NEET Free Mock Test 2 – india vidya

NEET examination is one of the toughest exams in the country. NEET is aimed at selecting candidates for medical courses across the country. The exam consists of 180 questions for 720 marks. Each question carries 4 marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark. Duration of the exam is 180 minutes.

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 1 of 180

2. If the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. is V_mand maximum r.m.s. current is √ 2 ampere for an a.c. circuit with resistance R, then the value of V_min volt is equal to...

A. 2R

B. R

C. 1/R

D. √ 2/R

Question 2 of 180

3. Diamagnetic materials are substances that...

A. create a strong magnetic field

B. are attracted by a magnetic field

C. are repelled by a magnetic field

D. have double magnetism

Question 3 of 180

4. Two bodies ‘A and B’ of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid partition. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. A force of 200N is applied horizontally at ‘A’ action reaction force between A and B is (g = 10 m/sec²)

1) 170 N

2) 200 N

3) 190 N

4) 210 N

Question 4 of 180

5. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 10³ kg/m³ with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are 8 × 10³ kg/m³ and 11 × 10³ kg/m³ The ratio of their radii is

1) 11/8

2) √(11/8)

3) 3/2

4) √(3/2)

Question 5 of 180

6. A ‘2Mev’ proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ‘2.5 Tesla’. The force on the proton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10^-27 kg)

1) 3×10^-10 N

2) 8× 10^-11 N

3) 3×10^-11N

4) 8×10^-12N

Question 6 of 180

7. A thin ring has mass M and radius R. Its moment of inertia about the axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is...

A. MR²

B. M²R

C. M/R²

D. M²/R

Question 7 of 180

8. In a uniform segment of a circuit the current is proportional to the...

A. density of the segment

B. resistance of the segment

C. volume of the segment

D. potential difference at its ends

Question 8 of 180

9. A boy swings from a rope 4.9 m long. His approximate period of oscillation is...

A. 0.5 s

B. 3.1 s

C. 4.4 s

D. 12 s

Question 9 of 180

10. Of the following the one that is a vector is...

A. electric charge

B. electric field

C. electric energy

D. potential difference

Question 10 of 180

11. To keep a vehicle moving at the speed v requires a force F. The power needed is...

A. F.v

B. (1/2)F.v²

C. F/v

D. F/v²

Question 11 of 180

12. The image a camera forms on the film is...

A. always real

B. always virtual

C. always erect

D. sometimes inverted

Question 12 of 180

13. The aperture of the objective lens of a telescope is made large so as to

1) Increase the magnifying power of the telescope

2) Increase the resolving power of the telescope

3) Focus on distant objects

4) Ease of Manufacture

Question 13 of 180

14. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

1) Temperature on ideal gas scale

2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale

3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale

4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

Question 14 of 180

15. Gas at a pressure ‘P₀’ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their r.m.s speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

1) 4P₀

2) 2P₀

3) P₀

4) P₀/2

Question 15 of 180

16. A rocket of initial mass 'm₀' moving with velocity ‘v’ discharges a jet of gases of mean density ‘ρ’ and effective area ‘A’ the minimum value of ‘v’ of fuel gas, which enables the rocket to rise vertically above is nearly

1) √(ρg)/(m₀A)

2) √(ρgA)/m₀

3) √(m₀g)/(ρA)

4) √(2m₀gA)/ρ

Question 16 of 180

17. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 17 of 180

18. For a projectile, its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are equal, maximum height reached by it is (‘u’ is initial velocity of the projectile)

1) u²/2g

2) 3u²/4g

3) 16u²/17g

4) 8u²/17g

Question 18 of 180

19. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1:4 produce an interference pattern the fringe visibility will be

1) 1

2) 0.8

3)0.4

4) 0.6

Question 19 of 180

20. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

1) A meter scale

2) A vernier callipers where the ‘10’ divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in ‘1 cm’

3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

Question 20 of 180

21. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

1) The kinetic energy of α-particle is zero

2) The kinetic energy of daughter nucleus is always less than kinetic energy of α-particle

3) The magnitude of linear momentum of α-particle and daughter nucleus are not equal

4) The daughter nucleus is always stable

Question 21 of 180

22. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

A. 40 °C

B. 80 °C

C. 313 °C

D. 586 °C

Question 22 of 180

23. The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is ‘4.5 joule’. The charge on the sphere is '4μc' its radius will be [(1/4πε₀)=9×10⁹ N - m²c^-2]

1) 4mm

2) 8 mm

3) 2mm

4) 16 mm

Question 23 of 180

24. A block of mass 10kg moving in X-direction with a constant speed of 10 msec^-1, is subjected to a retarding force F = (x/10) (Joule/meter) during its travel from x=10m to x=20m its final kenetic energy will be (in Joule)

1) 475

2) 450

3) 485

4) 515

Question 24 of 180

25. In the figure shown a source of sound of frequency 510 Hz move with constant velocity V_s=20 m/ s in the direction shown. The wind is blowing at a constant velocity V_w=20 m/S towards an observer who is at rest at point B. Corresponding to the sound emitted by the source in initial position A, the frequency detected by the observer is equal to (speed of sound relative to air = 330 m/s)

1) 510 Hz

2) 500 Hz

3) 525 Hz

4) 550 Hz

Question 25 of 180

26. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6. The amount of water should be put inside the balloon so that it accelerates down at rate of g/6. (Assume buoyancy force remains the same)

1) m/5

2) 2m/5

3) 3m/5

4) 4m/5

Question 26 of 180

27. The radius of the planet is ‘R’ A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius ‘r’ with an angular velocity ‘ω’. The acceleration due to the gravity onthe planet surface is

1) r³ω/R

2) r³ω³/R

3) r³ω²/R

4) r³ω²/R²

Question 27 of 180

28. Magnetic moment and angular moment of revolving electron in a hydrogen atom ‘M’ and ‘L’ respectively then

1) (M/L) = (e/2m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

2) (M/L) = (e/2m);M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

3) (M/L) = (2e/m); M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

4) (M/L) = (4e/m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

Question 28 of 180

29. If the velocity v of a particle moving along a straight line decreases linearly with its displacement ‘S’ from 20ms-1 to a value approaching zero at S=30m. Then acceleration of the particle at S=15m is

1) 2/3 ms-2

2) -2/3 ms-2

3) 20/3 ms-2

4) -20/3 ms-2

Question 29 of 180

30. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

A. frequency

B. amplitude

C. wavelength

D. both frequency and amplitude

Question 30 of 180

31. When the velocity of a moving object is doubled...

A. its acceleration is doubled

B. its momentum is doubled

C. its kinetic energy is doubled

D. its potential energy is doubled

Question 31 of 180

32. A voltage of peak value 283 volt and varying frequency is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which R =3 ohm, ‘L=25 mH and C = 40μF . The frequency of the source at which maximum power is dissipated in the circuit is

1) (5000/π) Hz

2) (50/π)Hz

3) (500/π)Hz

4) (5/π)Hz

Question 32 of 180

33. The power of a lens having refractive index 1.25 is +3 diopters. When placed in a liquid its power is -2 diopters. The refractive index of the liquid is

1) 1.2

2) 1.4

3) 1.5

4) 1.6

Question 33 of 180

34. A wave represented by the given equation y = a cos(kx - ωt) is superposed with another wave to form a stationary wave such that the point x=0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is

1) y = a sin(kx + ωt)

2) y = -a cos(kx + ωt)

3) y = -a cos(kx - ωt)

4) y = -a sin(kx - ωt)

Question 34 of 180

35. The given graph represents V – I characteristic for a semiconductor device

Which of the following statement is correct

1) It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

2) It is for a LED and points A and B represents open circuit voltage and short circuit current respectively

3) It is V – I characteristic for solar cell where point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current

4) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

Question 35 of 180

36. A cable stretches by amount 'a' under a certain load. If it is replaced by a cable of the same material but half as long and half the diameter, the same load will stretch it by...

A. a/4

B. a/2

C. a

D. 2a

Question 36 of 180

37. Two equal masses ‘A and B’ moving along the same straight line with velocities 3i m/sec and '-5i m/sec respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively

1) 4i m/sec for both

2) -3i m/sec and 5i m/sec

3) -4i m/sec and 4i m/sec

4) -5i m/sec and 3i m/sec

Question 37 of 180

38. The distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is...

A. λ

B. λ/2

C. λ/3

D. λ/4

Question 38 of 180

39. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates

1) OR

2) NAND

3)AND

4) NOR

Question 39 of 180

40. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 600, the angle of refraction ‘A’, angle of deviation ‘δ ’ and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is

1) 1.73

2) 1.15

3) 1.5

4) 1.33

Question 40 of 180

41. The value of the stopping potential depends on...

A. the intensity of light

B. the frequency of light

C. the metal surface area

D. the charge on the electron

Question 41 of 180

42. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of emf ‘e’ is balanced at a length l/5 from the positive end of the wire. Assuming there is no contribution in resistance from any part of the circuit except the potentiometer wire, the balancing length for the same cell if length of the wire is increased by l/2 is

1) 2l/15

2) 3 l /15

3) 3 l /10

4) 4 l /10

Question 42 of 180

43. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 'λ₁'and 'λ₂' respectively are placed at a distance ‘R’. The force per unit length on either wire will be (k = (1/4πε₀))

1) K [2λ₁λ₂/R²]

2) K [2λ₁λ₂/R]

3) K[λ₁λ₂/R²]

4) K[λ₁λ₂/R]

Question 43 of 180

44. A thin circular loop of radius ‘R’ rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ‘ ’. A small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω ≤ √(g/R) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = √(2g/R) (Neglect the friction)

1) 300

2) 600

3) 450

4) 1200

Question 44 of 180

45. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents ‘SHM’

a) Y = sinωt - cosωt

b) Y = Sin³ ωt

c) Y = 5 cos[(3π/4) - 3ωt]

d) Y = 1 + ωt + ω²t²

1) only ‘a’ and ‘b’

2) only ‘a’

3) only ‘a’ and ‘d’

4) only ‘a’ and ‘c’

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. Number of amembraneous structures from the following is/areRibosome, Centriole, Cytoskeleton, Peroxisome, Nucleolus, Inclusion bodies, Power house of the cell

1) 7

2) 5

3) 6

4) 4

Question 46 of 180

47. A family not delimited by the type of inflorescence is

1) Asteraceae

2) Poaceae

3) Liliaceae

4) Euphorbiaceae

Question 47 of 180

48. Colchicine is an alkaloid used to double the number of chromosomes (Polyplody). It is obtained from

1) Rhizome of colchicum autumnale

2) Corms of C. autumnale

3) Bulbs of C. autumnale

4) Root tubers of C. autumnale

Question 48 of 180

49. Processes which can never occur in the structure called “Cell brain” are

A. Polymerisation of ribonucleotides

B. Synthesis of ‘energy currency of cell’

C. Polymerisation of deoxyribonucleotides

D. Polymerisation of amino acids

1) A and B

2) C and D

3) A and C

4) B and D

Question 49 of 180

50. Pioneers of xerarch succession are

1) Vascular archegoniates

2) Archegoniate spermatophytes

3) Non- archegoniate spermatophytes

4) Composite plants having thalloid body with light harvesting pigments and thalloid bodywith chitinous cellwalls

Question 50 of 180

51. If 24 molecules of erythrose-4- phosphate are formed in Calvin cycle. What is the number of CO2 molecules fixed?

1) 48

2) 72

3) 52

4) 36

Question 51 of 180

52. In dicotyledonous stem, which of the following is the sequence of tissues from inside to outside?

1) Pith, phloem, cambium protoxylem, metaxylem, pericycle, parenchyma, collenchyma, endodermis and epidermis

2) Pith, cambium, phloem, protoxylem, metaxylem, pericycle, endodermis, parenchyma, collenchyma and epidermis

3)Pith, phloem, protoxylem, metaxylem, cambium, pericycle, endodermis, parenchyma, collenchyma and epidermis

4) Pithm protoxylem, metaxylem, cambium, phloem, pericycle,endodermis, parenchyma, collenchyma and epidermis

Question 52 of 180

53. An abnormality in humans called ‘Sickle cell anemia’ is resulted due to point mutation leading to the change of

1) Glutamate in to valine

2) Valine into glutamate

3)Alamine into Senine

4) Glycine into valine

Question 53 of 180

54. Match the items of Column-I with those in Column-II
A B C D E

1) R P T S Q

2) Q P S R T

3) S P Q T R

4) P T R Q S

Question 54 of 180

55. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

1) 5n, 4n, 7n

2) 7n, 5n, 4n

3) 4n, 5n, 7n

4) 5n, 7n, 4n

Question 55 of 180

56. How many DNA fragments will be obtained on the digestion of a linear DNA and a circular DNA with a type of restriction enzyme having four recognition sites in both the cases?

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 56 of 180

57. A cell is kept in hypotonic solution, after sometime is

1) OP ↓ and Ψ_S ↑

2) Ψ_W↑ and DPD ↓

3) Ψ_P and TP both ↑

4) all of the above

Question 57 of 180

58. Ψ_wand Ψ_pare zero respectively for

1) Pure water and Flaccid cell

2) Flaccid cell and Turgid cell

3) Pure water and Turgid cell

4) Flaccid cell and Pure water

Question 58 of 180

59. Read carefully the table and fill up the blanks;

A,B,C and D in the above table refer to

1) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Starch and Laminarin; C-Cellulose; D-2-10 equal apical

2) A-chlorophyll-a and c; B-Mannitol and starch; C-Cellulose & algin, D-2-8 equal lateral

3) A-chlorophyll-a and b; B-Floridean starch; C-Cellulose & algin; D-Not present

4) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Mannitol and floridean; C-Cellulose; starch; D-Not present

Question 59 of 180

60. The needle like cladodes of Asparagus are metamorphosed stem for

1) reducing transpiration

2) increasing photosynthesis

3) protecting plant from browsing

4) none of the above

Question 60 of 180

61. Select the correct statement regarding activated sludge formed during secondary sewage treatment

1) A small part of it is rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank

2) It absorbs pathogenic bacteria present in waster water while sinking to the bottom of the settling tank

3) A major part of it is anaerobically digested

4) Both (a) and (c)

Question 61 of 180

62. The minerals involved in water-splitting reaction during light phase of photosynthesis is/are

1) Calcium, Magnesium and Chlorine

2) Calcium, Potassium and Manganese

3) Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine

4) Calcium, Molydenum and Manganese

Question 62 of 180

63. The phytohormone/s which play(s) an important role in development, maturation and dormancy of seeds is
I. GA3 II. ABA III. IAA IV. Kinetin

1) I and III

2) II and III

3) II alone

4) III and IV

Question 63 of 180

64. After initial growth maize stem elongates by the activity of

1) Intercalary meristem

2) Intrafascicular cambium

3) Interfascicular cambium

4) Secondary cortical cambium

Question 64 of 180

65. Which of the following is true statement

1) Pribnow box lies in mRNA in upstream stream sequence.

2) In clover leaf model of tRNA, amino acid is attached to 5’ by ester bond, if it is a charged one

3) Translation is initiated by factor, formed of -chain, of RNA polymerase enzyme

4) Sn RNA, 5S RNA and tRNA are transcribed with the help of RNA polymerase lll in eukaryotes

Question 65 of 180

66. Ability of sigma to recognise the pollen whether it is of right type or the wrong type

1) Starts by a chemical dialogue between pollen and stigma

2) Can occur even inside the styler canal when pollen tube growth is inhibited

3) Is called pollen-pistil interaction

4) All are correct

Question 66 of 180

67. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground tissue system of roots, is characterised by

1) Casparian bands

2) Starch grains

3) Complementary cells

4) Intercellular spaces

Question 67 of 180

68. The following set of cell organs are included in endomembrane system

1) Lysosomes, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

2) Dictyosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

3) Glyoxysome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

4) ER, Golgicomplex, Suicidal bags, Vacuoles

Question 68 of 180

69. Consider the following statements and select the wrong one

1) Motile spores and gametes are absent in Rhodophyceae

2) Perfect stages are rare of occurrence in Deuteromycetes

3) Though sex organs are formed, sexual reproduction is missing in Basidiomycates

4) All bryophytes are homosporons

Question 69 of 180

70. Which of the following statement is wrong?

1) Uracil is a pyrimidine

2) Sucrose is a disaccharide

3) Cellulose is a homopolysaccharide

4) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid

Question 70 of 180

71. Which of the following transforms more amount of radiant energy into chemical energy

1) P700 chl a

2) P680 chl a

3) Lycopene

4) Phycoerythrin

Question 71 of 180

72. Find the correct match
I) Aspergillus niger — fungus — citric acid
II) Streptococcus — bacterium — streptokinase
III) Trichoderma polysporum — fungus — cyclosporin A
IV) Monascus purpureus — yeast — statins
The correct answer is

1) I, II, IV only

2) I, II, III only

3) II, III, IV only

4) I, II, III, IV

Question 72 of 180

73. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon compound by a reaction between

1) Succinic acid and pyruvic acid

2) Malic acid and Acetyl CO-A

3) Fumaric acid and pyruvic acid

4) OAA and Acetyl CO-A

Question 73 of 180

74. A cell under hypertonic solution shows incipient plasmolysis, then what will be present between cell wall and cell membrane

1) Water with Ψ_W zero

2) Solution with same Ψ_W , as solution out the cell

3) Water with slightly high Ψ_W as compare to solution outside the cell

4) Vacume

Question 74 of 180

75. Which of the following four phases, in the post emergence life of an angiospermic plant, begins just after germination of seed and ends when the plant develops the capacity to reproduce ?

1) Death

2) Maturity

3) Ageing

4) Juvenility

Question 75 of 180

76. Select the incorrect statements

(i) Cell organelle within cell organelle is plasmosome

(ii) Factory of protein factories is ergosome

(iii) Membraneless non-cell organelle is centrosome

(iv) nucleosomes are ribonucleoprotein bodies

(v) A eukaryotic cell in a eukaryotic cell is vegetative cell

1) ii, iii and iv only

2) i, iv and v only

3) iii, iv and v only

4) i, ii, iii, iv and v only

Question 76 of 180

77. Which of the following statements about classification is true?

i) Members of a family are less similar than members of an included genus

ii) An order has more members than the number of members in as included genus

iii) Families have more members than phyla

iv) Members of a family share a common ancestor in the more distance past than members of an included genus

v) The number of species in a taxon depends on their relative degree of similiarity

1) i, ii, iii, and iv

2) i, ii, iv and v

3) ii, iii and v

4) All of these

Question 77 of 180

78. The correct sequence of electron acceptors in respiratory electron transport is

1) Cyt a, a3, c

2) cyt b, c, a, a3

3) cyt c, b, a, a3

4) Cyt a3, c, b, a

Question 78 of 180

79. The leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in mature plant in

1) China rose

2) Mango

3) Delphenium

4) Nerium

Question 79 of 180

80. Which of the following is a correct match

1) Zn++ - an activator of alcohol dehydrogenase

2) Mn++ and Mo-an activator of PEP case

3) Fe+++ - activator of succinate dehydrogenase

4) Cu – part of cyta and cyta3

Question 80 of 180

81. Study the following diagrams & choose the correct option.

1) It is a dioecious pteridophyte producing antheridiophore and archegoniophore

2) It is a dioecious alga producing antheridiophore and archegoniophore

3) a- Male plant of Marchantia, b-Female plant of Marchantia

4) a- Female plant of Marchantia, b-Male plant of Marchantia

Question 81 of 180

82. Deficiency of the following nutrients causes inhibition of cell division, delay in flowering and chlorosis

1) Nitrogen and Sulphur

2) Potassium and Magnesium

3) Calcium and copper

4) Zinc and Molybdenum

Question 82 of 180

83. Meiosis involves

1. One nuclear, one chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

2. Two nuclear, one chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, one cycle of DNA replication

3. One nuclear, two chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

4. Two nuclear, two chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, two cycles of DNA replication

Question 83 of 180

84. Which of the following statements are correct

A. Guttation is the manifestation of root pressure

B. Natural antitranspirant is PMA

C. Turgor pressure, wall pressure
and pressure potential of a cell, all are numerically equal with same sign

D. High nitrogen to carbon ratio is found in Ureids

1) A B C only

2) B, C, D only

3) A B C D only

4) A, C, D only

Question 84 of 180

85. Wall less protistans among the following are

1) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella

2) Paramoecium & Amoeba

3) Nostoc & Anabaena

4) Diatoms & Dinoflagellates

Question 85 of 180

86. S-I : Virus resistant plants can be recovered from virus infected plants in Potato and Banana by shoot apex culture

S-II : Pollen culture involving colchicine treatment always results in the production of male homozygous diploid plants only.

1) S-I is true and S-II is false

2) S-I is false and S-II is true

3) S-I and S-II are false

4) S-I and S-II are true

Question 86 of 180

87. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M-phase, what will be the content of DNA at G1 phase chromosome and S - phase chromosome of mitosis?

1) 2C & 4C

2) 4C & 4C

3) 4C & 2C

4) 2C & 3C

Question 87 of 180

88. ‘Vascular cryptogams’ are not the first group to exhibit

1) Heterospory

2) Root system

3) Complex tissues

4) Homospory

Question 88 of 180

89. How many plants among the following have opposite phyllotaxy. China rose, Sun flower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium?

1) Two

2) Three

3) Four

4) Five

Question 89 of 180

90. Fuel of photosynthetic carbon oxidation, is

1) Glycerate

2) Glycolate

3) Glyceride

4) Glyoxylate

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. The Epithelium given below is not found in

1) moist surface of Pharynx

2) Lining of Pancreatic duct

3) Largest endocrine gland

4) Ducts of salivary glands

Question 91 of 180

92. In kidneys, renal papillae are part of

1) renal columns

2) columns of Bertini

3) renal pelvis

4) medullary pyramids

Question 92 of 180

93. A phenomena in which a bee visits a flower at the same time every day is called

1) biological clock

2) circadian rhythm

3) commensalism

4) mutualism

Question 93 of 180

94. How many of the following statements are wrong w.r.t. STDs?

A. AIDs is the most dangerous STD.

B. Hepatitis B, genital herpes and HIV infection are not curable

C. Ectopic pregnancy and cancer are not included under the complications of STDs

D. The incidence of STDs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 yearsx

1) One

2) Two

3) Three

4) Four

Question 94 of 180

95. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?
Examples Type of immunity
1) Polymorphonuclear

leucocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers
2) anti-tetanus and anti-snake

bite injections Active immunity
3) Saliva in mouth and

tears in eyes Physical barriers
4) mucous coating of epithelium lining Physiological barriers
the urinogenital tract and the HCl in stomach

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

Question 95 of 180

96. Given below are four statements A-D w.r.t. mechanism of muscle contraction. Choose from the option stating them as true (T) and false (F)

A. The action potential in the sarcolemma is generated by release of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm

B. The globular head of meromyosin possesses ATPase enzyme activity which causes hydrolysis of ATP and the energy derived make myosin head bind to exposed active sites on actin.

C. Cross bridge formation is followed by pulling the attached myosin filaments towards the centre of ‘I’ band.

D. The breaking of cross bridge requires binding of new ATP at the myosin head.

A B C D

1) T T F T

2) F T F F

3) F T F T

4) T F F T

Question 96 of 180

97. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart are partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

1) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.

2) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.

3) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.

4) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.

Question 97 of 180

98. A 26 years old female has 2 offsprings(NOTE:not twins). If menses start at the age of 12 years then the number of ova formed are

1) 270

2) 2

3) 288

4) 8

Question 98 of 180

99. The last two pairs of ribs are named floating ribs, because

1) their sterna parts are attached to the sternum directly

2) their sterna parts are attached on the seventh pair of ribs

3) their sterna parts remain free and do not even reach the sternum

4) they float in the body cavity

Question 99 of 180

100. Which of the following is responsible for rejection of graft ?

1) Cell mediated immunity

2) Antibody mediated immunity

3) Cytokine barrier

4) Inflammation

Question 100 of 180

101. How many of the given statements are wrong?

A. The rate of diffusion of gas at the respiratory membrane depends upon its solubility as well as on the thickness of membrane

B. The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference if partial pressure is much higher when compared to that of O2

C. Oxygen can bind with haemoglobin in an irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin

D. The factors responsible for formation of oxyhaemoglobin include high pO2, low pCO2, high H+ concentration and low temperature.

1) One

2) Two

2) Three

4) Four

Question 101 of 180

102. The diagram shows an antibody molecule. Identify A to F.

1) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

2) A-Antigen binding site; B-Constant region (of L-Chain); C-Variable region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain(L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

3) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Heavy polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Light polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

4) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

Question 102 of 180

103. A sensitized Rh --ve woman gives birth dizygotic twins with different Rh phenotypes then

1) Type II hyper sensitivity reaction is seen in both the off springs

2) IgG after transplacental migration cause HDNB in both

3) Erythroblastosis foetalis is in off spring with dominant allele

4) Both off springs remain unaffected

Question 103 of 180

104. The following depiction is the karyotype of “Cinderalla of genetics”

The sex of the Hexapod should beThe sex of the Hexapod should be

1) Inter sex

2) Meta male

3) Female

4) Meta Female

Question 104 of 180

105. The area where wild populations, traditional life styles and genetic resources are protected is

1) Core zone

2) Buffer zone

3) Biosphere reserve

4) Manipulation zone

Question 105 of 180

106. Amniocentesis is a technique

1) by which the essential amino acids in the body can be estimated

2) by which any chromosomal anomalies in the foetus can be detected

3) in which the sex of the foetus can be reversed

4) that can be used for correcting genetic disorders of the foetus

Question 106 of 180

107. According to 2001 census report, the population growth rate of India was

1) 17/1000/year

2) 25/1000/year

3) 33/1000/year

4) 8/1000/year

Question 107 of 180

108. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 108 of 180

109. In which one of the following , erythrocytes are repositories of more ions as compared to others?

1) Carotid artery

2) Jugular vein

3) Pulmonary vein

4) Renal artery

Question 109 of 180

110. The concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels in a food chain, through

1) Anthropogenic Eutrophication

2) Biomagnification

3)Cultural Eutrophication

4) Ecological Succession

Question 110 of 180

111. Alienate the number of incorrect statement(s)

S1: Laccifer lacks circulatory system.

S2: Neries have nephridia but no nephrons

S3: Silver fish is Non-operculate marine fish

S4: Neophron has both neurons and nephrons

1) Two

2) Three

3) One

4) Four

Question 111 of 180

112. In a population of 60,000 individuals if the frequency of dominant allele is 60%. Then extrapolate the % of Dominant individuals

1) 16%

2) 84%

3) 36%

4) 48%

Question 112 of 180

113. Find out the correctly matching set

1) Gamitocytes – Infective stages of plasmodium to man

2) IgE anti body – Rich in colostrums

3) Metagenesis – Malignant tumor

4) SCID – Somatic line gene therapy

Question 113 of 180

114. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates 5. Annelid

1) a – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 5, E – 3

2) a – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 3

3) a – 5, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2, E – 4

4) a – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2

Question 114 of 180

115. Olfactory bulbs are extensions of

1) Lymphatic system

2) Limbic system

3) Diencephalon

4) Mesencephalon

Question 115 of 180

116. Complete the following Analogy

Seminal Vesicle: Cockroach: : --------: human

1) Spermatheca

2) rete-testis

3) Epididymis

4) Oothecal chamber

Question 116 of 180

117. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 117 of 180

118. In present times the origin of life is not possible from inorganic compounds due to

1) Raw material not available

2) High O2 in atmosphere

3) Decrease in temperature

4) Excess of pollution

Question 118 of 180

119. Observe the following

The above device is used to

1) Reduce Particulate pollution

2) Remove SO2

3) Reduce automobile emissions

4) limit noise pollution

Question 119 of 180

120. The three-chambered heart of frog is not as efficient as the human heart with four chambers, because

1) the muscles of the heart are not strong

2) both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the ventricle

3) the ventricle cannot pump blood properly

4) it cannot hold enough quantity of blood

Question 120 of 180

121. The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic process. On this basis fill up A and B boxes in the given diagram with correct options

1) A = Natality + Immigration, B = Mortality + Emigration

2) A = Natality + Mortality, B = Immigration + Emigration

3) A = Birth rate + Death rate, B = Migration + Emigration

4) A = Natality + Emigration, B = Mortality + Immigration

Question 121 of 180

122. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates 5. Annelid

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 122 of 180

123. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, select the option that correctly fills the blanks A,B and C

A B C

(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin

(2) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone

(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin

(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin

Question 123 of 180

124. The four structure listed are part of the human excretory system.
I. Bladder II. Kidney III. Ureter IV. Urethra
In which order does a molecule of urea pass through these structures?

1) 1-I,1-II, 1-III, 1-IV

2) 2-I, 2-IV, 2-III, 2-II,

3) 3-II, 3-I, 3-III, 3-IV,

4) 4-II, 4-III, 4-I, 4-IV,

Question 124 of 180

125. Which of the following structures are found in female cockroach ?

1) Caudal styles

2) Phallomeres

3) Spermathecae

4) Seminal vesicles

Question 125 of 180

126. Following is a diagrammatic representation of endocrine glands with a labelled part ‘A’. The part ‘A’ serves as the connection between

1) Hypothalamus and adenohypophysis

2) Hypothalamus and neurohypophysis

3) Hypothalamus and pars nervosa

4) Hypothalamus and epiphysis

Question 126 of 180

127. Find out the correct labelling of bones A, B, C and D in the given figure

1) A-Clavicle B-Humerus C-Ulna D-Radius

2) A-Clavicle B-Humerus C-Radius D-Ulna

3) A-Scapula B-Humerus C-Ulna D-Ulna

4) A-Clavicle B-Femur C-Radius D-Ulna

Question 127 of 180

128. Choose the wrong statement.

1) In grasshoppers, besides autosomes, males have only one X-chromosome, whereas femaleshave a pair of X-chromosomes.

2) In Xy type of sex determination, both males and females have same number ofchromosomes.

3) In Drosophila, males have one X and one y chromosome, whereas females have a pair of Xchromosomebesides autosomes.

4) In insects with XO type of sex determination, all sperms bear X-chromosome besidesautosomes.

Question 128 of 180

129. When light incidents on photoreceptor cells of the retina of eye ,their membrane is

1) hyperpolarized

2) depolarized

3) repolarized

4) none of the above.

Question 129 of 180

130. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli, atmospheric air and tissue will be ------- mm of Hg

1) 40, 159, 45

2) 40, 0.3, 45

3) 104, 159, 40

4) 104, 0.3, 45

Question 130 of 180

131. Following is a diagrammatic representation of a nephron showing blood vessels, duct and tubule. These structures have been labelled as A, B, C etc., Answer the questions that follow.

(i) Which parts are located in cortical region of kidney?

(ii) Which structure is highly reduced in cortical nephrons?

(iii) Identify the part F. (iv) Which parts collectively form Malpighian body?

1) (i) A, C, D, E (ii) B (iii) Collecting duct (iv) A and C

2) (i) A, C, D, E (ii) B (iii) Vasa recta (iv) A and C

3) (i) B, F, G, H (ii) F (iii) Vasa recta (iv) A and D

4) (i) B, F, G, H (ii) F (iii) Collecting duct (iv) C and D

Question 131 of 180

132. Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during spermatogenesis, some sperms carry both sex
chromosomes (22A + XY) and some sperms do not carry any sex chromosome (22A + O). If these sperms fertilise normal eggs (22A + X), what types of genetic disorders appear among the offsprings?

1) Klinefelter’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

2) Down’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome

3) Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

4) Down’s syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome

Question 132 of 180

133. Who was awarded the three prizes widely regarded as the triple crown of biology

1) Linnaeus

2) Darwin

3) Ernst Mayr

4) Mendel

Question 133 of 180

134. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

1) A-1000, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

2) A-1400, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

3) A-1000, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

4) A-1400, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

Question 134 of 180

135. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the outer side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

1) First positive, then negative and again back to positive

2) First negative, then positive and again back to negative

3) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative

4) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. The weight of H₂O₂present in 80 ml of 10V H₂O₂ solution is

1) 3.2 gr

2) 4.2 gr

3) 2.4 gr

4) 3.6 gr

Question 136 of 180

137. 20g of naphthoic acid (C₁₁H₈O₂) is dissolved in 50g of benzene, then freezing point depression of 2K is observed for solution. The vant hoff factor will be ( K_f for benzene=1.72 Kg Mol^-1)

1) 0.75

2) 2

3) 0.5

4) 3

Question 137 of 180

138. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?

1) Pyrolusite

2) Magnetite

3)Malachite

4) Cassiterite

Question 138 of 180

139. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl₃solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

1) peptisation

2) dialysis

3) osmosis

4) coagulation

Question 139 of 180

140. A possitive carbylamine test is given by

1) N,N – dimethyl aniline

2) Isopropyl amine

3) diethyl amine

4) trimethyl amine

Question 140 of 180

141. The vapour pressure of a dilute solution of glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373K. The mole fraction of solute is

1) 1/7.6

2) 1/76

3) 1/35

4) 1/10

Question 141 of 180

142. DNA & RNA are chiral molecules due to the presence of

1) Chiral bases

2) Phosphate ester unit

3) D- sugar component

4) L – sugar component

Question 142 of 180

143. The conductivity of saturated solution of BaSO₄is 3.06×10^-6 mho cm^-1and its equivalent conductance is 1.53 mho cm^-2 eq^-1. Then K_sp for BaSO₄ will be

1) 4×10^-12M

2) 1×10⁶M

3) 4×10⁶M²

4) 1×10^-6M²

Question 143 of 180

144. What will be the equivalent weight of H₃PO₃ in the following reaction. 4H₃PO₃ → 3H₃PO₄+PH₃

1) M/6

2) 2M/3

3) M/12

4) M/2

Question 144 of 180

145. For one mole of a vanderwaal’s gaswhen b=0 and T=300K, the PV vs1/V plot is shown below. The value of vander waal’s constant ‘a’ in atm.lit² mole^-2is (graph not to scale)

1) 1.0

2)4.5

3) 1.5

4) 3.0

Question 145 of 180

146. The pair of molecules having same geometry and same bond angles are

1) NH₄+,PCl3

2) NH4+ , CH4

3) H2O , SO2

4) NH3 , PH3

Question 146 of 180

147. Most basic and acidic oxides are formed by the following 3rd period elements.

1) Cs, Cl

2) Na, Cl

3) Na, F

4) Cs, S

Question 147 of 180

148. Xe has max. EN in:-

1) XeF₂

2) XeF₄

3) XeO₄

4) XeOF₂

Question 148 of 180

149. Which one of the following oxyacids of chlorine is the least
oxidising in nature

1) HOCl

2) HClO₂

3) HClO₄

4) HClO₃

Question 149 of 180

150. Which of the following is used as “morning after pill”?

1) Ethynyl estradiol

2) Mifepristone

3) Norethindrone

4) Promethazine

Question 150 of 180

151. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C₆H₅CO NH₂ II) Pyridine
III) C₆H₅-N=N-C₆H₅

1) I,III

2) II,III

3) III,IV

4) I,II

Question 151 of 180

152. The molecule which is having maximum number of lone pair

1) SiF₄

2) BrF₃

3) XeF₂

4) SF₄

Question 152 of 180

153. A and B are compounds of sodium. ‘A’ is thermally stable. On passing CO₂through aq. solution
‘A’, ‘B’ is formed. ‘B’ on heating gives ‘A’. Phenolpthalein is added to aqueous solutions of A, B.
The colours are

1) colourless, colourless

2) pink, pink

3) colourless, pink

4) pink, colourless

Question 153 of 180

154. In Kjeldahl ‘s method, the nitrogen gas evolved from 1.325 g sample of a fertilizer is passed into 50.0 mL of 0.2030 N H₂SO₄mL of 0.1980 N NaOH are required for the titration of unused acid. The percentage of nitrogen in fertilizer is

1) 10.86%

2) 21.72 %

3) 5.43 %

4) 2.75 %

Question 154 of 180

155. Which of the following has minimum flocculation value for positively charged sol ?

1) Cl^-

2) SO₄^2-

3) PO₄^3-

4) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-

Question 155 of 180

156. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M-O-H and M¹-O-H have been prepared in two different
beakers. If the electronegativity of M=3.5, M¹=0.9, O=3.5 and H=2.1, then the solutions respectively are

1) acidic, acidic

2) acidic, basic

3) basic, basic

4) basic, acidic

Question 156 of 180

157.

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

1) 4 : 5

2) 5 : 4

3) 1 : 1

4) 2 : 3

Question 157 of 180

158. At Boyles temperature, compressibility factor Z for a real gas is

1) Z = 1

2) Z = 0

3) Z > 1

4) Z >> 1

Question 158 of 180

159. The impure 7g of NaCl is dissolved in water and then treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The weight of precipitate of silver chloride is found to be 14g. The % purity of NaCl solution would be (M. Wt of AgCl = 143.5, NaCl = 58.5)

1) 81.5%

2) 63%

3) 93%

4) 77%

Question 159 of 180

160. The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1eV The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na⁺ will be

1) -2.55eV

2) -5.1eV

3) -10.21eV

4) +2.55eV

Question 160 of 180

161. An oxide of Nitrogen which form reddish brown fumes in air is

1) N₂O

2) NO₂

3) NO

4) N₂O₃

Question 161 of 180

162. When two moles of an ideal gas (C_pm=(5/2)R) heated from 300K to 600K at constant pressure. The change in entropy of gas (∆s ) is

1) (3/2)R ln2

2) (-3/2)R ln2

3) 5R ln2

4) (5/2)R ln2

Question 162 of 180

163. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 ×10^-2
mol L^-1 min^-1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reactant. The
half life of the reaction is

1) 23.1 min

2) 8.73 min

3) 7.53 min

4) 0.383 min

Question 163 of 180

164. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 164 of 180

165. At what temperature will average speed of the molecules of the second member of the series C_nH_2nbe the same of Cl₂ at 627⁰C?

1) 259.4K

2) 400K

3) 532.4K

4) 628K

Question 165 of 180

166. Compound having least heat of hydrogenation:

Question 166 of 180

167. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom?

1) 127 pm

2) 157 pm

3) 181 pm

4) 108 pm

Question 167 of 180

168. Which of the substances added to soap make it antiseptic?

1) Iodine

2) KMnO4

3) Bithional

4) Cl2

Question 168 of 180

169. An acid-base indicator has a In K_ln of 3 ×10^-5. The acid form of indicator is red and the basic form is blue.
Then

1) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 50%blue.

2) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75%red.

3) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 75%red

4) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75%blue.

Question 169 of 180

170. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

1) Teflon –Additional polymer

2) Gun cotton –synthetic polymer

3) Protein – natural polymer

4) Nylon-6, 6 – condensation polymer

Question 170 of 180

171. Which of the following amines form N-nitroso derivative when treated with NaNO₂and HCl

1) CH3NH2

2) C₆H₅ - NH₂

3) C₆H₅ - NH - R

Question 171 of 180

172. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form ‘A’ . ‘A’ is dissolved in water to give ‘Y’. The basicity of ‘Y’ is

1) 1

2) 2

3) 0

4) 3

Question 172 of 180

173. The values of electro negativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage ionic character of A-B bond is

1) 50%

2) 72.24%

3) 55.3%

4) 43%

Question 173 of 180

174.

1) Glyptal

2) Dacron

3) Nylon-6,6

4) Nylon-6

Question 174 of 180

175. The most volatile alkane is

1) n – pentane

2) isopentane

3) neopentane

4) n–hexane

Question 175 of 180

176. The correct order of increasing acidic strength of the compounds
A) CH₃CO₂H
B) MeOCH₂CO₂H
C) CF₃CO₂H

1) D < A < B < C

2) A < D < B < C

3) B < D < A < C

4) D < A < C < B

Question 176 of 180

177. Assertion: Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
Reason: ΔH_f⁰ of graphite is taken as zero

1) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2) Both assertion and reason are correct reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion.

3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.

4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

Question 177 of 180

178. Find correct statement

1) KMnO₄ is coloured due to d-d transition

2) K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is low spin complex

3) Zn and Cd are transition metal

4) All lanthanoids are radioactive

Question 178 of 180

179. I_2(aq)+ I^-(aq) --> I^-_3(aq)+We started with 1 mole of I^₂and 0.5 mole of I^- in one litre flask. After equilibrium is reached excess of AgNO₃ gave 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate. Then
Equilibrium constant is

1) 1.33

2) 2.66

3) 2.0

4) 3.0

Question 179 of 180

180. Which property is common in diamond and graphite

1) Electrical conductivity

2) Crystal structure

3) Relative atomic mass

4) Density

Question 180 of 180

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