Removal of interview marks for Group – 1 and Group – 2 Exams

The state government, which has suspended interviews in government job placements, hopes to reduce the marks in exams as well. So far, all the papers have the maximum marks combined with the interview marks. Earlier, only the total marks of the written test will be the maximum marks. In this order the Group‌ – 1 exam will be for a total of 900 marks and the Group‌ – 2 exam will be for a total of 600 marks. To this extent the recruitment agencies have almost brought the process of examination process to a halt.

Written test basis
Interviews for Group-1, Group-2 scales, Medical Officer in Medical Institutions, and direct appointments at the post level, and Demo Round for teaching posts in Gurukul Educational Institutions have so far been crucial. The government has decided to cancel these appointments on the basis of written tests to avoid delays in appointments and to avoid any room for manipulation. Recruitment agencies are focusing on changes in the examination system for the respective jobs. They suggested that it would be better to cancel the interviews as well as remove the marks related to them. A final decision on this is yet to be made.

Decreasing marks
► Previously the Group‌ – 1 examination was conducted for a total of 1000 marks. There were various written tests for 900 marks and 100 marks for the interview. The Group‌ – 2 exam was conducted for 675 marks. 75 marks were for interviews. Now if the marks of the interviews are removed .. Group‌ – 1 examination can be conducted for 900 marks and Group‌ – 2 examination for 600 marks.
► Currently there is a demo (direct teaching test) along with written tests for PGT, Junior Lecturer, Degree Lecturer appointments in Gurukul educational institutions. Officials hope the demo policy will be scrapped as the government removes interviews for groups‌ exams.
► Candidates for some posts in the medical department have so far been selected only through interviews. This time the board is working on a special operation for the appointments of the respective posts.

There are no changes in the syllabus!
Changes in the examination procedure were inevitable with the cancellation of interviews in job placements. Recruitment agencies, however, feel that changes in the examination syllabus are not necessary. However as the interviews have been deleted .. there is also a proposal to include items related to the respective abilities in the written test.

Andhra Pradesh TET English Content Paper 1 Model Questions with Answers

Following is the comprehension passage for APTET English Content Paper 1. Model passage along with questions and answers are given below.

APTET Passage

Answer the following questions by picking up the appropriate answers from those given under for each of the questions.

1. The Student Services Office familiarises students with the student code.
A) True B) False C) Not given
D) Insufficient information to predict

2. According to the text, cheating is a more serious offence than plagiarism.
A) True B) False C) Not given
D) Insufficient information to predict

3. Students can submit the same work in different courses as long as they ask their lecturer and it is not their own.
A) True B) False C) Not given
D) Insufficient information to predict

4. If students want to use other students’ laboratory data, they must ask them and the lecturer first.
A) True B) False C) Not given
D) Insufficient information to predict

5. Cheats will automatically be expelled because their behaviour cannot be condoned.
A) True B) False C) Not given
D) Insufficient information to predict

6. Your son, I think, is cut out ………… a police job.
Choose the appropriate preposition to fill in the blank.
A) to B) for C) into D) with

7. I first met him ………… year ago.
Select the suitable article to fill in the blank, if necessary.
A) a B) an C) the D) zero article

8. Fifty thousand rupees ………… too much for Neetu’s ear rings.
Choose the correct verb for the above sentence.
A) is B) are C) have D) None of the above

9. We should not speak ill of the dead.
Locate the part of speech of the underlined word in the above sentence
A) adverb B) verb C) adjective D) None of the above

10. council Classify the above noun.
A) proper noun B) common noun
C) collective noun D) None of the above

11. ‘I am doing the gardening’, said he Trace the reported
speech version of the above sentence.
A) He said that he is doing the gardening.
B) He said that he was doing the gardening.
C) He said that he had been doing the gardening.
D) None of the above

12. No one knows her. Find the complex sentence form of the
above sentence.
A) She is not known to anyone.
B) No one knows who she is.
C) What is not known is she.
D) It is she yet no one knows her.

13. Wordsworth is not the most popular of all poets.
The Positive Degree description of the above sentence is ………..
A) Some poets are at least as popular as Wordsworth.
B) Wordsworth is not more popular than some other poets.
C) Very few poets are not as popular as Wordsworth.
D) No other poet is not as popular as Wordsworth.

14. Don’t stop singing, …………? Add the appropriate question tag.
A) will you? B) won’t you? C) do you? D) don’t you?

15. The performer is less important than the action. The meaning of the underlined word in the context could be ………..
A) not as much of B) more
C) little D) with a reduction of

16. REGULAR Find the synonym.
A) punctual B) constant C) permanent D) none of the above

17. FACT Find the antonym.
A) fabrication B) expectation C) imagination D) fiction

18. Pronouns stand for nouns. What does the underlined part mean here?
A) support B) move C) reinstate D) symbolize

19. Darjeeling grows tea.
Pick out the correct voice transformation of the above sentence.
A) Tea is being grown in Darjeeling.
B) Let the tea be grown in Darjeeling.
C) Tea is grown in Darjeeling.
D) Tea grows in Darjeeling.

20. What kind of ………… man is he?
Choose the best option for the above sentence.
A) No article is required.
B) Use of an article is discretionary in the case.
C) article ‘an’ can be used.
D) article ‘the’ is mandatory.

21. Bring me milk.
Select the best out of the four answer choices.
A) The sentence has a transitive verb with two objects.
B) The sentence has factitive verb with one object and one complement.
C) The sentence has an intransitive verb and has no object.
D) None of these is correct.

22. In writing a letter, he made many mistakes.
Label the underlined word.
A) Gerund B) Verbal Noun C) Present Participle D) Perfect Gerund

23. Life is a dream. The above expression is an example of
A) Idiom B) Phrase C) Figure of Speech D) Subordinate Clause

24. Which of the following is correct in its spelling?
A) satellite B) sattelite C) satelite D) sattellite

ANSWERS: 1)B 2)C 3)B 4)B 5)B 6)B 7)A 8) A 9)A 10)C 11)B 12)B 13)A 14)A 15)A 16)A 17)D 18)D 19)C 20) A 21)A 22)A 23)C 24)A.

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