NEET Free Mock Test 1 – india vidya

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. A cable stretches by amount 'a' under a certain load. If it is replaced by a cable of the same material but half as long and half the diameter, the same load will stretch it by...

A. a/4

B. a/2

C. a

D. 2a

Question 1 of 180

2. The distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is...

A. λ

B. λ/2

C. λ/3

D. λ/4

Question 2 of 180

3. In a uniform segment of a circuit the current is proportional to the...

A. density of the segment

B. resistance of the segment

C. volume of the segment

D. potential difference at its ends

Question 3 of 180

4. Two parallel wires carry current in the same direction,...

A. they attract each other

B. they repel each other

C. they neither attract nor repel

D. they attract or repel depending on current type

Question 4 of 180

5. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 5 of 180

6. Mark out the incorrect statement regarding transverse standing waves on a string

1) Within a loop, the total energy of the wave remains constant.

2) When the particles are at the maximum displacements, the entire energy within the loopappears as potential energy

3) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy is equally divided aspotential energy and kinetic energy.

4) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy appears as kineticenergy

Question 6 of 180

7. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

1) 0.25

2) 0.5

3) 0.75

4) 0.99

Question 7 of 180

8. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

A. interference

B. diffraction

C. resolving power

D. polarization

Question 8 of 180

9. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents ‘SHM’

a) Y = sinωt - cosωt

b) Y = Sin³ ωt

c) Y = 5 cos[(3π/4) - 3ωt]

d) Y = 1 + ωt + ω²t²

1) only ‘a’ and ‘b’

2) only ‘a’

3) only ‘a’ and ‘d’

4) only ‘a’ and ‘c’

Question 9 of 180

10. Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of mass 88000 kg. The inner and outer radii of each column are 30cm and 40cm respectively. Assuming load distribution is uniform. The compressional strain of each column is (Y = 2×10¹¹ N/m² )

1) 20×10^-6

2) 1.25×1010^-6

3) 5×10^-6

4) 10×10^-6

Question 10 of 180

11. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6. The amount of water should be put inside the balloon so that it accelerates down at rate of g/6. (Assume buoyancy force remains the same)

1) m/5

2) 2m/5

3) 3m/5

4) 4m/5

Question 11 of 180

12. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease of cross sectional area by 2%. The percentage increase in its length is

1) 3%

2) 2.5%

3) 1%

4) 0.5%

Question 12 of 180

13. The plane faces of two identical plano-convex lenses each having focal length of 40cm are pressed against each other to form a usual convex lens. The distance from lens, at which an object must be placed to obtain a real, inverted image with magnification one is

1) 80cm

2) 40cm

3) 20cm

4) 162 cm

Question 13 of 180

14. A cart of mass ‘M’ is tied by one end of a massless rope of length ‘10m’. The other end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass ‘M’. The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. The man is at ‘x=o’ and the cart at ‘x=10m’ of the man pulls the cart by the rope , the man and the cart will meet at the point

1) X=0

2) x= 5 m

3) x = 10m

4) x=1.5m

Question 14 of 180

15. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

A. 40 °C

B. 80 °C

C. 313 °C

D. 586 °C

Question 15 of 180

16. A ‘2Mev’ proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ‘2.5 Tesla’. The force on the proton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10^-27 kg)

1) 3×10^-10 N

2) 8× 10^-11 N

3) 3×10^-11N

4) 8×10^-12N

Question 16 of 180

17. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 10³ kg/m³ with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are 8 × 10³ kg/m³ and 11 × 10³ kg/m³ The ratio of their radii is

1) 11/8

2) √(11/8)

3) 3/2

4) √(3/2)

Question 17 of 180

18. To charge a secondary cell, what is needed is...

A. a d.c. current

B. an a.c. current

C. fresh electrolyte

D. heating

Question 18 of 180

19. A thin ring has mass M and radius R. Its moment of inertia about the axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is...

A. MR²

B. M²R

C. M/R²

D. M²/R

Question 19 of 180

20. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates

1) OR

2) NAND

3)AND

4) NOR

Question 20 of 180

21. If for the planets in solar system, r is the radius of the orbit and T is the periodic time, then the ratio r³ /T² is...

A. 1

B. same for all planets

C. more for farther planets

D. less for farther planets

Question 21 of 180

22. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry and the solid sphere about its diameter axis. After ‘t’ sec their angular velocities are . Choose the correct answer (initial angular speed of each is 'ω₀'

1) ω₁ = ω₂

2) ω₁ < ω₂

3) ω₁ > ω₂

4) Both 2 & 3

Question 22 of 180

23. In a large building there are 15 bulbs of ‘40w’ 5 bulbs of ‘100w’. 5 fans of ‘80w’ and 1 heater of ‘1kw’ . The voltage of electric mains is ‘220 volts’.The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building will be

1) 8.5 amp

2) 10 amp

3) 11.3 amp

4) 14 amp

Question 23 of 180

24. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L.C.R series circuit used for communication

1) R = 15ΩL = 3.5H.C = 30μF

2) R = 25ΩL = 1.5H.C = 45μF

3) R = 20ΩL = 1.5H.C = 35μF

4) R = 25ΩL = 2.5H.C = 45μF

Question 24 of 180

25. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

A. frequency

B. amplitude

C. wavelength

D. both frequency and amplitude

Question 25 of 180

26. A Carnot engine operates between 800K and 200K. If it absorbs 8 kJ of heat in each cycle, the work done by it per cycle is...

A. 1 kJ

B. 2 kJ

C. 2.7 kJ

D. 6 kJ

Question 26 of 180

27. A wave represented by the given equation y = a cos(kx - ωt) is superposed with another wave to form a stationary wave such that the point x=0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is

1) y = a sin(kx + ωt)

2) y = -a cos(kx + ωt)

3) y = -a cos(kx - ωt)

4) y = -a sin(kx - ωt)

Question 27 of 180

28. A single slit of width ‘0.1mm’ is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wave length and diffraction bands are observed on a screen ‘0.5m’ from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is

1) 9mm

2) 3mm

3)4.5mm

4)1.5mm

Question 28 of 180

29. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2ev and the stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface is ‘5volt’. The incident radiation lies in

1) Infrared region

2) Visible region

3) X- ray region

4) Ultra – violet region

Question 29 of 180

30. For a projectile, its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are equal, maximum height reached by it is (‘u’ is initial velocity of the projectile)

1) u²/2g

2) 3u²/4g

3) 16u²/17g

4) 8u²/17g

Question 30 of 180

31. Gas at a pressure ‘P₀’ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their r.m.s speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

1) 4P₀

2) 2P₀

3) P₀

4) P₀/2

Question 31 of 180

32. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s² . Compared with her mass and weight on the earth, an astronaut on Mars has...

A. less mass and less weight

B. more mass and more weight

C. the same mass and less weight

D. the same mass and more weight

Question 32 of 180

33. The value of the stopping potential depends on...

A. the intensity of light

B. the frequency of light

C. the metal surface area

D. the charge on the electron

Question 33 of 180

34. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through origin. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process will be

1) 4R

2) 2.5R

3) 3R

4)4R/3

Question 34 of 180

35. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature ‘'T₁' expands according to the law (P/V) = constant expression for the workdone when its final temperature becomes 'T₂' is

1) R( T₂- T₁)

2) (R/2)( T₂- T₁)

3) (R/4)( T₂- T₁)

4) R (( T₂- (T_1/2))

Question 35 of 180

36. Magnetic moment and angular moment of revolving electron in a hydrogen atom ‘M’ and ‘L’ respectively then

1) (M/L) = (e/2m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

2) (M/L) = (e/2m);M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

3) (M/L) = (2e/m); M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

4) (M/L) = (4e/m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

Question 36 of 180

37. If the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. is V_mand maximum r.m.s. current is √ 2 ampere for an a.c. circuit with resistance R, then the value of V_min volt is equal to...

A. 2R

B. R

C. 1/R

D. √ 2/R

Question 37 of 180

38. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10^-4m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

A. 1.2 W

B. 1.4 W

C. 1.7 W

D. 12 W

Question 38 of 180

39. The image a camera forms on the film is...

A. always real

B. always virtual

C. always erect

D. sometimes inverted

Question 39 of 180

40. A projectile is thrown in the direction making an angle θ with the horizontal. The projectile attains maximum height for θ equal to...

A. 0

B. π/4

C. π/2

D. π

Question 40 of 180

41. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index

1) Lies between √2 and 1

2) Lies between 2and √2

3) Is less than 1

4) Is grater 2

Question 41 of 180

42. In the figure shown a source of sound of frequency 510 Hz move with constant velocity V_s=20 m/ s in the direction shown. The wind is blowing at a constant velocity V_w=20 m/S towards an observer who is at rest at point B. Corresponding to the sound emitted by the source in initial position A, the frequency detected by the observer is equal to (speed of sound relative to air = 330 m/s)

1) 510 Hz

2) 500 Hz

3) 525 Hz

4) 550 Hz

Question 42 of 180

43. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

1) A meter scale

2) A vernier callipers where the ‘10’ divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in ‘1 cm’

3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

Question 43 of 180

44. A source and Listner both moving towards each other each with speed .frequency of the note emitted by the source is ‘600Hz’ Apparent wave length of sound wave received by the observer is ( V = 330 m/ sec)

1) 0.5m

2) 0.45m

3)0.1m

4) 0.6m

Question 44 of 180

45. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

1) The kinetic energy of α-particle is zero

2) The kinetic energy of daughter nucleus is always less than kinetic energy of α-particle

3) The magnitude of linear momentum of α-particle and daughter nucleus are not equal

4) The daughter nucleus is always stable

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. The correct sequence of electron acceptors in respiratory electron transport is

1) Cyt a, a3, c

2) cyt b, c, a, a3

3) cyt c, b, a, a3

4) Cyt a3, c, b, a

Question 46 of 180

47. Main function of centromere is

1) Chromosome splitting

2) to help in migration of chromosomes to the poles

3) Crossing over

4) Cytokinesis

Question 47 of 180

48. Bacteria differ from cyanobacteria by which of the following features?

i) Absence of flagella and fimbriae

ii) dsDNA without attached histones

iii) Anoxygenic photosynthesis

iv) Stored food as glycogen

v) Absence of N₂ Fixing cells like heterocysts

1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

2) (ii), (iv) and (v)

3)(iii), (iv) and (v)

4) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

Question 48 of 180

49. Apple, Custard apple, Pine apple and thorn apple are

1) Parthenocarp, Pseudocarp, Baccate fruit, Schizocarp

2) Pseudocarp, Etaerio of berries, Composite fruit and true fruit

3) Simple fruit, Aggregate fruit, False fruit and multiple fruit

4) Amphisarca, Balausta, Cypsela and Drupe

Question 49 of 180

50. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

1) Independent sporophyte

2) Presence of archegonia

3) Well developed vascular tissues

4) Independent gametophyte

Question 50 of 180

51. Different types of plastids (chloroplast, chromoplast and leucoplast) are quite related as:

1) These all store lipids and starch

2) These are restricted to the green parts of a plant

3) These al perform almost same function

4) These are interconvertible depending upon the requirement of an organ

Question 51 of 180

52. How many plants among the following have opposite phyllotaxy. China rose, Sun flower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium?

1) Two

2) Three

3) Four

4) Five

Question 52 of 180

53. Match the items of Column-I with those in Column-II
A B C D E

1) R P T S Q

2) Q P S R T

3) S P Q T R

4) P T R Q S

Question 53 of 180

54. DNA polymerase enzyme used in PCR technique is isolated from

1) Thermus aquaticus

2) E. coli

3) Salmonella typhimurium

4) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 54 of 180

55. A cell is kept in hypotonic solution, after sometime is

1) OP ↓ and Ψ_S ↑

2) Ψ_W↑ and DPD ↓

3) Ψ_P and TP both ↑

4) all of the above

Question 55 of 180

56. Which one among the following represents the correct method of replication of DNA

Question 56 of 180

57. Find out mismatch

1) Mg – Macromineral element

2) Mn – Micromineral element

3) B – Macromineral element

4) Ni – Recently discovered trace element

Question 57 of 180

58. The probabilities of homozygous tall, heterozygous tall, and homozygous dwarf plants in F2 generation of a monohybrid cross respectively, is

1) 1/4, 1/2, 1/4

2) 1/2, 1/4, 1/2

3) 1/2, 1/4, 1/4

4) 1/4, 1/4, 1/2

Question 58 of 180

59. Colchicine is an alkaloid used to double the number of chromosomes (Polyplody). It is obtained from

1) Rhizome of colchicum autumnale

2) Corms of C. autumnale

3) Bulbs of C. autumnale

4) Root tubers of C. autumnale

Question 59 of 180

60. Which of the following is a correct sequence during life cycle of angiosperm for the following terms/ events?

A.Pollen grain

B. Sporogenous tissue

C.Microspore tetrad

D.PMC

E.Male gamete

1) B→D→C→A→E

2) B→C→D→A→E

3) C→B→D→A→E

4) C→D→B→A→E

Question 60 of 180

61. The assemblage of all the population of different species that function as an integrated unit through coevolved metabolic transformation in a specific area is called

1) biome

2) biotic community

3) population

4) ecosystem

Question 61 of 180

62. An abnormality in humans called ‘Sickle cell anemia’ is resulted due to point mutation leading to the change of

1) Glutamate in to valine

2) Valine into glutamate

3)Alamine into Senine

4) Glycine into valine

Question 62 of 180

63. S-I : Virus resistant plants can be recovered from virus infected plants in Potato and Banana by shoot apex culture

S-II : Pollen culture involving colchicine treatment always results in the production of male homozygous diploid plants only.

1) S-I is true and S-II is false

2) S-I is false and S-II is true

3) S-I and S-II are false

4) S-I and S-II are true

Question 63 of 180

64. Choose correct option for A,B,C and D of a dicot embryo

1) A-Hypocotyl; B-Cotyledons; C-Root cap; D-Radicle

2) A- Cotyledons; B- Hypocotyl; C- Root cap; D-Radicle

3) A- Cotyledons ;B- Hypocotyl;C- Radicle ;D- Root cap

4) A- Cotyledons; B- Radicle; C- Hypocotyl; D- Root cap

Question 64 of 180

65. A,B,C and D lies on same chromosome with given distances between them, as

AD=60 morgan, AB-38 morgan, DB=22 morgan and

AC=18 morgan. Find the sequence of four genes on the chromosome

1) A,C,B and D

2) C,A,B and D

3) D,B,A and C

4) any of these

Question 65 of 180

66. Identify the set of plants without archegonia

1) Chara, Cladophora, Capsicum and Colchicum

2) Marchantia, Marselia, Cycas and Pinus

3) Riccia, Pteris, Polytrichum, Cycas

4) Sphagnum, Adiantum, Salvinia, Ginkgo

Question 66 of 180

67. Identify the non-suberised loosely arranged cells for gaseous exchange in the given diagram

1) C

2) B

3) A

4) D

Question 67 of 180

68. Which of the following statement is wrong?

1) Uracil is a pyrimidine

2) Sucrose is a disaccharide

3) Cellulose is a homopolysaccharide

4) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid

Question 68 of 180

69. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

1) Breast cancer

2) ADA deficiency

3) Meningitis

4) Chicken Pox

Question 69 of 180

70. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option

Column – I Column - II

Ascomycetes i) Ustilago
Phycomycetes ii) Saccharomyces
Basidionycetes iii) trichoderma
Deuteromycetes iv) Albugo

1) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

3) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

4) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)

Question 70 of 180

71. 1/4 TT : 1/2 Tt : 1/4 tt is the binomial expansion of

1) [(1/2)T + (1/2)t]²

2) [(1/4)T + (1/4)t]²

3) [(1/4)T + (1/2)t]²

4) [(1/2)T + (1/4)t]²

Question 71 of 180

72. Wall less protistans among the following are

1) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella

2) Paramoecium & Amoeba

3) Nostoc & Anabaena

4) Diatoms & Dinoflagellates

Question 72 of 180

73. Which of the following is true w.r.t. grafting

1) Very commonly practiced in monocot plants

2) In air layering i.e. one typed grafting uses auxin to induce rooting

3) Stock is shoot piece which is used in grafting

4) New plant produced after grafting produces fruits similar to scion source

Question 73 of 180

74. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon compound by a reaction between

1) Succinic acid and pyruvic acid

2) Malic acid and Acetyl CO-A

3) Fumaric acid and pyruvic acid

4) OAA and Acetyl CO-A

Question 74 of 180

75. Select the correct combination of the statements (i-iv) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms

i) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas

ii) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen

iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesise cellulose from glucose

iv) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.

1) (ii) and (iii)

2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

3)(ii), (iii) and (iv)

4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 75 of 180

76. Which one of the following statements regarding enzymes is wrong

1) Most enzymes are non-proteins but some are ribozymes

2) Enzymes require optimum temperature for maximum activity

3) Majority of the enzymes function well at neutral pH

4) Enzymes are active in minute concentration also

Question 76 of 180

77. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M-phase, what will be the content of DNA at G1 phase chromosome and S - phase chromosome of mitosis?

1) 2C & 4C

2) 4C & 4C

3) 4C & 2C

4) 2C & 3C

Question 77 of 180

78. Which of the following is a heterosporus fern

1) Salvinia

2) Selaginella

3) Dryopteris

4) Lycopodium

Question 78 of 180

79. Who of the following scientists is not concerned with O2 release from water in photosynthesis?

1) Julius von Sachs

2) Van Neil

3) Robert Hill

4) T.W. Engelman

Question 79 of 180

80. How many chromosomes will be found in a cell at anaphase –II having 2n = 50 ?

1) 50

2) 40

3) 100

4) 25

Question 80 of 180

81. Number of genotypes present in yellow round, yellow wrinkled, green round and green wrinkled phenotypes of 2F generation progeny of Mendel’s dihybrid cross respectively is

1) 1, 2, 2, 4

2) 4, 1, 2, 2

3) 2, 1, 2, 4

4) 4, 2, 2, 1

Question 81 of 180

82. Read carefully the table and fill up the blanks;

A,B,C and D in the above table refer to

1) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Starch and Laminarin; C-Cellulose; D-2-10 equal apical

2) A-chlorophyll-a and c; B-Mannitol and starch; C-Cellulose & algin, D-2-8 equal lateral

3) A-chlorophyll-a and b; B-Floridean starch; C-Cellulose & algin; D-Not present

4) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Mannitol and floridean; C-Cellulose; starch; D-Not present

Question 82 of 180

83. Which of the following is true statement

1) Pribnow box lies in mRNA in upstream stream sequence.

2) In clover leaf model of tRNA, amino acid is attached to 5’ by ester bond, if it is a charged one

3) Translation is initiated by factor, formed of -chain, of RNA polymerase enzyme

4) Sn RNA, 5S RNA and tRNA are transcribed with the help of RNA polymerase lll in eukaryotes

Question 83 of 180

84. Ability of sigma to recognise the pollen whether it is of right type or the wrong type

1) Starts by a chemical dialogue between pollen and stigma

2) Can occur even inside the styler canal when pollen tube growth is inhibited

3) Is called pollen-pistil interaction

4) All are correct

Question 84 of 180

85. In dicot roots, the pericycle gives rise to

1) Lateral roots and a part of vascular cambium

2) Cortex and pith

3) Xylem and Phloem

4) Epidermis and vascular bundles

Question 85 of 180

86. Study the following diagrams and identify the option containing correct set answers

1) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Cladophora

2) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Fucus

3) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Homo sapiens

4) A- Male gamete, B-Female gamete of Fucus

Question 86 of 180

87. Fuel of photosynthetic carbon oxidation, is

1) Glycerate

2) Glycolate

3) Glyceride

4) Glyoxylate

Question 87 of 180

88.

Select the correct match
Column – I Column – II

A. Terminalisation I. Pachytene

B. Synapsis II. Anaphase II

C. Disjunction III. Zygotene

D. Recombinations IV. Anaphase I

V. Diakinesis
A B C D

1) III V IV II

2) V III II I

3) V III IV I

4) III IV II V

Question 88 of 180

89. Match the following
Column-I (Tissues) Column-II (Product of)
1) Julius Von Sachs A) Polynucleotide Phosphorylase
2) Hershy and Chase B) Chromosome maps
3) A. Sturtevant C) Hydrophonics
4) Severo Ochoa enzyme D) Genetic nature of DNA

1) C-1,A-2,B-3,D-4

2) A-1,C-2,B-3,D-4

3) D-1,C-2,A-3,B-4

4) C-1,D-2,B-3,A-4

Question 89 of 180

90. The fruit of Annona squamosa (custard apple) develops from

1) polycarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

2) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary and thalamus

3) single ovary

4) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. Observe the relaxed myocyte’s myofibril

Which of the following muscles have those traits?

a) Lateral rectus muscle

b) Iris muscles

c) Ciliary muscles

d) Sartorius muscle

1) a and c

2) b only

3) a, b and d

4)a and d

Question 91 of 180

92. Which is correctly labeled with respect to the given diagram?

1) B : Logistic curve

2) C: Carrying capacity

3) C: Exponential curve

4) A : Carrying capacity

Question 92 of 180

93. The embryonic membrane involved in the formation of placenta in human is

1) yolk sac

2) umbilical cord

3) amnion

4) chorion

Question 93 of 180

94. In present times the origin of life is not possible from inorganic compounds due to

1) Raw material not available

2) High O2 in atmosphere

3) Decrease in temperature

4) Excess of pollution

Question 94 of 180

95. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A) Thomas Malthus I) Branching descent
B) Hugo de Vries II) Studies on populations
C) Charles Darwin III) Use disuse principle
D) Lamarck IV) Saltation

1) A-IV B-I C-III D-II

2) A-II B-IV C-I D-III

3) A-II B-IV C-III D-I

4) A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Question 95 of 180

96. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?

1) Haemocytes

2) Serum albumins

3) Serum globulins

4) Fibrinogen in the plasma

Question 96 of 180

97. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

1) Calciferol – Pellagra

2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

4) Cobalamin – Beriberi

Question 97 of 180

98. Find the incorrect match

1) Colostrum – IgA antibodies

2) Recombinant DNA – Hepatitis Bvaccine technology produced fromyeast

3) Allergy – Release of chemicals likehistamine and serotonin from themast cells

4) Autoimmune – Adrenaline disease

Question 98 of 180

99. What is common to whale, seal and shark?

1) Homoiothermy

2) Seasonal migration

3) Thick subcutaneous fat

4) Convergent evolution

Question 99 of 180

100. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is

1) corona radiate, zona pellucid and vitelline membrane

2) zona pellucid, corona radiate and vitelline membrane

3) vitelline membrane, zona pellucid and corona radiate

4) zona pellucid, vitelline membrane and corona radiate

Question 100 of 180

101. All of the following are functions of catecholamines, except

1) Pupilary dilation

2) Piloerection

3) Tachycardia

4) Lipogenesis

Question 101 of 180

102. A sensitized Rh --ve woman gives birth dizygotic twins with different Rh phenotypes then

1) Type II hyper sensitivity reaction is seen in both the off springs

2) IgG after transplacental migration cause HDNB in both

3) Erythroblastosis foetalis is in off spring with dominant allele

4) Both off springs remain unaffected

Question 102 of 180

103. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?

1) Ventral heart→Scorpion

2) Post-anal tail→Octopus

3) Ventral central nervous system→Leech

4) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo→Chamaeleon

Question 103 of 180

104. The diagram shows a section through an alveolus and ablood capillary What are the oxygen concentrations at A,B and C?

A B C

1) Low High Low

2) Low High High

3) High Low Low

4) High Low High

Question 104 of 180

105. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

1) lower levels of adrenalin/noradrenalin in its blood

2) higher levels of thyroxin

3) higher levels of cortisone

4) lower levels of blood testosterone

Question 105 of 180

106. A 26 years old female has 2 offsprings(NOTE:not twins). If menses start at the age of 12 years then the number of ova formed are

1) 270

2) 2

3) 288

4) 8

Question 106 of 180

107. Function of thyrocalcitonin

1) To reduce the calcium level inblood

2) To increase the calcium level inblood

3) Oppose the action of thyroxine

4) Maturation of gonads

Question 107 of 180

108. A tumour in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the hormones in that region. Which of the following you might expect to find in a patient with such a tumour?

1) Increased blood sodium levels

2) Increased blood glucose levels

3) Decreased blood calcium levels

4) Increased dehydration

Question 108 of 180

109. Which of the following is correct match w.r.t. human ancestor, its cranial capacity and certain feature?

1) Australopithecus 500 CC: Hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit

2) Homo habilis 650-800 CC: First human like being the hominid. They probably ate meat

3) Homo erectus 900 CC: Probably did not ate meat

4) More than one option is correct

Question 109 of 180

110. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the outer side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

1) First positive, then negative and again back to positive

2) First negative, then positive and again back to negative

3) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative

4) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive

Question 110 of 180

111. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 111 of 180

112. Which of the following statements correctly defines the phenomenon of genetic drift?
I. Random change in gene allele frequency
II. Occur by chance
III. It is directional
IV. Causes elimination of certain alleles
V. Causes fixation of alleles
The correct combination is

1) I, II and III

2) III, IV and V

3) I, III and V

4) I, II, IV and V

Question 112 of 180

113. The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic process. On this basis fill up A and B boxes in the given diagram with correct options

1) A = Natality + Immigration, B = Mortality + Emigration

2) A = Natality + Mortality, B = Immigration + Emigration

3) A = Birth rate + Death rate, B = Migration + Emigration

4) A = Natality + Emigration, B = Mortality + Immigration

Question 113 of 180

114. Which one of the following hormone is derived from an Amino acid which the human beings are incapable of synthesizing

1) Glutamic acid

2) Dopamine

3) Adrenaline

4) Melatonin

Question 114 of 180

115. Which of the following statements about blood transfusion is correct

1) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-B.

2) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B and receive from group-AB

3) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-O and receive from group-B

4) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-AB

Question 115 of 180

116. The diagram shows an antibody molecule. Identify A to F.

1) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

2) A-Antigen binding site; B-Constant region (of L-Chain); C-Variable region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain(L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

3) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Heavy polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Light polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

4) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

Question 116 of 180

117. In the resting muscle fiber, tropomyosin partially covers

1) calcium binding sites on troponin

2) actin binding sites on myosin

3) myosin binding sites on actin

4) calcium binding sites on actin

Question 117 of 180

118. Amniocentesis is a technique

1) by which the essential amino acids in the body can be estimated

2) by which any chromosomal anomalies in the foetus can be detected

3) in which the sex of the foetus can be reversed

4) that can be used for correcting genetic disorders of the foetus

Question 118 of 180

119. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

1) Temperate deciduous forest

2) Tropical rain forest

3) Tropical deciduous forest

4) Temperate evergreen forest

Question 119 of 180

120. Olfactory bulbs are extensions of

1) Lymphatic system

2) Limbic system

3) Diencephalon

4) Mesencephalon

Question 120 of 180

121. When Glomerular filtrate is passing through PCT which of the following Biomolecule’s selective reabsorption is 100% into PTC

B1)Creatinine B2) Glucose

B3) Amino Acids B4) Potassium

1)B2-B3

2)B1

3) B2-B3-B1

4) All except B2

Question 121 of 180

122. Consider the following diagrammatic representation of the sectional view of cochlea with certain labeled parts A,B,C and D. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t labeled part and its identification/description.

1) A – Scala media-Contains endolymph

2) B- Tectorial membrane – Vibrates and sends Sensory impulses to auditory area of brain

3) C- Scala vestibuli – Contains perilymph

4) D-Basilar membrane-Organ of Corti rest upon it

Question 122 of 180

123. Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during spermatogenesis, some sperms carry both sex
chromosomes (22A + XY) and some sperms do not carry any sex chromosome (22A + O). If these sperms fertilise normal eggs (22A + X), what types of genetic disorders appear among the offsprings?

1) Klinefelter’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

2) Down’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome

3) Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

4) Down’s syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome

Question 123 of 180

124. In cockroach the flow of haemolymph is

1) heart → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral sinus → pericardial sinus → ostia → heart

2) heart → pericardial sinus → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral sinus → ostia → heart

3) heart → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral sinus → ostia → pericardial sinus → heart

4) heart → ostia → perivisceral sinus → pericardial sinus → head → perineural sinus → heart

Question 124 of 180

125. Nephrostome occurs in

1) septal nephridia

2) integumentary nephridia

3) pharyngeal and septal nephridia

4) pharyngeal and integumentary nephridia

Question 125 of 180

126. The stage of suspended development shown by zooplanktons is called

1) desiccation

2) diapause

3) hibernation

4) aestivation

Question 126 of 180

127. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovolution?

1) Vitelline membrane

2) Graafian follicle

3) Stroma

4) Germinal epithelium

Question 127 of 180

128. Hyperdactyly (the possession of more than 12 fingers) is determined by the dominant allele (H) and normal condition by recessive allele (h).

The diagram shown a family tree in which some members of the family are hyperdactylus
Find out the genotype of A, B and C

1) A-Hh, B-Hh, C-hh

2) A-HH, B-Hh, C-hh

3) A-Hh, B-HH, C-hh

4) A-HH, B-HH, C-hh

Question 128 of 180

129. The area where wild populations, traditional life styles and genetic resources are protected is

1) Core zone

2) Buffer zone

3) Biosphere reserve

4) Manipulation zone

Question 129 of 180

130. Select the correct statement from the following

1) Mutations are random and directional

2) Darwinian variations are small and directionless

3) Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution

4) Darwin believed that it is mutation which causes evolution

Question 130 of 180

131. Milk of first transgenic cow Rosie consists

1) alpha lactalbumin

2) alpha-1 antitrypsin

3) alpha amylase

4) alpha polypeptide

Question 131 of 180

132. Which of the following statements are false/true?
I. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium level
II. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth.
III. Grave’s disease is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal cortex
IV. ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine output.

1) I and III are true; II and IV are false

2) I and II are true; III and IV are false

3) II and III are true; I and IV are false

4) I, II and III are true; IV only false

Question 132 of 180

133. If a female having gene for haemophilia and colour blindness on its one chromosome marries a normal male, then what are the chances in their offspring

1) 50% son are diseased and 50%are normal

2) All normal offspring

3) 100% daughters are carrier

4) 100% son are diseased

Question 133 of 180

134. Alienate the number of incorrect statement(s)

S1: Laccifer lacks circulatory system.

S2: Neries have nephridia but no nephrons

S3: Silver fish is Non-operculate marine fish

S4: Neophron has both neurons and nephrons

1) Two

2) Three

3) One

4) Four

Question 134 of 180

135. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?
Examples Type of immunity
1) Polymorphonuclear

leucocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers
2) anti-tetanus and anti-snake

bite injections Active immunity
3) Saliva in mouth and

tears in eyes Physical barriers
4) mucous coating of epithelium lining Physiological barriers
the urinogenital tract and the HCl in stomach

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. The plots of 1/ X_AVs 1/Y_A( where X_A and Y_Aare the mole fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercepts respectively

Question 136 of 180

137. Xe has max. EN in:-

1) XeF₂

2) XeF₄

3) XeO₄

4) XeOF₂

Question 137 of 180

138. V1 ml of 3M HCl solution is mixed with V₂ml of 3M H₂SO₄to from a solution in which molarity of H+ ions is 5M, then the relation between V₁and V₂is

1) V₁= V₂

2) V₂=2V₁

3) 3V₁= V₂

4) 2V₂= V₁

Question 138 of 180

139. If lone pair of electron occupy axial position then, incorrect about is :

1) It is a planar molecule

2) It has T-shape

3) All bond lengths are equal

4) repulsion will be minimum

Question 139 of 180

140. The pH of a solution of H₂O₂is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

1) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0

2) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant solution

3) The pH of resultant solution becomes less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated

4) Cl₂O is formed in the resultant solution

Question 140 of 180

141. Which of the following organ metallic compound is σ and π
bonded?

1) [ Fe(η⁵-C₂H5)₂]

2) [ PtCl3 (η2 -C2H₄ ) ]

3) [ Co(Co)5 NH₃ ]⁺²

4) All the above

Question 141 of 180

142. Number of stereoisomers of the given compound

1) 2

2)3

3)4

4)6

Question 142 of 180

143. An oxide of Nitrogen which form reddish brown fumes in air is

1) N₂O

2) NO₂

3) NO

4) N₂O₃

Question 143 of 180

144. The pH of a solution of H₂O₂is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

1) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0

2) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant solution

3) The pH of resultant solution becomes less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated

4) Cl₂O is formed in the resultant solution

Question 144 of 180

145.

Number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain

1) 7

2) 4

3)6

4)5

Question 145 of 180

146. Which of the following is incorrect for the indicated property

1) Beo < Mgo (Basic strength)

2) SO2> SeO2> TeO2 (Acidic strength)

3) Nacl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl (Melting point)

4) BaSO4> SrSO4> CaSO4>MgSO4> BeSO4 (Solubility)

Question 146 of 180

147.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

1) formation of Y is a syn addition

2)during the formation of X, the intermediate is a carbocation

3) X is a positional isomer of Y

4) formation of Y follows markonikov's rule

Question 147 of 180

148. The most volatile alkane is

1) n – pentane

2) isopentane

3) neopentane

4) n–hexane

Question 148 of 180

149. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

1) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]

2) [ Acid ] × 10⁵ = [conjugatebase]

3) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]× 10⁵

4) [ Acid ] = 2[conjugatebase]

Question 149 of 180

150. The number of carbon atoms per unitcell of diamond unitcell is

1) 8

2) 6

3) 1

4) 4

Question 150 of 180

151. A and B are compounds of sodium. ‘A’ is thermally stable. On passing CO₂through aq. solution
‘A’, ‘B’ is formed. ‘B’ on heating gives ‘A’. Phenolpthalein is added to aqueous solutions of A, B.
The colours are

1) colourless, colourless

2) pink, pink

3) colourless, pink

4) pink, colourless

Question 151 of 180

152. For one mole of a vanderwaal’s gaswhen b=0 and T=300K, the PV vs1/V plot is shown below. The value of vander waal’s constant ‘a’ in atm.lit² mole^-2is (graph not to scale)

1) 1.0

2)4.5

3) 1.5

4) 3.0

Question 152 of 180

153.

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

1) 4 : 5

2) 5 : 4

3) 1 : 1

4) 2 : 3

Question 153 of 180

154. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 154 of 180

155. DNA & RNA are chiral molecules due to the presence of

1) Chiral bases

2) Phosphate ester unit

3) D- sugar component

4) L – sugar component

Question 155 of 180

156. The conductivity of saturated solution of BaSO₄is 3.06×10^-6 mho cm^-1and its equivalent conductance is 1.53 mho cm^-2 eq^-1. Then K_sp for BaSO₄ will be

1) 4×10^-12M

2) 1×10⁶M

3) 4×10⁶M²

4) 1×10^-6M²

Question 156 of 180

157. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form ‘A’ . ‘A’ is dissolved in water to give ‘Y’. The basicity of ‘Y’ is

1) 1

2) 2

3) 0

4) 3

Question 157 of 180

158. Assertion: Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
Reason: ΔH_f⁰ of graphite is taken as zero

1) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2) Both assertion and reason are correct reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion.

3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.

4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

Question 158 of 180

159. Which of the substances added to soap make it antiseptic?

1) Iodine

2) KMnO4

3) Bithional

4) Cl2

Question 159 of 180

160. Incorrect statement among the following is

1) Pure CO is prepared bydehydration of formic acid with conc. H₂S4

2) Commercially CO is prepared byassing steam over red hot coke

3) CO is a powerful reducing agentand reduces almost all metal oxidesother than IA, IIA group elements,Al etc...

4) CO is a Lewis acid

Question 160 of 180

161. In Kjeldahl ‘s method, the nitrogen gas evolved from 1.325 g sample of a fertilizer is passed into 50.0 mL of 0.2030 N H₂SO₄mL of 0.1980 N NaOH are required for the titration of unused acid. The percentage of nitrogen in fertilizer is

1) 10.86%

2) 21.72 %

3) 5.43 %

4) 2.75 %

Question 161 of 180

162. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption.

Question 162 of 180

163. When H₂S is passed through acidified KMnO₄ we get

1) K₂ SO₃

2) MnO₂

3) KHSO₃

4) Sulphur

Question 163 of 180

164. Which of the following is used as “morning after pill”?

1) Ethynyl estradiol

2) Mifepristone

3) Norethindrone

4) Promethazine

Question 164 of 180

165. The correct statement/s about H₂ S₂ O₇ is/are

1) It is called peroxydisulphuric acid

2) It is contains one O-O bond in its molecule

3) It is obtained by dissolution of SO3 in conc. H₂ SO₄

4) Both (2) & (3)

Question 165 of 180

166. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

1) (CH3)3N

2) (SiH3)3N

3) XeF2

4) SF₄

Question 166 of 180

167. The standard reduction potential for Cu⁺²/ Cu  is +0.34V.Calculate the reduction potential at pH=14
for the above couple. ^K_s_pof Cu(OH)₂= 1.0×10^-19

1) +0.2205V

2) +0.386V

3) -0.2205V

4) -0.386V

Question 167 of 180

168. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M-O-H and M¹-O-H have been prepared in two different
beakers. If the electronegativity of M=3.5, M¹=0.9, O=3.5 and H=2.1, then the solutions respectively are

1) acidic, acidic

2) acidic, basic

3) basic, basic

4) basic, acidic

Question 168 of 180

169. The shortest wavelength of He⁺ ion in Balmer series is x, then longest wavelength in the paschen series of Li²⁺is

1) 36x/5

2) 16x/7

3) 9x/5

4) 5x/5

Question 169 of 180

170. Method which is based on difference in solubility of impurities in molted metal and solid state
of metal is

1) Parke’s process

2) bessemerisation

3) zone refining

4) electrolytic refining

Question 170 of 180

171.

1) Glyptal

2) Dacron

3) Nylon-6,6

4) Nylon-6

Question 171 of 180

172. For decolourization of one mole of KMnO₄ the required litre of 30 volume H₂O₂ in acidified medium is

1) 0.94

2) 9.4

3) 0.094

4) 3.01

Question 172 of 180

173. Which property is common in diamond and graphite

1) Electrical conductivity

2) Crystal structure

3) Relative atomic mass

4) Density

Question 173 of 180

174. 100ml of O ₂on partial ozonisation, O₂and O₃are obtained in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 what % of O₂is converted into ozone

1) 60%

2) 50%

3) 40%

4) 57%

Question 174 of 180

175. What will be the equivalent weight of H₃PO₃ in the following reaction. 4H₃PO₃ → 3H₃PO₄+PH₃

1) M/6

2) 2M/3

3) M/12

4) M/2

Question 175 of 180

176. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C₆H₅CO NH₂ II) Pyridine
III) C₆H₅-N=N-C₆H₅

1) I,III

2) II,III

3) III,IV

4) I,II

Question 176 of 180

177. The equivalent weight of HCl in the given reaction is
KCr₂O₇ +14 HCl -->2KCl + 2CrCl₃ +3Cl₂ +H₂O

1) 16.25

2) 36.5

3) 73

4) 85.1

Question 177 of 180

178. A solution ‘X’ contains 30 mole percent of A and is in equilibrium with its vapour that contains 40 mole percent of ‘B’. The ratio of vapor pressure of pure A and B will be:

1) 2 : 1

2) 7 : 2

3) 3 : 4

4) 4 : 3

Question 178 of 180

179. 20g of naphthoic acid (C₁₁H₈O₂) is dissolved in 50g of benzene, then freezing point depression of 2K is observed for solution. The vant hoff factor will be ( K_f for benzene=1.72 Kg Mol^-1)

1) 0.75

2) 2

3) 0.5

4) 3

Question 179 of 180

180. The correct order of E⁰_M⁺²_/Mvalues with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr,Mn,Fe and Co is

1) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co

2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co

3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co

4) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co

Question 180 of 180

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