NEET Free Mock Test 2 – india vidya

NEET examination is one of the toughest exams in the country. NEET is aimed at selecting candidates for medical courses across the country. The exam consists of 180 questions for 720 marks. Each question carries 4 marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark. Duration of the exam is 180 minutes.

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

1) 0.25

2) 0.5

3) 0.75

4) 0.99

Question 1 of 180

2. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2ev and the stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface is ‘5volt’. The incident radiation lies in

1) Infrared region

2) Visible region

3) X- ray region

4) Ultra – violet region

Question 2 of 180

3. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10^-4m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

A. 1.2 W

B. 1.4 W

C. 1.7 W

D. 12 W

Question 3 of 180

4. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 4 of 180

5. A cart of mass ‘M’ is tied by one end of a massless rope of length ‘10m’. The other end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass ‘M’. The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. The man is at ‘x=o’ and the cart at ‘x=10m’ of the man pulls the cart by the rope , the man and the cart will meet at the point

1) X=0

2) x= 5 m

3) x = 10m

4) x=1.5m

Question 5 of 180

6. A sonometer wire resonate with a given tuning fork forming standing wave with five antinode between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of M is

1) 25 kg

2) 5kg

3) 12.5kg

4) (1/25) kg

Question 6 of 180

7. Two identical containers each of volume V joined by a normal pipe contains gas at a
temperature T. If one of the containers is now maintained at the same temperature T while the other is maintained at 2T, the number of moles of gas in the container having temperature 2T will be

1) PV/2RT

2) PV/RT

3) 2PV/3RT

4) PV/3RT

Question 7 of 180

8. In a large building there are 15 bulbs of ‘40w’ 5 bulbs of ‘100w’. 5 fans of ‘80w’ and 1 heater of ‘1kw’ . The voltage of electric mains is ‘220 volts’.The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building will be

1) 8.5 amp

2) 10 amp

3) 11.3 amp

4) 14 amp

Question 8 of 180

9. The image a camera forms on the film is...

A. always real

B. always virtual

C. always erect

D. sometimes inverted

Question 9 of 180

10. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L.C.R series circuit used for communication

1) R = 15ΩL = 3.5H.C = 30μF

2) R = 25ΩL = 1.5H.C = 45μF

3) R = 20ΩL = 1.5H.C = 35μF

4) R = 25ΩL = 2.5H.C = 45μF

Question 10 of 180

11. Diamagnetic materials are substances that...

A. create a strong magnetic field

B. are attracted by a magnetic field

C. are repelled by a magnetic field

D. have double magnetism

Question 11 of 180

12. Two equal masses ‘A and B’ moving along the same straight line with velocities 3i m/sec and '-5i m/sec respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively

1) 4i m/sec for both

2) -3i m/sec and 5i m/sec

3) -4i m/sec and 4i m/sec

4) -5i m/sec and 3i m/sec

Question 12 of 180

13. An electric cell of e.m.f ‘E’ is connected across a copper wire of diameter ‘d’ and length 'l' the drift velocity of electron in the wire is 'v_d' If the length and diameter of the wire are doubled the new drift velocity of electron is

1) v_d

2) 2v_d

3) v_d/2

3) v_d/4

Question 13 of 180

14. In the figure shown a source of sound of frequency 510 Hz move with constant velocity V_s=20 m/ s in the direction shown. The wind is blowing at a constant velocity V_w=20 m/S towards an observer who is at rest at point B. Corresponding to the sound emitted by the source in initial position A, the frequency detected by the observer is equal to (speed of sound relative to air = 330 m/s)

1) 510 Hz

2) 500 Hz

3) 525 Hz

4) 550 Hz

Question 14 of 180

15. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 'λ₁'and 'λ₂' respectively are placed at a distance ‘R’. The force per unit length on either wire will be (k = (1/4πε₀))

1) K [2λ₁λ₂/R²]

2) K [2λ₁λ₂/R]

3) K[λ₁λ₂/R²]

4) K[λ₁λ₂/R]

Question 15 of 180

16. A particle moves along X –axis in such a way that coordinate X varies with time t according to the equation . x = ( 2-5t+6t²)m The initial velocity of the particle is

1) -5m/s

2) 6m/s

3) -3m/s

4) 3m/s

Question 16 of 180

17. The intermolecular potential is dependent on...

A. the shape of the molecules only

B. the molecular separation only

C. both the shape and the molecular separation

D. none of the above

Question 17 of 180

18. The aperture of the objective lens of a telescope is made large so as to

1) Increase the magnifying power of the telescope

2) Increase the resolving power of the telescope

3) Focus on distant objects

4) Ease of Manufacture

Question 18 of 180

19. For monatomic gases, C_p/C_vis equal to...

A. 1.67

B. R

C. 1.67 R

D. 1.5 R

Question 19 of 180

20. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through origin. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process will be

1) 4R

2) 2.5R

3) 3R

4)4R/3

Question 20 of 180

21. Two bodies ‘A and B’ of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid partition. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. A force of 200N is applied horizontally at ‘A’ action reaction force between A and B is (g = 10 m/sec²)

1) 170 N

2) 200 N

3) 190 N

4) 210 N

Question 21 of 180

22. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetization of 8 A/m when placed in an external magnetic field of 0.6 T at a temperature of 4 K. When the same sample is placed in an external magnetic field of 0.2 T at a temperature of 16 K, the magnetization will be

1) 32/3 A/m

2) 2/3 A/m

3) 6 A/m

4) 2.4 A/m

Question 22 of 180

23. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 23 of 180

24. The plane faces of two identical plano-convex lenses each having focal length of 40cm are pressed against each other to form a usual convex lens. The distance from lens, at which an object must be placed to obtain a real, inverted image with magnification one is

1) 80cm

2) 40cm

3) 20cm

4) 162 cm

Question 24 of 180

25. An object moving with a speed of 6.25 m/sec, is decelerated at a rate given by (dy/dt) = -2.5√v . Where ‘v’ is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object to come to rest, would be

1) 1 sec

2) 2 sec

3) 4 sec

4) 8 sec

Question 25 of 180

26. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1:4 produce an interference pattern the fringe visibility will be

1) 1

2) 0.8

3)0.4

4) 0.6

Question 26 of 180

27. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents ‘SHM’

a) Y = sinωt - cosωt

b) Y = Sin³ ωt

c) Y = 5 cos[(3π/4) - 3ωt]

d) Y = 1 + ωt + ω²t²

1) only ‘a’ and ‘b’

2) only ‘a’

3) only ‘a’ and ‘d’

4) only ‘a’ and ‘c’

Question 27 of 180

28. A square coil of side ‘25cm’ having 1000 turns is rotated with a uniform speed in a magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the direction of the field. At an instant ‘t’ the ‘e.m.f’ induced in the coil is E= 200 sin100πt. The strength of the magnetic field is (in Tesla)

1) 5/125π

2) 2/125π

3) 1/125π

4) 4/125π

Question 28 of 180

29. A light ray passes through a prism with an angle of incidence θ, an angle of deviation δ and an angle of emergence ε. Minimum deviation occurs when...

A. δ = θ

B. δ = ε

C. θ = ε

D. δ = θ - ε

Question 29 of 180

30. The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is ‘4.5 joule’. The charge on the sphere is '4μc' its radius will be [(1/4πε₀)=9×10⁹ N - m²c^-2]

1) 4mm

2) 8 mm

3) 2mm

4) 16 mm

Question 30 of 180

31. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

1) A meter scale

2) A vernier callipers where the ‘10’ divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in ‘1 cm’

3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

Question 31 of 180

32. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6. The amount of water should be put inside the balloon so that it accelerates down at rate of g/6. (Assume buoyancy force remains the same)

1) m/5

2) 2m/5

3) 3m/5

4) 4m/5

Question 32 of 180

33. The radius of the planet is ‘R’ A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius ‘r’ with an angular velocity ‘ω’. The acceleration due to the gravity onthe planet surface is

1) r³ω/R

2) r³ω³/R

3) r³ω²/R

4) r³ω²/R²

Question 33 of 180

34. The power of a lens having refractive index 1.25 is +3 diopters. When placed in a liquid its power is -2 diopters. The refractive index of the liquid is

1) 1.2

2) 1.4

3) 1.5

4) 1.6

Question 34 of 180

35. Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of mass 88000 kg. The inner and outer radii of each column are 30cm and 40cm respectively. Assuming load distribution is uniform. The compressional strain of each column is (Y = 2×10¹¹ N/m² )

1) 20×10^-6

2) 1.25×1010^-6

3) 5×10^-6

4) 10×10^-6

Question 35 of 180

36. A voltage of peak value 283 volt and varying frequency is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which R =3 ohm, ‘L=25 mH and C = 40μF . The frequency of the source at which maximum power is dissipated in the circuit is

1) (5000/π) Hz

2) (50/π)Hz

3) (500/π)Hz

4) (5/π)Hz

Question 36 of 180

37. If the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. is V_mand maximum r.m.s. current is √ 2 ampere for an a.c. circuit with resistance R, then the value of V_min volt is equal to...

A. 2R

B. R

C. 1/R

D. √ 2/R

Question 37 of 180

38. To keep a vehicle moving at the speed v requires a force F. The power needed is...

A. F.v

B. (1/2)F.v²

C. F/v

D. F/v²

Question 38 of 180

39. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

1) The kinetic energy of α-particle is zero

2) The kinetic energy of daughter nucleus is always less than kinetic energy of α-particle

3) The magnitude of linear momentum of α-particle and daughter nucleus are not equal

4) The daughter nucleus is always stable

Question 39 of 180

40. A solid sphere of mass ’M’ ; radius ‘R’ and having moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass is ‘I’. It recast into a disc of thickness ‘t’. Whose moment of inertia about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane remains ‘I’ then radius of the disc will be

1) 2R/√15

2) R/√2/15

3) 4R/√15

4) R/4

Question 40 of 180

41. A boy swings from a rope 4.9 m long. His approximate period of oscillation is...

A. 0.5 s

B. 3.1 s

C. 4.4 s

D. 12 s

Question 41 of 180

42. Two parallel wires carry current in the same direction,...

A. they attract each other

B. they repel each other

C. they neither attract nor repel

D. they attract or repel depending on current type

Question 42 of 180

43. A projectile is thrown in the direction making an angle θ with the horizontal. The projectile attains maximum height for θ equal to...

A. 0

B. π/4

C. π/2

D. π

Question 43 of 180

44. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is (C is the Velocity of light )

1) E/C

2) 2E/C

3) EC

4) E/C²

Question 44 of 180

45. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

1) Temperature on ideal gas scale

2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale

3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale

4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. Which of the following is true w.r.t. grafting

1) Very commonly practiced in monocot plants

2) In air layering i.e. one typed grafting uses auxin to induce rooting

3) Stock is shoot piece which is used in grafting

4) New plant produced after grafting produces fruits similar to scion source

Question 46 of 180

47. Select the correct combination of the statements (i-iv) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms

i) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas

ii) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen

iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesise cellulose from glucose

iv) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.

1) (ii) and (iii)

2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

3)(ii), (iii) and (iv)

4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 47 of 180

48. Synthesis of human insulin in E.coli cells is the best evidence for

1) Ambiguity of genetic code

2) Universality of genetic code

3) Non cognate genetic code

4) Genetic code is not degenerate

Question 48 of 180

49. Fuel of photosynthetic carbon oxidation, is

1) Glycerate

2) Glycolate

3) Glyceride

4) Glyoxylate

Question 49 of 180

50. Which of the following taxonomical aids are used in identification of both plants and animals?

1) Herbarium only

2) Keys & Herbarium only

3) Museums only

4) Keys & Museums

Question 50 of 180

51. Select the nutritive tissue in the structure of anther

1) –S

2) –R

3) –Q

4) P

Question 51 of 180

52. Read the following character given with respect to short distance transport and identify correct combination
Property Simple diffusion Facilitated diffusion Activetransport
I) Requires special Yes No Yes
membrane proteins
II) Requires ATP energy No No Yes
III) Highly selective Yes Yes No
IV) Uphill transport No No Yes

1) I and II

2) II and III

3) II and IV

4) III and IV

Question 52 of 180

53. Which of the following are the simple mechanical tissues

1) Parenchyma and Collenchyma

2) Sclerenchyma and Collenchyma

3) Primary xylem and Primary phloem

4) Bast and Leptome

Question 53 of 180

54. Eight bacteria kept in cup divide repeatedly and produce 64 bacteria in 2 hours. Find the time consumed in binary fission.

1) 15 minutes

2) 20 minutes

3) 40 minutes

4) 30 minutes

Question 54 of 180

55. Which of the following is a correct match

1) Zn++ - an activator of alcohol dehydrogenase

2) Mn++ and Mo-an activator of PEP case

3) Fe+++ - activator of succinate dehydrogenase

4) Cu – part of cyta and cyta3

Question 55 of 180

56. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground tissue system of roots, is characterised by

1) Casparian bands

2) Starch grains

3) Complementary cells

4) Intercellular spaces

Question 56 of 180

57. The number of Phosphodiester bonds and ester bonds Present in 13.6 nm length DNA

1) 158 and 178

2) 80 and 160

3) 98 and 118

4) 78 and 158

Question 57 of 180

58. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

1) Independent sporophyte

2) Presence of archegonia

3) Well developed vascular tissues

4) Independent gametophyte

Question 58 of 180

59. Photorespiration is performed by

1) Peroxisome

2) Chloroplast

3) Mitochondrion

4) All the above

Question 59 of 180

60. Ψ_wand Ψ_pare zero respectively for

1) Pure water and Flaccid cell

2) Flaccid cell and Turgid cell

3) Pure water and Turgid cell

4) Flaccid cell and Pure water

Question 60 of 180

61. A leafy vegetable ‘bathua’ produced by IARI is rich in

1) Vitamin A, proteins, calcium

2) Calcium, iron and vitamin C

3) Vitamin D, lysine and tryptophan

4) Iron, vitamin B and carotene

Question 61 of 180

62. The probabilities of homozygous tall, heterozygous tall, and homozygous dwarf plants in F2 generation of a monohybrid cross respectively, is

1) 1/4, 1/2, 1/4

2) 1/2, 1/4, 1/2

3) 1/2, 1/4, 1/4

4) 1/4, 1/4, 1/2

Question 62 of 180

63. How many plants among the following have opposite phyllotaxy. China rose, Sun flower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium?

1) Two

2) Three

3) Four

4) Five

Question 63 of 180

64. Identify the correct matched related to plant movements

1) Migration of male gametes in bryophytes and pteridophytes - Chemotropism

2) Growth of pollen tube – Chemotactism

3) Avena coleoptiles – Phototropism

4) Sleeping movements in legumes – Thermonasty

Question 64 of 180

65. Which of the following are correct statements?

j) Pinus and orchid seeds can’t germinate and establish without the formation of mycorrhiza

k) Plants absorbs maximum water from the soil by passive absorption

l) In endodermis region of roots, water follow symplastic pathway

m) High O₂ concentration high light intensity induces photorespiration in sciophytes.

n) paper used to compare transpiration from two surfaces of leaf

1) j, k and m only

2) l, m and n only

3) j, k and n only

4) All of these

Question 65 of 180

66. Find the correct match w.r.t annual rings

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 66 of 180

67. The needle like cladodes of Asparagus are metamorphosed stem for

1) reducing transpiration

2) increasing photosynthesis

3) protecting plant from browsing

4) none of the above

Question 67 of 180

68. Mesokaryotic condition and mixotrophic nutrition are found, respectively, in

1) Noctiluca and Euglena

2) Euglena and Gonyaulax

3) Entamoeba and Cosmarium

4) Pinnularia and Paramoecium

Question 68 of 180

69. The biocatalyst ribozyme is synthesized by a process called

1) Replication

2) Reverse transcription

3) Transcription

4)Translation

Question 69 of 180

70. Root nodules (tubercles) are found on

1) primary root only

2) branchlets only

3) secondary roots only

4) primary and secondary roots

Question 70 of 180

71. A cell is kept in hypotonic solution, after sometime is

1) OP ↓ and Ψ_S ↑

2) Ψ_W↑ and DPD ↓

3) Ψ_P and TP both ↑

4) all of the above

Question 71 of 180

72. Which of the following statements is true

1) Microbe resistant plant material is sporopollenin

2) Each node is a propagule in Opuntia

3) Bryophyllum reproduces through bulbils

4) Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from zygote

Question 72 of 180

73. Which of the following is true statement

1) Pribnow box lies in mRNA in upstream stream sequence.

2) In clover leaf model of tRNA, amino acid is attached to 5’ by ester bond, if it is a charged one

3) Translation is initiated by factor, formed of -chain, of RNA polymerase enzyme

4) Sn RNA, 5S RNA and tRNA are transcribed with the help of RNA polymerase lll in eukaryotes

Question 73 of 180

74. Which of the following instruments are correctly matched, except?

i) Potometer – Transpiration rate

ii) Atmometer – Demonstrate transpiration pull

iii) Auxanometer – Growth measurement

iv) Ganog’s light screen – Measure light intensity

v) Manometer – Demonstreate toot pressure

1) (iv)

2) (ii)

3) (iii)

Question 74 of 180

75. Select the correct statement

1) During early-M-phase cells may have more than 2C content of DNA

2) During early S-phase cells have 4C content of DNA

3) Replication continues in G2-phase

4) In plant cells G0-phase is absent

Question 75 of 180

76. Anticodon is a base triplet present on

1) mRNA complementary to base sequence on rRNA

2) mRNA, complementary to base sequence on tRNA

3) tRNA, complementary to base sequence on rRNA

4) tRNA, complementary to base sequence on mRN

Question 76 of 180

77. Main function of centromere is

1) Chromosome splitting

2) to help in migration of chromosomes to the poles

3) Crossing over

4) Cytokinesis

Question 77 of 180

78. Consider the following statements and select the number of correct statements

1. Replication of DNA is carried out by semi-conservative method in prokaryotes only

2. Hershey and chase conducted transformation experiments to confirm the genetic nature of DNA

3. Three types of RNA polymerases or formed in the
nucleus of eukaryotes

4. After transcription also gene regulation is possible in eukaryotes

1) One

2) Four

3) Three

4) Two

Question 78 of 180

79. The following is not a fungal plant disease

1) Brown rust of wheat

2) Late blight of potato

3) Black rot of crucifers

4) Red rot of sugarcane

Question 79 of 180

80. Match the following
Column-I (Tissues) Column-II (Product of)
1) Julius Von Sachs A) Polynucleotide Phosphorylase
2) Hershy and Chase B) Chromosome maps
3) A. Sturtevant C) Hydrophonics
4) Severo Ochoa enzyme D) Genetic nature of DNA

1) C-1,A-2,B-3,D-4

2) A-1,C-2,B-3,D-4

3) D-1,C-2,A-3,B-4

4) C-1,D-2,B-3,A-4

Question 80 of 180

81. Which one among the following represents the correct method of replication of DNA

Question 81 of 180

82. Study the following diagrams & choose the correct option.

1) It is a dioecious pteridophyte producing antheridiophore and archegoniophore

2) It is a dioecious alga producing antheridiophore and archegoniophore

3) a- Male plant of Marchantia, b-Female plant of Marchantia

4) a- Female plant of Marchantia, b-Male plant of Marchantia

Question 82 of 180

83. DNA with one strand labeled with radioactive thymidine. Allowed to replicate in normal nutrient medium for three generations. Then proportion of DNA molecules showing radioactivity is

1) 12.5% only

2) 25%

3) 6.25%

4) 50%

Question 83 of 180

84. In dicot roots, the pericycle gives rise to

1) Lateral roots and a part of vascular cambium

2) Cortex and pith

3) Xylem and Phloem

4) Epidermis and vascular bundles

Question 84 of 180

85. Number of genotypes present in yellow round, yellow wrinkled, green round and green wrinkled phenotypes of 2F generation progeny of Mendel’s dihybrid cross respectively is

1) 1, 2, 2, 4

2) 4, 1, 2, 2

3) 2, 1, 2, 4

4) 4, 2, 2, 1

Question 85 of 180

86. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M-phase, what will be the content of DNA at G1 phase chromosome and S - phase chromosome of mitosis?

1) 2C & 4C

2) 4C & 4C

3) 4C & 2C

4) 2C & 3C

Question 86 of 180

87. The fruit of Annona squamosa (custard apple) develops from

1) polycarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

2) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary and thalamus

3) single ovary

4) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary

Question 87 of 180

88. Number of amembraneous structures from the following is/areRibosome, Centriole, Cytoskeleton, Peroxisome, Nucleolus, Inclusion bodies, Power house of the cell

1) 7

2) 5

3) 6

4) 4

Question 88 of 180

89. Study of arrangement of perianth parts in bud condition, is not possible in

1) Calotropis

2) Glycirrhiza

3) Euphorbia

4) Allium

Question 89 of 180

90. Which of the following statement is wrong?

1) Uracil is a pyrimidine

2) Sucrose is a disaccharide

3) Cellulose is a homopolysaccharide

4) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. A tumour in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the hormones in that region. Which of the following you might expect to find in a patient with such a tumour?

1) Increased blood sodium levels

2) Increased blood glucose levels

3) Decreased blood calcium levels

4) Increased dehydration

Question 91 of 180

92. According to Darwin

I) Inter specific competition is a potent force in organic evolution

II) Evolution was gradual and variations are small and directional

III) Branching decent and Natural selection are two key concepts of evolution

Which of the following statements are correct

1) I

2) II

3) II and III

4) I,II and III

Question 92 of 180

93. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

1)Lemur

2)Tasmanian wolf

3) Numbat

4)Bobcat

Question 93 of 180

94. Which one of the following hormone is derived from an Amino acid which the human beings are incapable of synthesizing

1) Glutamic acid

2) Dopamine

3) Adrenaline

4) Melatonin

Question 94 of 180

95. Statement –1 (S₁): When one cardio myocyte receives a signal to contract, its neighbours are also stimulated to contract

Statement –2(S₂): Communication junctions (inter calated discs)

at some fusion points allow the cells to contract as a unit

1) S1 is false; S2 is true

2) S1 is true; S2 is false

3) Both S2 and S1 are true

4) Both S1 and S2 are false

Question 95 of 180

96. Which of the following statements are correct related to human

A. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase.

B. Lipases are absent in secretion of gastric glands

C. Bile helps in emulsification of fats and also activates lipases.

D. Nucleases in the succus entericus acts on nucleic acids to form nucleotides and nucleosides

1) A, B, C

2) A, C

3) C, D

4) A, C, D

Question 96 of 180

97. Implantation of the blastocyst occurs

1) just prior to conception

2) one week after fertilization

3) at one month’s gestation

4) just prior to birth

Question 97 of 180

98. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is

1) corona radiate, zona pellucid and vitelline membrane

2) zona pellucid, corona radiate and vitelline membrane

3) vitelline membrane, zona pellucid and corona radiate

4) zona pellucid, vitelline membrane and corona radiate

Question 98 of 180

99. Read the following statements

A : A considerable amount of NPP is utilised by plants in respiration

B: The annual NPP of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons of organic matter

1) Both A and B are correct

2) Only A is correct

3) Only B is correct

4) Both A and B are incorrect

Question 99 of 180

100. When light incidents on photoreceptor cells of the retina of eye ,their membrane is

1) hyperpolarized

2) depolarized

3) repolarized

4) none of the above.

Question 100 of 180

101. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

A. Crocodile 4-Chambered heart

B. Sea Urchin Parapodia

C. Obelia Metagenesis

D. Lemur Thecodont

1) Only A and B

2) A, C and D

3) B, C and D

4) Only A and D

Question 101 of 180

102. Which of the following structures are found in female cockroach ?

1) Caudal styles

2) Phallomeres

3) Spermathecae

4) Seminal vesicles

Question 102 of 180

103. Observe the following

The above device is used to

1) Reduce Particulate pollution

2) Remove SO2

3) Reduce automobile emissions

4) limit noise pollution

Question 103 of 180

104. Read the following (A-D)

A) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in mouth.

B) Chylomicrons are protein coated fat globules transported from intestine into circulatory fluid with all formed elements.

C) In stomach,oxynctic cells secrete proenzyme pepsinogen

D) Unlike marasmus, some fat is still left under skin in kwashiorkor

How many of the above statements are correct

1) Four

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

Question 104 of 180

105. Satellite DNA is useful tool in

1) organ transplantation

2) sex determination

3) forensic science

4) genetic engineering

Question 105 of 180

106. Which of the following statements are false/true?
I. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium level
II. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth.
III. Grave’s disease is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal cortex
IV. ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine output.

1) I and III are true; II and IV are false

2) I and II are true; III and IV are false

3) II and III are true; I and IV are false

4) I, II and III are true; IV only false

Question 106 of 180

107. The diagram shows a section through an alveolus and ablood capillary What are the oxygen concentrations at A,B and C?

A B C

1) Low High Low

2) Low High High

3) High Low Low

4) High Low High

Question 107 of 180

108. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, select the option that correctly fills the blanks A,B and C

A B C

(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin

(2) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone

(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin

(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin

Question 108 of 180

109. Hyperdactyly (the possession of more than 12 fingers) is determined by the dominant allele (H) and normal condition by recessive allele (h).

The diagram shown a family tree in which some members of the family are hyperdactylus
Find out the genotype of A, B and C

1) A-Hh, B-Hh, C-hh

2) A-HH, B-Hh, C-hh

3) A-Hh, B-HH, C-hh

4) A-HH, B-HH, C-hh

Question 109 of 180

110. Alienate the number of incorrect statement(s)

S1: Laccifer lacks circulatory system.

S2: Neries have nephridia but no nephrons

S3: Silver fish is Non-operculate marine fish

S4: Neophron has both neurons and nephrons

1) Two

2) Three

3) One

4) Four

Question 110 of 180

111. Select the correct statement from the following

1) Mutations are random and directional

2) Darwinian variations are small and directionless

3) Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution

4) Darwin believed that it is mutation which causes evolution

Question 111 of 180

112. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t alimentary canal of cockroach?

1) Oesophagus leads into a sac like structure called crop used for storing of food

2) Gizzard has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner cuticle forming six highly chitinous plate called teeth

3) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caeca is present at the junction of foregut and midgut

4) The hindgut is narrower than midgut and is differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum

Question 112 of 180

113. Match the Columns and choose the Correct answer

Column I Column II

a.National aquatic (i) Endoskeleton fully

Animal ossified

b.National Heritage (ii) Seven cervical

Animal Vertebrae

c.National Bird (iii) Sheds scales as

Skin cast

d.National Reptile (iv) Longest gestation

Period

(v) Cormorant

1) a – ii, b – iii, c - i, d – v

2) a – ii, b – iv, c - i, d – iii

3) a – iii, b – v, c - i, d – ii

4) a – i, b – ii, c - iv, d – v

Question 113 of 180

114. which of the the following statement is false?

1)Spleen contains lymphocytes and act as SLO

2) In secondary lymphoid organs immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes

3) Both bone-narrow and thymus provide micro-environments for the development and maturation of lymphocytes

4) MALT also has a large reservoir of lymphocytes

Question 114 of 180

115. The embryonic membrane involved in the formation of placenta in human is

1) yolk sac

2) umbilical cord

3) amnion

4) chorion

Question 115 of 180

116. A sensitized Rh --ve woman gives birth dizygotic twins with different Rh phenotypes then

1) Type II hyper sensitivity reaction is seen in both the off springs

2) IgG after transplacental migration cause HDNB in both

3) Erythroblastosis foetalis is in off spring with dominant allele

4) Both off springs remain unaffected

Question 116 of 180

117. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli, atmospheric air and tissue will be ------- mm of Hg

1) 40, 159, 45

2) 40, 0.3, 45

3) 104, 159, 40

4) 104, 0.3, 45

Question 117 of 180

118. Choose the combination of conditions in a tissue that would influence the most rapid dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 118 of 180

119. Plant whose product is with hallucinogenic properties is

1) Papaver somniferum

2) Atropa belladona

3) Solanum tuberosum

4) Rauwolfia serpentina

Question 119 of 180

120. Making two varieties of a cattle breed like Red Dane which have no common ancestors on either sides of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations is an example for

1) inbreeding

2) cross breeding

3) out crossing

4) interspecific hybridization

Question 120 of 180

121. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

1) Predation on one another

2) Mutualism

3) Intra-specific competition

4) Inter-specific competition

Question 121 of 180

122. Following is a diagrammatic representation of a nephron showing blood vessels, duct and tubule. These structures have been labelled as A, B, C etc., Answer the questions that follow.

(i) Which parts are located in cortical region of kidney?

(ii) Which structure is highly reduced in cortical nephrons?

(iii) Identify the part F. (iv) Which parts collectively form Malpighian body?

1) (i) A, C, D, E (ii) B (iii) Collecting duct (iv) A and C

2) (i) A, C, D, E (ii) B (iii) Vasa recta (iv) A and C

3) (i) B, F, G, H (ii) F (iii) Vasa recta (iv) A and D

4) (i) B, F, G, H (ii) F (iii) Collecting duct (iv) C and D

Question 122 of 180

123. In kidneys, renal papillae are part of

1) renal columns

2) columns of Bertini

3) renal pelvis

4) medullary pyramids

Question 123 of 180

124. Which of the following statements correctly defines the phenomenon of genetic drift?
I. Random change in gene allele frequency
II. Occur by chance
III. It is directional
IV. Causes elimination of certain alleles
V. Causes fixation of alleles
The correct combination is

1) I, II and III

2) III, IV and V

3) I, III and V

4) I, II, IV and V

Question 124 of 180

125. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

1) A-1000, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

2) A-1400, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

3) A-1000, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

4) A-1400, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

Question 125 of 180

126. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

1) lower levels of adrenalin/noradrenalin in its blood

2) higher levels of thyroxin

3) higher levels of cortisone

4) lower levels of blood testosterone

Question 126 of 180

127. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

1) Calciferol – Pellagra

2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

4) Cobalamin – Beriberi

Question 127 of 180

128. Who was awarded the three prizes widely regarded as the triple crown of biology

1) Linnaeus

2) Darwin

3) Ernst Mayr

4) Mendel

Question 128 of 180

129. Bone can be distinguished from cartilage with

1) The haversian system

2) High vascular nature

3) Calcified matrix

4) All the above

Question 129 of 180

130. How many of the following Animals are non-chordates with water vascular system?

A₁) Sea – Cucumber A₂) Sea – Horse

A₃) Brittle star A₄) Sea – Hare

A₅) Sea – fan A₆) Sea – urchin

1) Two

2) Four

3)Five

4) Three

Question 130 of 180

131. The four structure listed are part of the human excretory system.
I. Bladder II. Kidney III. Ureter IV. Urethra
In which order does a molecule of urea pass through these structures?

1) 1-I,1-II, 1-III, 1-IV

2) 2-I, 2-IV, 2-III, 2-II,

3) 3-II, 3-I, 3-III, 3-IV,

4) 4-II, 4-III, 4-I, 4-IV,

Question 131 of 180

132. The copper ions of IUDs

1) Suppress the motility and fertilization capacity of sperms

2) Make the uterus suitable for implantation

3) Increase pinocytosis of sperms

4) Make cervix hostile to sperms

Question 132 of 180

133. Ligament consists of

1) Yellow fibres + Elastic fibres

2) Yellow fibres + Collagen (white)fibres

3) Yellow fibres + Muscle fibres

4) White fibres + Muscle fibres

Question 133 of 180

134. How many of the following statements are wrong w.r.t. STDs?

A. AIDs is the most dangerous STD.

B. Hepatitis B, genital herpes and HIV infection are not curable

C. Ectopic pregnancy and cancer are not included under the complications of STDs

D. The incidence of STDs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 yearsx

1) One

2) Two

3) Three

4) Four

Question 134 of 180

135. Statement(1): (S1): After primary immune response, subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response

Statement(2): (S2): Anamnestic response is because our body develops memory after the first encounter.

1) S1 and S2 are correct

2) S1 and S2 are incorrect

3) S1 is correct; S2 is incorrect

4) S1 is incorrect; S2 is correct

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C₆H₅CO NH₂ II) Pyridine
III) C₆H₅-N=N-C₆H₅

1) I,III

2) II,III

3) III,IV

4) I,II

Question 136 of 180

137. Find correct statement

1) KMnO₄ is coloured due to d-d transition

2) K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is low spin complex

3) Zn and Cd are transition metal

4) All lanthanoids are radioactive

Question 137 of 180

138. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

1) (CH3)3N

2) (SiH3)3N

3) XeF2

4) SF₄

Question 138 of 180

139. The molecule which is having maximum number of lone pair

1) SiF₄

2) BrF₃

3) XeF₂

4) SF₄

Question 139 of 180

140. Assertion: Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
Reason: ΔH_f⁰ of graphite is taken as zero

1) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2) Both assertion and reason are correct reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion.

3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.

4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

Question 140 of 180

141. The shortest wavelength of He⁺ ion in Balmer series is x, then longest wavelength in the paschen series of Li²⁺is

1) 36x/5

2) 16x/7

3) 9x/5

4) 5x/5

Question 141 of 180

142. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom?

1) 127 pm

2) 157 pm

3) 181 pm

4) 108 pm

Question 142 of 180

143. In Kjeldahl ‘s method, the nitrogen gas evolved from 1.325 g sample of a fertilizer is passed into 50.0 mL of 0.2030 N H₂SO₄mL of 0.1980 N NaOH are required for the titration of unused acid. The percentage of nitrogen in fertilizer is

1) 10.86%

2) 21.72 %

3) 5.43 %

4) 2.75 %

Question 143 of 180

144. What will be the equivalent weight of H₃PO₃ in the following reaction. 4H₃PO₃ → 3H₃PO₄+PH₃

1) M/6

2) 2M/3

3) M/12

4) M/2

Question 144 of 180

145. What would be the product formed when 1-bromo-3 chloro cyclo butane reacts with two equivalents of metallic sodium in ether

Question 145 of 180

146. An oxide of Nitrogen which form reddish brown fumes in air is

1) N₂O

2) NO₂

3) NO

4) N₂O₃

Question 146 of 180

147. If lone pair of electron occupy axial position then, incorrect about is :

1) It is a planar molecule

2) It has T-shape

3) All bond lengths are equal

4) repulsion will be minimum

Question 147 of 180

148. An acid-base indicator has a In K_ln of 3 ×10^-5. The acid form of indicator is red and the basic form is blue.
Then

1) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 50%blue.

2) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75%red.

3) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 75%red

4) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75%blue.

Question 148 of 180

149. When 0.1mole MnO₄^2- is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required in coulombs to completely oxidize MnO₄^2- to MnO₄^- is

1) 96500

2) 2×96500

3)9650

4) 96.50

Question 149 of 180

150. In Na₂O having antifluorite structure

1) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupy all the octahedral voids.

2) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupyall the eight tetrahedral voids

3) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangement and O2-
occupy all tetrahedral voids.

4) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangementand O2- occupy all octahedral voids

Question 150 of 180

151.

1) Glyptal

2) Dacron

3) Nylon-6,6

4) Nylon-6

Question 151 of 180

152. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl₃solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

1) peptisation

2) dialysis

3) osmosis

4) coagulation

Question 152 of 180

153. The impure 7g of NaCl is dissolved in water and then treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The weight of precipitate of silver chloride is found to be 14g. The % purity of NaCl solution would be (M. Wt of AgCl = 143.5, NaCl = 58.5)

1) 81.5%

2) 63%

3) 93%

4) 77%

Question 153 of 180

154. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 154 of 180

155. The number of carbon atoms per unitcell of diamond unitcell is

1) 8

2) 6

3) 1

4) 4

Question 155 of 180

156. Which of the following compound react faster through SN²mechanism

1) CH3- CH2Br

2) CH3- O - CH₂Br

3) C₆H5- CO - CH2Br

4) CH₃ - C (CH₃ )2- CH2Br

Question 156 of 180

157. Which of the following vitamin contains ionone ring and
hydrocarbon chain.

1) Calciferol

2) Thiamin

3) Retinol

4) Riboflavin

Question 157 of 180

158. The standard reduction potential for Cu⁺²/ Cu  is +0.34V.Calculate the reduction potential at pH=14
for the above couple. ^K_s_pof Cu(OH)₂= 1.0×10^-19

1) +0.2205V

2) +0.386V

3) -0.2205V

4) -0.386V

Question 158 of 180

159. The half life of a reaction is 46 minutes when the initial concentration of the reactant is 4 mol/L and 92 minutes when the initial concentration is 0.2mol/L. The order of the reaction is

1) Zero

2) 0.5

3) 2

4) 1

Question 159 of 180

160. Which property is common in diamond and graphite

1) Electrical conductivity

2) Crystal structure

3) Relative atomic mass

4) Density

Question 160 of 180

161. If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ions discharged at cathode are

1) H⁺

2) Na⁺

3) OH^-

4) Cl^-

Question 161 of 180

162. Which one of the following oxyacids of chlorine is the least
oxidising in nature

1) HOCl

2) HClO₂

3) HClO₄

4) HClO₃

Question 162 of 180

163. DNA & RNA are chiral molecules due to the presence of

1) Chiral bases

2) Phosphate ester unit

3) D- sugar component

4) L – sugar component

Question 163 of 180

164. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 ×10^-2
mol L^-1 min^-1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reactant. The
half life of the reaction is

1) 23.1 min

2) 8.73 min

3) 7.53 min

4) 0.383 min

Question 164 of 180

165. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M-O-H and M¹-O-H have been prepared in two different
beakers. If the electronegativity of M=3.5, M¹=0.9, O=3.5 and H=2.1, then the solutions respectively are

1) acidic, acidic

2) acidic, basic

3) basic, basic

4) basic, acidic

Question 165 of 180

166. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

1) Aspartame

2) Saccharin

3) Sucralose

4) Alitame

Question 166 of 180

167. Number of stereoisomers of the given compound

1) 2

2)3

3)4

4)6

Question 167 of 180

168. V1 ml of 3M HCl solution is mixed with V₂ml of 3M H₂SO₄to from a solution in which molarity of H+ ions is 5M, then the relation between V₁and V₂is

1) V₁= V₂

2) V₂=2V₁

3) 3V₁= V₂

4) 2V₂= V₁

Question 168 of 180

169. 20g of naphthoic acid (C₁₁H₈O₂) is dissolved in 50g of benzene, then freezing point depression of 2K is observed for solution. The vant hoff factor will be ( K_f for benzene=1.72 Kg Mol^-1)

1) 0.75

2) 2

3) 0.5

4) 3

Question 169 of 180

170. The most volatile alkane is

1) n – pentane

2) isopentane

3) neopentane

4) n–hexane

Question 170 of 180

171. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

1) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]

2) [ Acid ] × 10⁵ = [conjugatebase]

3) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]× 10⁵

4) [ Acid ] = 2[conjugatebase]

Question 171 of 180

172. The pH of a solution of H₂O₂is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

1) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0

2) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant solution

3) The pH of resultant solution becomes less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated

4) Cl₂O is formed in the resultant solution

Question 172 of 180

173. The correct statement/s about H₂ S₂ O₇ is/are

1) It is called peroxydisulphuric acid

2) It is contains one O-O bond in its molecule

3) It is obtained by dissolution of SO3 in conc. H₂ SO₄

4) Both (2) & (3)

Question 173 of 180

174. 100ml of O ₂on partial ozonisation, O₂and O₃are obtained in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 what % of O₂is converted into ozone

1) 60%

2) 50%

3) 40%

4) 57%

Question 174 of 180

175.

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

1) 4 : 5

2) 5 : 4

3) 1 : 1

4) 2 : 3

Question 175 of 180

176. 51. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zn dust and water gives compound ‘E’. Compound ‘E’ on further treatment with aqu.KOH yields compound ‘F’. Compound ‘F’ is

Question 176 of 180

177. For the given complex ,[CoCl₂(en)(NH₃)]⁺the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

1) 2,2 and 4

2) 2,0 and 2

3) 2,2 and 3

4) 0,2 and 2

Question 177 of 180

178. Benzene reacts with cholorine in the presence of U.V. light and gives

1) Chloro Benzene

2) 1, 2-dichloro Benzene

3) Hexachloro cyclohexane

4) Benzyl chloride

Question 178 of 180

179. Compound having least heat of hydrogenation:

Question 179 of 180

180. To form osazone, mumber of moles of phenyl hydrazine required by one mole of glucose is

1) 4

2) 3

3) 2

4) 1

Question 180 of 180

Physics

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