbarium only

2) Keys & Herbarium only

3) Museums only

4) Keys & Museums

Question 55 of 180

56. Which of the following cannot freely interbreed in nature

A. Winter and spring varieties of wheat

B. LDP and SDP varieties of Tobacco

C. Tall and Dwarf varieties of Pea

D. Red and white flowered varieties of Dog flower

1) C and D

2) A and C

3) B and D

3) B and D 4) A and B

Question 56 of 180

57. Which of the following are the simple mechanical tissues

1) Parenchyma and Collenchyma

2) Sclerenchyma and Collenchyma

3) Primary xylem and Primary phloem

4) Bast and Leptome

Question 57 of 180

58. Root nodules (tubercles) are found on

1) primary root only

2) branchlets only

3) secondary roots only

4) primary and secondary roots

Question 58 of 180

59.

Select the correct match
Column – I Column – II

A. Terminalisation I. Pachytene

B. Synapsis II. Anaphase II

C. Disjunction III. Zygotene

D. Recombinations IV. Anaphase I

V. Diakinesis
A B C D

1) III V IV II

2) V III II I

3) V III IV I

4) III IV II V

Question 59 of 180

60. Choose correct option for A,B,C and D of a dicot embryo

1) A-Hypocotyl; B-Cotyledons; C-Root cap; D-Radicle

2) A- Cotyledons; B- Hypocotyl; C- Root cap; D-Radicle

3) A- Cotyledons ;B- Hypocotyl;C- Radicle ;D- Root cap

4) A- Cotyledons; B- Radicle; C- Hypocotyl; D- Root cap

Question 60 of 180

61. How many of the following statements are correct

A. Yellow mosaic resistance mung bean was developed by hybridisation

B. Yellow mosaic resistant bhindi was produced by mutation breeding

C. White rust resistant mustard was developed by hybridisation

D. Pomato was developed by somatic hybridisation E. Golden rice variety was produced by trans genies

1) Four

2) Three

3) Two

4) One

Question 61 of 180

62. S-I : Linked genes get separated due to crossing over

S-II : The closer the genes on a chromosome the more is the probability of recombinations

1) S-I and S-II are false e

2) S-I is false and S-II is true

3) S-I is true and S-II is false

4) S-I and S-II are true

Question 62 of 180

63. Which one of the following statements regarding enzymes is wrong

1) Most enzymes are non-proteins but some are ribozymes

2) Enzymes require optimum temperature for maximum activity

3) Majority of the enzymes function well at neutral pH

4) Enzymes are active in minute concentration also

Question 63 of 180

64. Meiosis involves

1. One nuclear, one chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

2. Two nuclear, one chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, one cycle of DNA replication

3. One nuclear, two chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

4. Two nuclear, two chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, two cycles of DNA replication

Question 64 of 180

65. A cell under hypertonic solution shows incipient plasmolysis, then what will be present between cell wall and cell membrane

1) Water with Ψ_W zero

2) Solution with same Ψ_W , as solution out the cell

3) Water with slightly high Ψ_W as compare to solution outside the cell

4) Vacume

Question 65 of 180

66. The leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in mature plant in

1) China rose

2) Mango

3) Delphenium

4) Nerium

Question 66 of 180

67. Eight bacteria kept in cup divide repeatedly and produce 64 bacteria in 2 hours. Find the time consumed in binary fission.

1) 15 minutes

2) 20 minutes

3) 40 minutes

4) 30 minutes

Question 67 of 180

68. Different types of plastids (chloroplast, chromoplast and leucoplast) are quite related as:

1) These all store lipids and starch

2) These are restricted to the green parts of a plant

3) These al perform almost same function

4) These are interconvertible depending upon the requirement of an organ

Question 68 of 180

69. A,B,C and D lies on same chromosome with given distances between them, as

AD=60 morgan, AB-38 morgan, DB=22 morgan and

AC=18 morgan. Find the sequence of four genes on the chromosome

1) A,C,B and D

2) C,A,B and D

3) D,B,A and C

4) any of these

Question 69 of 180

70. If 24 molecules of erythrose-4- phosphate are formed in Calvin cycle. What is the number of CO2 molecules fixed?

1) 48

2) 72

3) 52

4) 36

Question 70 of 180

71. In dicot roots, the pericycle gives rise to

1) Lateral roots and a part of vascular cambium

2) Cortex and pith

3) Xylem and Phloem

4) Epidermis and vascular bundles

Question 71 of 180

72. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

1) Independent sporophyte

2) Presence of archegonia

3) Well developed vascular tissues

4) Independent gametophyte

Question 72 of 180

73. When PS-I is excited with the light of wavelength greater then 680nm, photophosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flow of electrons, results in synthesis of

1) NADPH + H+ and ATP

2) only NADPH + H+

3) only ATP

4) NADH and ATP

Question 73 of 180

74. Select the incorrect statements

(i) Cell organelle within cell organelle is plasmosome

(ii) Factory of protein factories is ergosome

(iii) Membraneless non-cell organelle is centrosome

(iv) nucleosomes are ribonucleoprotein bodies

(v) A eukaryotic cell in a eukaryotic cell is vegetative cell

1) ii, iii and iv only

2) i, iv and v only

3) iii, iv and v only

4) i, ii, iii, iv and v only

Question 74 of 180

75. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon compound by a reaction between

1) Succinic acid and pyruvic acid

2) Malic acid and Acetyl CO-A

3) Fumaric acid and pyruvic acid

4) OAA and Acetyl CO-A

Question 75 of 180

76. Resistance to shoot and fruit borer is observed in a bhindi variety namely

1) Pusa Swarnim

2) Pusa Sawani

3) Pusa Gaurav

4) Pusa Sem-2 & 3

Question 76 of 180

77. A primary root grows from 10 cm to 30 cm in a day. Calculate the Absolute Growth Rate (AGR) and Relative Growth Rate (RGR) over the period AGR

1) 20 cm 300%

2) 10 cm 200%

3) 20 cm 200%

4) 20 cm 30%

Question 77 of 180

78. Which of the following instruments are correctly matched, except?

i) Potometer – Transpiration rate

ii) Atmometer – Demonstrate transpiration pull

iii) Auxanometer – Growth measurement

iv) Ganog’s light screen – Measure light intensity

v) Manometer – Demonstreate toot pressure

1) (iv)

2) (ii)

3) (iii)

Question 78 of 180

79. After initial growth maize stem elongates by the activity of

1) Intercalary meristem

2) Intrafascicular cambium

3) Interfascicular cambium

4) Secondary cortical cambium

Question 79 of 180

80. ‘Vascular cryptogams’ are not the first group to exhibit

1) Heterospory

2) Root system

3) Complex tissues

4) Homospory

Question 80 of 180

81. DNA with one strand labeled with radioactive thymidine. Allowed to replicate in normal nutrient medium for three generations. Then proportion of DNA molecules showing radioactivity is

1) 12.5% only

2) 25%

3) 6.25%

4) 50%

Question 81 of 180

82. Select the correct statement

1) During early-M-phase cells may have more than 2C content of DNA

2) During early S-phase cells have 4C content of DNA

3) Replication continues in G2-phase

4) In plant cells G0-phase is absent

Question 82 of 180

83. Regarding ATP synthesis in aerobic respiration select the correct match

A B C D

1) III IV I V

2) IV III II I

3) IV III V I

4) III I IV V

Question 83 of 180

84. The correct sequence of electron acceptors in respiratory electron transport is

1) Cyt a, a3, c

2) cyt b, c, a, a3

3) cyt c, b, a, a3

4) Cyt a3, c, b, a

Question 84 of 180

85. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M-phase, what will be the content of DNA at G1 phase chromosome and S - phase chromosome of mitosis?

1) 2C & 4C

2) 4C & 4C

3) 4C & 2C

4) 2C & 3C

Question 85 of 180

86. Bicollateral vascularbundles are present in which part of the Solanaceae and Cucurbitaceae members

1) Root

2) Leaves

3) Stem

4) All the above

Question 86 of 180

87. Study the following diagrams and identify the option containing correct set answers

1) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Cladophora

2) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Fucus

3) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Homo sapiens

4) A- Male gamete, B-Female gamete of Fucus

Question 87 of 180

88. Identify P,Q,R and S in the given diagram

1) P-Bundle sheath cell, Q-Regeneration R-Decarboxylation, S-Carboxylation

2) P-Bundle sheath cell, Q-Regeneration R-Decarboxylation, S-Fixation

3) P-mesophyll cell, Q-Regeneration R-Decarboxylation, S-Carboxylation

4) P-Bundle sheath cell, Q-Regeneration R-Carboxylation, S-Fixation

Question 88 of 180

89. The biocatalyst ribozyme is synthesized by a process called

1) Replication

2) Reverse transcription

3) Transcription

4)Translation

Question 89 of 180

90. A leafy vegetable ‘bathua’ produced by IARI is rich in

1) Vitamin A, proteins, calcium

2) Calcium, iron and vitamin C

3) Vitamin D, lysine and tryptophan

4) Iron, vitamin B and carotene

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. Which of the following technique has been shown in the given diagram

1) Agarose gel electrophoresis in which smallest DNA fragment moves farther

2) Identification and elimination of non-transformants

3) Agarose gel electrophoresis in which DNA fragments resolve according to their size

4) More than one option is correct

Question 91 of 180

92. A tumour in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the hormones in that region. Which of the following you might expect to find in a patient with such a tumour?

1) Increased blood sodium levels

2) Increased blood glucose levels

3) Decreased blood calcium levels

4) Increased dehydration

Question 92 of 180

93. Following is a diagrammatic representation of endocrine glands with a labelled part ‘A’. The part ‘A’ serves as the connection between

1) Hypothalamus and adenohypophysis

2) Hypothalamus and neurohypophysis

3) Hypothalamus and pars nervosa

4) Hypothalamus and epiphysis

Question 93 of 180

94. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovolution?

1) Vitelline membrane

2) Graafian follicle

3) Stroma

4) Germinal epithelium

Question 94 of 180

95. Milk of first transgenic cow Rosie consists

1) alpha lactalbumin

2) alpha-1 antitrypsin

3) alpha amylase

4) alpha polypeptide

Question 95 of 180

96. The diagram shows an antibody molecule. Identify A to F.

1) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

2) A-Antigen binding site; B-Constant region (of L-Chain); C-Variable region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain(L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

3) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Heavy polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Light polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

4) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

Question 96 of 180

97. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates 5. Annelid

1) a – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 5, E – 3

2) a – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 3

3) a – 5, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2, E – 4

4) a – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2

Question 97 of 180

98. Find out the correctly matching set

1) Gamitocytes – Infective stages of plasmodium to man

2) IgE anti body – Rich in colostrums

3) Metagenesis – Malignant tumor

4) SCID – Somatic line gene therapy

Question 98 of 180

99. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

A. Crocodile 4-Chambered heart

B. Sea Urchin Parapodia

C. Obelia Metagenesis

D. Lemur Thecodont

1) Only A and B

2) A, C and D

3) B, C and D

4) Only A and D

Question 99 of 180

100. Nephrostome occurs in

1) septal nephridia

2) integumentary nephridia

3) pharyngeal and septal nephridia

4) pharyngeal and integumentary nephridia

Question 100 of 180

101. Bundle of His is a network of:

1) Muscle fibres distributedthroughout the heart walls

2) Muscle fibres found only in theventricle wall

3) Nerve fibres distributed inventricles

4) Nerve fibres found throughoutheart

Question 101 of 180

102. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the outer side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

1) First positive, then negative and again back to positive

2) First negative, then positive and again back to negative

3) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative

4) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive

Question 102 of 180

103. Which of the following statements are correct related to human

A. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase.

B. Lipases are absent in secretion of gastric glands

C. Bile helps in emulsification of fats and also activates lipases.

D. Nucleases in the succus entericus acts on nucleic acids to form nucleotides and nucleosides

1) A, B, C

2) A, C

3) C, D

4) A, C, D

Question 103 of 180

104. All of the following are functions of catecholamines, except

1) Pupilary dilation

2) Piloerection

3) Tachycardia

4) Lipogenesis

Question 104 of 180

105. The correct match for structures of cockroach is
Column-I Column-II
A. Ommatidia I. Articulates with thorax
B. Trochanter II. For vision
C. Coxa III. Forming exoskeleton
D. Sclerites IV. Fused with large and stout femur

1) A-II B-IV C-I D-III

2) B-II D-IV A-I C-III

3) C-II D-IV B-I A-III

4) D-II A-IV C-I B-III

Question 105 of 180

106. Select the synovial joint which is exclusive to Axial skeleton

1) Tibiofemoral joint

2) Atlanto-Axial joint

3) Inter tarsal joint

4) Humero scapular joint

Question 106 of 180

107. The concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels in a food chain, through

1) Anthropogenic Eutrophication

2) Biomagnification

3)Cultural Eutrophication

4) Ecological Succession

Question 107 of 180

108. Plant whose product is with hallucinogenic properties is

1) Papaver somniferum

2) Atropa belladona

3) Solanum tuberosum

4) Rauwolfia serpentina

Question 108 of 180

109. If a female having gene for haemophilia and colour blindness on its one chromosome marries a normal male, then what are the chances in their offspring

1) 50% son are diseased and 50%are normal

2) All normal offspring

3) 100% daughters are carrier

4) 100% son are diseased

Question 109 of 180

110. Identify the molecules (a) and (B) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.

Molecule Source Use
1) A - Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine
2) B - Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions
3) B - Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations
4) A - Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 110 of 180

111. The copper ions of IUDs

1) Suppress the motility and fertilization capacity of sperms

2) Make the uterus suitable for implantation

3) Increase pinocytosis of sperms

4) Make cervix hostile to sperms

Question 111 of 180

112. When light incidents on photoreceptor cells of the retina of eye ,their membrane is

1) hyperpolarized

2) depolarized

3) repolarized

4) none of the above.

Question 112 of 180

113. Find the incorrect match

1) Colostrum – IgA antibodies

2) Recombinant DNA – Hepatitis Bvaccine technology produced fromyeast

3) Allergy – Release of chemicals likehistamine and serotonin from themast cells

4) Autoimmune – Adrenaline disease

Question 113 of 180

114. Identical twins are produced when

1) One fertilized egg divides and two blastomeres separate

2) One sperm fertilizes two eggs

3) One egg is fertilized with two sperms

4) Two eggs are fertilized

Question 114 of 180

115. Following is a diagrammatic representation of a nephron showing blood vessels, duct and tubule. These structures have been labelled as A, B, C etc., Answer the questions that follow.

(i) Which parts are located in cortical region of kidney?

(ii) Which structure is highly reduced in cortical nephrons?

(iii) Identify the part F. (iv) Which parts collectively form Malpighian body?

1) (i) A, C, D, E (ii) B (iii) Collecting duct (iv) A and C

2) (i) A, C, D, E (ii) B (iii) Vasa recta (iv) A and C

3) (i) B, F, G, H (ii) F (iii) Vasa recta (iv) A and D

4) (i) B, F, G, H (ii) F (iii) Collecting duct (iv) C and D

Question 115 of 180

116. Which of the following is responsible for rejection of graft ?

1) Cell mediated immunity

2) Antibody mediated immunity

3) Cytokine barrier

4) Inflammation

Question 116 of 180

117. According to 2001 census report, the population growth rate of India was

1) 17/1000/year

2) 25/1000/year

3) 33/1000/year

4) 8/1000/year

Question 117 of 180

118. How many of the following statements are wrong w.r.t. STDs?

A. AIDs is the most dangerous STD.

B. Hepatitis B, genital herpes and HIV infection are not curable

C. Ectopic pregnancy and cancer are not included under the complications of STDs

D. The incidence of STDs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 yearsx

1) One

2) Two

3) Three

4) Four

Question 118 of 180

119. Function of thyrocalcitonin

1) To reduce the calcium level inblood

2) To increase the calcium level inblood

3) Oppose the action of thyroxine

4) Maturation of gonads

Question 119 of 180

120. Consider the following features:

A. Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical diploblastic organisms with tissue level of organisation.

B. The body bears eight external rows of ciliary comb plates.

C. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular

D. Exhibit bioluminescence

E. Monoecious, fertilisation external with indirect development The above-mentioned features belong to the animal

1) Physalia

2) Euspongia

3) Fasciola

4) Pleurobrachia

Question 120 of 180

121. A phenomena in which a bee visits a flower at the same time every day is called

1) biological clock

2) circadian rhythm

3) commensalism

4) mutualism

Question 121 of 180

122. The three-chambered heart of frog is not as efficient as the human heart with four chambers, because

1) the muscles of the heart are not strong

2) both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the ventricle

3) the ventricle cannot pump blood properly

4) it cannot hold enough quantity of blood

Question 122 of 180

123. The state of heart when it does not pump blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body is

1) Heart attack

2) Angina pectoris

3) Cardiac arrest

4) Heart failure

Question 123 of 180

124. Two adaptive radiations are shown in the figure below. Animal ‘B’ acquires the same adaptations as the Animal ‘Q’. This type of evolution is called as

1) Convergent evolution

2) Divergent evolution

3) Both Convergent and divergent

4) Retrogressive evolution

Question 124 of 180

125. In cockroach the flow of haemolymph is

1) heart → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral sinus → pericardial sinus → ostia → heart

2) heart → pericardial sinus → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral sinus → ostia → heart

3) heart → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral sinus → ostia → pericardial sinus → heart

4) heart → ostia → perivisceral sinus → pericardial sinus → head → perineural sinus → heart

Question 125 of 180

126. Satellite DNA is useful tool in

1) organ transplantation

2) sex determination

3) forensic science

4) genetic engineering

Question 126 of 180

127. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is

1) corona radiate, zona pellucid and vitelline membrane

2) zona pellucid, corona radiate and vitelline membrane

3) vitelline membrane, zona pellucid and corona radiate

4) zona pellucid, vitelline membrane and corona radiate

Question 127 of 180

128. The embryonic membrane involved in the formation of placenta in human is

1) yolk sac

2) umbilical cord

3) amnion

4) chorion

Question 128 of 180

129. In present times the origin of life is not possible from inorganic compounds due to

1) Raw material not available

2) High O2 in atmosphere

3) Decrease in temperature

4) Excess of pollution

Question 129 of 180

130. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are

1) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and parathormone

2) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucacorticoids

3) insulin, glucagon, glucacorticoids and calcitonin

4) insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and melatonin

Question 130 of 180

131. How many of the given statements are wrong?

A. The rate of diffusion of gas at the respiratory membrane depends upon its solubility as well as on the thickness of membrane

B. The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference if partial pressure is much higher when compared to that of O2

C. Oxygen can bind with haemoglobin in an irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin

D. The factors responsible for formation of oxyhaemoglobin include high pO2, low pCO2, high H+ concentration and low temperature.

1) One

2) Two

2) Three

4) Four

Question 131 of 180

132. Statement –1 (S₁): When one cardio myocyte receives a signal to contract, its neighbours are also stimulated to contract

Statement –2(S₂): Communication junctions (inter calated discs)

at some fusion points allow the cells to contract as a unit

1) S1 is false; S2 is true

2) S1 is true; S2 is false

3) Both S2 and S1 are true

4) Both S1 and S2 are false

Question 132 of 180

133. Olfactory bulbs are extensions of

1) Lymphatic system

2) Limbic system

3) Diencephalon

4) Mesencephalon

Question 133 of 180

134. Match the Columns and choose the Correct answer

Column I Column II

a.National aquatic (i) Endoskeleton fully

Animal ossified

b.National Heritage (ii) Seven cervical

Animal Vertebrae

c.National Bird (iii) Sheds scales as

Skin cast

d.National Reptile (iv) Longest gestation

Period

(v) Cormorant

1) a – ii, b – iii, c - i, d – v

2) a – ii, b – iv, c - i, d – iii

3) a – iii, b – v, c - i, d – ii

4) a – i, b – ii, c - iv, d – v

Question 134 of 180

135. Bone can be distinguished from cartilage with

1) The haversian system

2) High vascular nature

3) Calcified matrix

4) All the above

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ions discharged at cathode are

1) H⁺

2) Na⁺

3) OH^-

4) Cl^-

Question 136 of 180

137. For decolourization of one mole of KMnO₄ the required litre of 30 volume H₂O₂ in acidified medium is

1) 0.94

2) 9.4

3) 0.094

4) 3.01

Question 137 of 180

138. What would be the product formed when 1-bromo-3 chloro cyclo butane reacts with two equivalents of metallic sodium in ether

Question 138 of 180

139. When H₂S is passed through acidified KMnO₄ we get

1) K₂ SO₃

2) MnO₂

3) KHSO₃

4) Sulphur

Question 139 of 180

140. V1 ml of 3M HCl solution is mixed with V₂ml of 3M H₂SO₄to from a solution in which molarity of H+ ions is 5M, then the relation between V₁and V₂is

1) V₁= V₂

2) V₂=2V₁

3) 3V₁= V₂

4) 2V₂= V₁

Question 140 of 180

141. Which of the following compound react faster through SN²mechanism

1) CH3- CH2Br

2) CH3- O - CH₂Br

3) C₆H5- CO - CH2Br

4) CH₃ - C (CH₃ )2- CH2Br

Question 141 of 180

142. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom?

1) 127 pm

2) 157 pm

3) 181 pm

4) 108 pm

Question 142 of 180

143.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

1) formation of Y is a syn addition

2)during the formation of X, the intermediate is a carbocation

3) X is a positional isomer of Y

4) formation of Y follows markonikov's rule

Question 143 of 180

144. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 144 of 180

145. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

1) Aspartame

2) Saccharin

3) Sucralose

4) Alitame

Question 145 of 180

146. Which of the following C – H bond has the least bond dissociation energy

Question 146 of 180

147. In Kjeldahl ‘s method, the nitrogen gas evolved from 1.325 g sample of a fertilizer is passed into 50.0 mL of 0.2030 N H₂SO₄mL of 0.1980 N NaOH are required for the titration of unused acid. The percentage of nitrogen in fertilizer is

1) 10.86%

2) 21.72 %

3) 5.43 %

4) 2.75 %

Question 147 of 180

148. The conductivity of saturated solution of BaSO₄is 3.06×10^-6 mho cm^-1and its equivalent conductance is 1.53 mho cm^-2 eq^-1. Then K_sp for BaSO₄ will be

1) 4×10^-12M

2) 1×10⁶M

3) 4×10⁶M²

4) 1×10^-6M²

Question 148 of 180

149. The correct statement among the following is:
i) NaBH₄produce BH₆on reaction with I₂

ii) Reaction between B₂H₆and NMe₃is an acid base reaction

iii) BH₆is produced on industrial scale by reaction with BF₃, NaH

iv) Boranes on hydrolysis produce
B₂H₆and H₂gas

1) All are correct

2) Only i & ii are correct

3) Only iv is correct

4) Only i, ii, iii are correct

Question 149 of 180

150. Xe has max. EN in:-

1) XeF₂

2) XeF₄

3) XeO₄

4) XeOF₂

Question 150 of 180

151. The weight of H₂O₂present in 80 ml of 10V H₂O₂ solution is

1) 3.2 gr

2) 4.2 gr

3) 2.4 gr

4) 3.6 gr

Question 151 of 180

152. Which of the following has minimum flocculation value for positively charged sol ?

1) Cl^-

2) SO₄^2-

3) PO₄^3-

4) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-

Question 152 of 180

153.

1) Glyptal

2) Dacron

3) Nylon-6,6

4) Nylon-6

Question 153 of 180

154. The shortest wavelength of He⁺ ion in Balmer series is x, then longest wavelength in the paschen series of Li²⁺is

1) 36x/5

2) 16x/7

3) 9x/5

4) 5x/5

Question 154 of 180

155. The impure 7g of NaCl is dissolved in water and then treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The weight of precipitate of silver chloride is found to be 14g. The % purity of NaCl solution would be (M. Wt of AgCl = 143.5, NaCl = 58.5)

1) 81.5%

2) 63%

3) 93%

4) 77%

Question 155 of 180

156. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except

1) sodium

2) NaOH / I₂

3) Neutral FeCl3

4) Br₂ / H₂O

Question 156 of 180

157. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

1) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]

2) [ Acid ] × 10⁵ = [conjugatebase]

3) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]× 10⁵

4) [ Acid ] = 2[conjugatebase]

Question 157 of 180

158. The pH of a solution of H₂O₂is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

1) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0

2) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant solution

3) The pH of resultant solution becomes less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated

4) Cl₂O is formed in the resultant solution

Question 158 of 180

159. Number of stereoisomers of the given compound

1) 2

2)3

3)4

4)6

Question 159 of 180

160. When 0.1mole MnO₄^2- is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required in coulombs to completely oxidize MnO₄^2- to MnO₄^- is

1) 96500

2) 2×96500

3)9650

4) 96.50

Question 160 of 180

161. Compound having least heat of hydrogenation:

Question 161 of 180

162. An oxide of Nitrogen which form reddish brown fumes in air is

1) N₂O

2) NO₂

3) NO

4) N₂O₃

Question 162 of 180

163. Which of the following amines form N-nitroso derivative when treated with NaNO₂and HCl

1) CH3NH2

2) C₆H₅ - NH₂

3) C₆H₅ - NH - R

Question 163 of 180

164. I_2(aq)+ I^-(aq) --> I^-_3(aq)+We started with 1 mole of I^₂and 0.5 mole of I^- in one litre flask. After equilibrium is reached excess of AgNO₃ gave 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate. Then
Equilibrium constant is

1) 1.33

2) 2.66

3) 2.0

4) 3.0

Question 164 of 180

165. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solution will record the highest p^H?

1) BaCl2

2) MgCl2

3) CaCl2

4) SrCl2

Question 165 of 180

166. Which of the following organ metallic compound is σ and π
bonded?

1) [ Fe(η⁵-C₂H5)₂]

2) [ PtCl3 (η2 -C2H₄ ) ]

3) [ Co(Co)5 NH₃ ]⁺²

4) All the above

Question 166 of 180

167. The half life of a reaction is 46 minutes when the initial concentration of the reactant is 4 mol/L and 92 minutes when the initial concentration is 0.2mol/L. The order of the reaction is

1) Zero

2) 0.5

3) 2

4) 1

Question 167 of 180

168. For the given complex ,[CoCl₂(en)(NH₃)]⁺the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

1) 2,2 and 4

2) 2,0 and 2

3) 2,2 and 3

4) 0,2 and 2

Question 168 of 180

169. Incorrect statement among the following is

1) Pure CO is prepared bydehydration of formic acid with conc. H₂S4

2) Commercially CO is prepared byassing steam over red hot coke

3) CO is a powerful reducing agentand reduces almost all metal oxidesother than IA, IIA group elements,Al etc...

4) CO is a Lewis acid

Question 169 of 180

170. The most volatile alkane is

1) n – pentane

2) isopentane

3) neopentane

4) n–hexane

Question 170 of 180

171. The plots of 1/ X_AVs 1/Y_A( where X_A and Y_Aare the mole fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercepts respectively

Question 171 of 180

172. Find the correct order of acidity of the following compounds

1) III> II> I> IV

2) III> I> II> IV

3)III> II> IV> I

4) IV> I> II> III

Question 172 of 180

173. At what temperature will average speed of the molecules of the second member of the series C_nH_2nbe the same of Cl₂ at 627⁰C?

1) 259.4K

2) 400K

3) 532.4K

4) 628K

Question 173 of 180

174. The equivalent weight of HCl in the given reaction is
KCr₂O₇ +14 HCl -->2KCl + 2CrCl₃ +3Cl₂ +H₂O

1) 16.25

2) 36.5

3) 73

4) 85.1

Question 174 of 180

175. For one mole of a vanderwaal’s gaswhen b=0 and T=300K, the PV vs1/V plot is shown below. The value of vander waal’s constant ‘a’ in atm.lit² mole^-2is (graph not to scale)

1) 1.0

2)4.5

3) 1.5

4) 3.0

Question 175 of 180

176. The vapour pressure of a dilute solution of glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373K. The mole fraction of solute is

1) 1/7.6

2) 1/76

3) 1/35

4) 1/10

Question 176 of 180

177. 75% completion of a first order reaction takes 2.38 hours. How much time will it take for 99.9% completion?

1) 1.39 h

2) 7.14h

3) 11.9 h

4) 15.85 h

Question 177 of 180

178. The number of carbon atoms per unitcell of diamond unitcell is

1) 8

2) 6

3) 1

4) 4

Question 178 of 180

179. Benzene reacts with cholorine in the presence of U.V. light and gives

1) Chloro Benzene

2) 1, 2-dichloro Benzene

3) Hexachloro cyclohexane

4) Benzyl chloride

Question 179 of 180

180. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in

1) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides

2) forming polymeric hydrides

3) forming covalent halides

4)exhibiting same covalency incompounds

Question 180 of 180

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

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