NEET Free Mock Test 2 – india vidya

NEET examination is one of the toughest exams in the country. NEET is aimed at selecting candidates for medical courses across the country. The exam consists of 180 questions for 720 marks. Each question carries 4 marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark. Duration of the exam is 180 minutes.

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. Diamagnetic materials are substances that...

A. create a strong magnetic field

B. are attracted by a magnetic field

C. are repelled by a magnetic field

D. have double magnetism

Question 1 of 180

2. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 2 of 180

3. Gas at a pressure ‘P₀’ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their r.m.s speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

1) 4P₀

2) 2P₀

3) P₀

4) P₀/2

Question 3 of 180

4. The de-Broglie wave length of an electron in first Bohr orbit is

1) Equal to one fourth the circumference of the first orbit

2) Equal to half the circumference of the first orbit

3) Equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit

4) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit

Question 4 of 180

5. The horizontal component of a force of 10 N inclined at 30° to the vertical is...

A. 5 N

B. 5√ 3 N

C. 3 N

D. 10/√ 3 N

Question 5 of 180

6. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

A. 40 °C

B. 80 °C

C. 313 °C

D. 586 °C

Question 6 of 180

7. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease of cross sectional area by 2%. The percentage increase in its length is

1) 3%

2) 2.5%

3) 1%

4) 0.5%

Question 7 of 180

8. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s² . Compared with her mass and weight on the earth, an astronaut on Mars has...

A. less mass and less weight

B. more mass and more weight

C. the same mass and less weight

D. the same mass and more weight

Question 8 of 180

9. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents ‘SHM’

a) Y = sinωt - cosωt

b) Y = Sin³ ωt

c) Y = 5 cos[(3π/4) - 3ωt]

d) Y = 1 + ωt + ω²t²

1) only ‘a’ and ‘b’

2) only ‘a’

3) only ‘a’ and ‘d’

4) only ‘a’ and ‘c’

Question 9 of 180

10. If the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. is V_mand maximum r.m.s. current is √ 2 ampere for an a.c. circuit with resistance R, then the value of V_min volt is equal to...

A. 2R

B. R

C. 1/R

D. √ 2/R

Question 10 of 180

11. When the velocity of a moving object is doubled...

A. its acceleration is doubled

B. its momentum is doubled

C. its kinetic energy is doubled

D. its potential energy is doubled

Question 11 of 180

12. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1:4 produce an interference pattern the fringe visibility will be

1) 1

2) 0.8

3)0.4

4) 0.6

Question 12 of 180

13. The maximum value of ‘F’ for which both the blocks move together is

1) 95N

2) 100 N

3) 105 N

4) 110 N

Question 13 of 180

14. A single slit of width ‘0.1mm’ is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wave length and diffraction bands are observed on a screen ‘0.5m’ from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is

1) 9mm

2) 3mm

3)4.5mm

4)1.5mm

Question 14 of 180

15. The given graph represents V – I characteristic for a semiconductor device

Which of the following statement is correct

1) It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

2) It is for a LED and points A and B represents open circuit voltage and short circuit current respectively

3) It is V – I characteristic for solar cell where point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current

4) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

Question 15 of 180

16. Two identical containers each of volume V joined by a normal pipe contains gas at a
temperature T. If one of the containers is now maintained at the same temperature T while the other is maintained at 2T, the number of moles of gas in the container having temperature 2T will be

1) PV/2RT

2) PV/RT

3) 2PV/3RT

4) PV/3RT

Question 16 of 180

17. In a uniform segment of a circuit the current is proportional to the...

A. density of the segment

B. resistance of the segment

C. volume of the segment

D. potential difference at its ends

Question 17 of 180

18. Calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to raise temperature of 1g of water by 1⁰C and it is defined under which of the following conditions

1) From 14.50C to 15.50C at 760 mm of Hg

2) From 98.50C to 99.50C at 760 mm of Hg

3) From 13.50C to 14.50C at 76 mm of Hg

4) From 3.50C to 4.50C at 76 mm of Hg

Question 18 of 180

19. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L.C.R series circuit used for communication

1) R = 15ΩL = 3.5H.C = 30μF

2) R = 25ΩL = 1.5H.C = 45μF

3) R = 20ΩL = 1.5H.C = 35μF

4) R = 25ΩL = 2.5H.C = 45μF

Question 19 of 180

20. To keep a vehicle moving at the speed v requires a force F. The power needed is...

A. F.v

B. (1/2)F.v²

C. F/v

D. F/v²

Question 20 of 180

21. A cart of mass ‘M’ is tied by one end of a massless rope of length ‘10m’. The other end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass ‘M’. The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. The man is at ‘x=o’ and the cart at ‘x=10m’ of the man pulls the cart by the rope , the man and the cart will meet at the point

1) X=0

2) x= 5 m

3) x = 10m

4) x=1.5m

Question 21 of 180

22. A cable stretches by amount 'a' under a certain load. If it is replaced by a cable of the same material but half as long and half the diameter, the same load will stretch it by...

A. a/4

B. a/2

C. a

D. 2a

Question 22 of 180

23. Mark out the incorrect statement regarding transverse standing waves on a string

1) Within a loop, the total energy of the wave remains constant.

2) When the particles are at the maximum displacements, the entire energy within the loopappears as potential energy

3) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy is equally divided aspotential energy and kinetic energy.

4) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy appears as kineticenergy

Question 23 of 180

24. A sonometer wire resonate with a given tuning fork forming standing wave with five antinode between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of M is

1) 25 kg

2) 5kg

3) 12.5kg

4) (1/25) kg

Question 24 of 180

25. A rocket of initial mass 'm₀' moving with velocity ‘v’ discharges a jet of gases of mean density ‘ρ’ and effective area ‘A’ the minimum value of ‘v’ of fuel gas, which enables the rocket to rise vertically above is nearly

1) √(ρg)/(m₀A)

2) √(ρgA)/m₀

3) √(m₀g)/(ρA)

4) √(2m₀gA)/ρ

Question 25 of 180

26. A boy swings from a rope 4.9 m long. His approximate period of oscillation is...

A. 0.5 s

B. 3.1 s

C. 4.4 s

D. 12 s

Question 26 of 180

27. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

1) A meter scale

2) A vernier callipers where the ‘10’ divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in ‘1 cm’

3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

Question 27 of 180

28. A nucleus of mass 'M + ∆m' is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass '(M/2)' each speed of light is ‘C’. The speed of daughter nuclei is

1) C√[∆m/M + ∆m]

2) C√[∆m/M]

3) C√[2∆m/ M]

4) C√[M/2∆m]

Question 28 of 180

29. Fermi is a unit of...

A. length

B. mass

C. time

D. electric flux

Question 29 of 180

30. A wave represented by the given equation y = a cos(kx - ωt) is superposed with another wave to form a stationary wave such that the point x=0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is

1) y = a sin(kx + ωt)

2) y = -a cos(kx + ωt)

3) y = -a cos(kx - ωt)

4) y = -a sin(kx - ωt)

Question 30 of 180

31. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through origin. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process will be

1) 4R

2) 2.5R

3) 3R

4)4R/3

Question 31 of 180

32. A Carnot engine operates between 800K and 200K. If it absorbs 8 kJ of heat in each cycle, the work done by it per cycle is...

A. 1 kJ

B. 2 kJ

C. 2.7 kJ

D. 6 kJ

Question 32 of 180

33. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

A. frequency

B. amplitude

C. wavelength

D. both frequency and amplitude

Question 33 of 180

34. The only atom which has no neutron in the nucleus is...

A. hydrogen

B. helium

C. oxygen

D. polonium

Question 34 of 180

35. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

1) The kinetic energy of α-particle is zero

2) The kinetic energy of daughter nucleus is always less than kinetic energy of α-particle

3) The magnitude of linear momentum of α-particle and daughter nucleus are not equal

4) The daughter nucleus is always stable

Question 35 of 180

36. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

1) 0.25

2) 0.5

3) 0.75

4) 0.99

Question 36 of 180

37. A source and Listner both moving towards each other each with speed .frequency of the note emitted by the source is ‘600Hz’ Apparent wave length of sound wave received by the observer is ( V = 330 m/ sec)

1) 0.5m

2) 0.45m

3)0.1m

4) 0.6m

Question 37 of 180

38. A voltage of peak value 283 volt and varying frequency is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which R =3 ohm, ‘L=25 mH and C = 40μF . The frequency of the source at which maximum power is dissipated in the circuit is

1) (5000/π) Hz

2) (50/π)Hz

3) (500/π)Hz

4) (5/π)Hz

Question 38 of 180

39. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6. The amount of water should be put inside the balloon so that it accelerates down at rate of g/6. (Assume buoyancy force remains the same)

1) m/5

2) 2m/5

3) 3m/5

4) 4m/5

Question 39 of 180

40. A variable frequency A.C. source is connected to a capacitor. How will the displacement current change with decrease in frequency?

1) Increases

2) Decreases

3) Remains same

4) Becomes zero

Question 40 of 180

41. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 10³ kg/m³ with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are 8 × 10³ kg/m³ and 11 × 10³ kg/m³ The ratio of their radii is

1) 11/8

2) √(11/8)

3) 3/2

4) √(3/2)

Question 41 of 180

42. A solid sphere of mass ’M’ ; radius ‘R’ and having moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass is ‘I’. It recast into a disc of thickness ‘t’. Whose moment of inertia about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane remains ‘I’ then radius of the disc will be

1) 2R/√15

2) R/√2/15

3) 4R/√15

4) R/4

Question 42 of 180

43. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of emf ‘e’ is balanced at a length l/5 from the positive end of the wire. Assuming there is no contribution in resistance from any part of the circuit except the potentiometer wire, the balancing length for the same cell if length of the wire is increased by l/2 is

1) 2l/15

2) 3 l /15

3) 3 l /10

4) 4 l /10

Question 43 of 180

44. A thin ring has mass M and radius R. Its moment of inertia about the axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is...

A. MR²

B. M²R

C. M/R²

D. M²/R

Question 44 of 180

45. Two bodies ‘A and B’ of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid partition. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. A force of 200N is applied horizontally at ‘A’ action reaction force between A and B is (g = 10 m/sec²)

1) 170 N

2) 200 N

3) 190 N

4) 210 N

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. The assemblage of all the population of different species that function as an integrated unit through coevolved metabolic transformation in a specific area is called

1) biome

2) biotic community

3) population

4) ecosystem

Question 46 of 180

47. Select the correct statement

1) During early-M-phase cells may have more than 2C content of DNA

2) During early S-phase cells have 4C content of DNA

3) Replication continues in G2-phase

4) In plant cells G0-phase is absent

Question 47 of 180

48. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon compound by a reaction between

1) Succinic acid and pyruvic acid

2) Malic acid and Acetyl CO-A

3) Fumaric acid and pyruvic acid

4) OAA and Acetyl CO-A

Question 48 of 180

49. A cell under hypertonic solution shows incipient plasmolysis, then what will be present between cell wall and cell membrane

1) Water with Ψ_W zero

2) Solution with same Ψ_W , as solution out the cell

3) Water with slightly high Ψ_W as compare to solution outside the cell

4) Vacume

Question 49 of 180

50. Regarding ATP synthesis in aerobic respiration select the correct match

A B C D

1) III IV I V

2) IV III II I

3) IV III V I

4) III I IV V

Question 50 of 180

51. Find out the correctly matched one

1) PCR method - Gene insertion into a desired host cell

2) Spooling-Separation of DNA fragments in electric field

3) Elusion - Insertion of desired gene into a vector

4) Biolistic method - DNA transfer method into host cells

Question 51 of 180

52. Match the following
Column-I (Tissues) Column-II (Product of)
1) Julius Von Sachs A) Polynucleotide Phosphorylase
2) Hershy and Chase B) Chromosome maps
3) A. Sturtevant C) Hydrophonics
4) Severo Ochoa enzyme D) Genetic nature of DNA

1) C-1,A-2,B-3,D-4

2) A-1,C-2,B-3,D-4

3) D-1,C-2,A-3,B-4

4) C-1,D-2,B-3,A-4

Question 52 of 180

53. Read the following and identify the correct statement

1) The price of earth’s fundamental ecosystem services is – US $18 trillion

2) Among the all ecosystem services soil formation alone accounts for about 50%.

3) Bees are alone responsible for 30-45% of food production in US by bringing cross pollination in crops

4) The lungs of the word are cows, buffaloes, goats and sheep

Question 53 of 180

54. DNA with one strand labeled with radioactive thymidine. Allowed to replicate in normal nutrient medium for three generations. Then proportion of DNA molecules showing radioactivity is

1) 12.5% only

2) 25%

3) 6.25%

4) 50%

Question 54 of 180

55. A family not delimited by the type of inflorescence is

1) Asteraceae

2) Poaceae

3) Liliaceae

4) Euphorbiaceae

Question 55 of 180

56. Meiosis involves

1. One nuclear, one chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

2. Two nuclear, one chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, one cycle of DNA replication

3. One nuclear, two chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

4. Two nuclear, two chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, two cycles of DNA replication

Question 56 of 180

57. Select the correct statement regarding activated sludge formed during secondary sewage treatment

1) A small part of it is rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank

2) It absorbs pathogenic bacteria present in waster water while sinking to the bottom of the settling tank

3) A major part of it is anaerobically digested

4) Both (a) and (c)

Question 57 of 180

58. Identify A. B. C. D in the following diagram

1) Amonoacid acceptor end, anticodon, codon, mRNA

2) codon, mRNA, Anticodon, Aminoacid acceptor end

3) Autocodon, Codon, mRNA, Aminoacid acceptor end

4) mRNA, anticodon, codon, Aminoacid acceptor end

Question 58 of 180

59. Match the items of Column-I with those in Column-II
A B C D E

1) R P T S Q

2) Q P S R T

3) S P Q T R

4) P T R Q S

Question 59 of 180

60. Primary succession results in formation of communities on area

1) After afforestation

2) Of abandoned crop field

3) With no record of earlier vegetation

4) After heavy floods spoiled agricultural field

Question 60 of 180

61. The needle like cladodes of Asparagus are metamorphosed stem for

1) reducing transpiration

2) increasing photosynthesis

3) protecting plant from browsing

4) none of the above

Question 61 of 180

62. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option

Column – I Column - II

Ascomycetes i) Ustilago
Phycomycetes ii) Saccharomyces
Basidionycetes iii) trichoderma
Deuteromycetes iv) Albugo

1) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

3) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

4) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)

Question 62 of 180

63. Which of the following is a heterosporus fern

1) Salvinia

2) Selaginella

3) Dryopteris

4) Lycopodium

Question 63 of 180

64. Main function of centromere is

1) Chromosome splitting

2) to help in migration of chromosomes to the poles

3) Crossing over

4) Cytokinesis

Question 64 of 180

65. Culture of the following SCP organism does not require any organic nutrients in the nutrient medium

1) Spirulina

2) Methylophilus

3)Candida

4) Brevibacterium

Question 65 of 180

66. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

1) Obtaining pure product

2) Addition of preservatives to the product

3) The non requirement of any quality control test

4) Ensuing aerobic conditions in the culture vessel

Question 66 of 180

67. Root nodules (tubercles) are found on

1) primary root only

2) branchlets only

3) secondary roots only

4) primary and secondary roots

Question 67 of 180

68. The minerals involved in water-splitting reaction during light phase of photosynthesis is/are

1) Calcium, Magnesium and Chlorine

2) Calcium, Potassium and Manganese

3) Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine

4) Calcium, Molydenum and Manganese

Question 68 of 180

69. Consider the following statements and select the number of correct statements

1. Replication of DNA is carried out by semi-conservative method in prokaryotes only

2. Hershey and chase conducted transformation experiments to confirm the genetic nature of DNA

3. Three types of RNA polymerases or formed in the
nucleus of eukaryotes

4. After transcription also gene regulation is possible in eukaryotes

1) One

2) Four

3) Three

4) Two

Question 69 of 180

70. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M-phase, what will be the content of DNA at G1 phase chromosome and S - phase chromosome of mitosis?

1) 2C & 4C

2) 4C & 4C

3) 4C & 2C

4) 2C & 3C

Question 70 of 180

71. Synthesis of human insulin in E.coli cells is the best evidence for

1) Ambiguity of genetic code

2) Universality of genetic code

3) Non cognate genetic code

4) Genetic code is not degenerate

Question 71 of 180

72. Select the incorrect statements

(i) Cell organelle within cell organelle is plasmosome

(ii) Factory of protein factories is ergosome

(iii) Membraneless non-cell organelle is centrosome

(iv) nucleosomes are ribonucleoprotein bodies

(v) A eukaryotic cell in a eukaryotic cell is vegetative cell

1) ii, iii and iv only

2) i, iv and v only

3) iii, iv and v only

4) i, ii, iii, iv and v only

Question 72 of 180

73. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

1) 5n, 4n, 7n

2) 7n, 5n, 4n

3) 4n, 5n, 7n

4) 5n, 7n, 4n

Question 73 of 180

74. Which of the following are correct statements?

j) Pinus and orchid seeds can’t germinate and establish without the formation of mycorrhiza

k) Plants absorbs maximum water from the soil by passive absorption

l) In endodermis region of roots, water follow symplastic pathway

m) High O₂ concentration high light intensity induces photorespiration in sciophytes.

n) paper used to compare transpiration from two surfaces of leaf

1) j, k and m only

2) l, m and n only

3) j, k and n only

4) All of these

Question 74 of 180

75. Which of the following is a wrong match?

1) Bolting in rosette plant - GA₃

2) Avena curvature test – IAA

3) Induction of immediate stomatal closure – ABA

4) Induction of growth in axillary buds – Ethephon

Question 75 of 180

76. Bicollateral vascularbundles are present in which part of the Solanaceae and Cucurbitaceae members

1) Root

2) Leaves

3) Stem

4) All the above

Question 76 of 180

77. Which of the following statements are correct

A. Guttation is the manifestation of root pressure

B. Natural antitranspirant is PMA

C. Turgor pressure, wall pressure
and pressure potential of a cell, all are numerically equal with same sign

D. High nitrogen to carbon ratio is found in Ureids

1) A B C only

2) B, C, D only

3) A B C D only

4) A, C, D only

Question 77 of 180

78. The biocatalyst ribozyme is synthesized by a process called

1) Replication

2) Reverse transcription

3) Transcription

4)Translation

Question 78 of 180

79. Identify the set of plants without archegonia

1) Chara, Cladophora, Capsicum and Colchicum

2) Marchantia, Marselia, Cycas and Pinus

3) Riccia, Pteris, Polytrichum, Cycas

4) Sphagnum, Adiantum, Salvinia, Ginkgo

Question 79 of 180

80. ‘Vascular cryptogams’ are not the first group to exhibit

1) Heterospory

2) Root system

3) Complex tissues

4) Homospory

Question 80 of 180

81. Ψ_wand Ψ_pare zero respectively for

1) Pure water and Flaccid cell

2) Flaccid cell and Turgid cell

3) Pure water and Turgid cell

4) Flaccid cell and Pure water

Question 81 of 180

82. How many chromosomes will be found in a cell at anaphase –II having 2n = 50 ?

1) 50

2) 40

3) 100

4) 25

Question 82 of 180

83. Feature unrelated to slime moulds

1) Connecting link between protista and Fungi

2) Multinucleate body

3) Vegetative phase resembles with plants and reproductive phase with animals

4) Multiply by plasmotomy

Question 83 of 180

84. How many DNA fragments will be obtained on the digestion of a linear DNA and a circular DNA with a type of restriction enzyme having four recognition sites in both the cases?

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 84 of 180

85. The following is not a fungal plant disease

1) Brown rust of wheat

2) Late blight of potato

3) Black rot of crucifers

4) Red rot of sugarcane

Question 85 of 180

86. In garden pea, round shape of seeds is dominant over wrinkled shape. A pea plant heterozygous for round shape of seed is selfed and 1600 seeds produced during the cross are subsequently germinatied. How many seedlings will have the parental phenotype?

1) 400

2) 1600

3) 1200

4) 800

Question 86 of 180

87. Deficiency of the following nutrients causes inhibition of cell division, delay in flowering and chlorosis

1) Nitrogen and Sulphur

2) Potassium and Magnesium

3) Calcium and copper

4) Zinc and Molybdenum

Question 87 of 180

88. Which of the following is true w.r.t. grafting

1) Very commonly practiced in monocot plants

2) In air layering i.e. one typed grafting uses auxin to induce rooting

3) Stock is shoot piece which is used in grafting

4) New plant produced after grafting produces fruits similar to scion source

Question 88 of 180

89. Which one of the following statements regarding enzymes is wrong

1) Most enzymes are non-proteins but some are ribozymes

2) Enzymes require optimum temperature for maximum activity

3) Majority of the enzymes function well at neutral pH

4) Enzymes are active in minute concentration also

Question 89 of 180

90. How many of the following statements are true

i) Volvox and Fucus show oogamy

ii) Agar is commercially obtained from Gelidium and Gracillaria

iii) Gametophyte is parasite on sporophyte in Sphagnum

iv) Funaria is monoecious and Marchantia is dioecious

v) Source of SCP are Spirullina and Chlorella

1) 4

2) 3

3) 5

4) 2

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. Identical twins are produced when

1) One fertilized egg divides and two blastomeres separate

2) One sperm fertilizes two eggs

3) One egg is fertilized with two sperms

4) Two eggs are fertilized

Question 91 of 180

92. Plant whose product is with hallucinogenic properties is

1) Papaver somniferum

2) Atropa belladona

3) Solanum tuberosum

4) Rauwolfia serpentina

Question 92 of 180

93. Making two varieties of a cattle breed like Red Dane which have no common ancestors on either sides of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations is an example for

1) inbreeding

2) cross breeding

3) out crossing

4) interspecific hybridization

Question 93 of 180

94. The following depiction is the karyotype of “Cinderalla of genetics”

The sex of the Hexapod should beThe sex of the Hexapod should be

1) Inter sex

2) Meta male

3) Female

4) Meta Female

Question 94 of 180

95. Statement(1): (S1): After primary immune response, subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response

Statement(2): (S2): Anamnestic response is because our body develops memory after the first encounter.

1) S1 and S2 are correct

2) S1 and S2 are incorrect

3) S1 is correct; S2 is incorrect

4) S1 is incorrect; S2 is correct

Question 95 of 180

96. When light incidents on photoreceptor cells of the retina of eye ,their membrane is

1) hyperpolarized

2) depolarized

3) repolarized

4) none of the above.

Question 96 of 180

97. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

A. Crocodile 4-Chambered heart

B. Sea Urchin Parapodia

C. Obelia Metagenesis

D. Lemur Thecodont

1) Only A and B

2) A, C and D

3) B, C and D

4) Only A and D

Question 97 of 180

98. Nephrostome occurs in

1) septal nephridia

2) integumentary nephridia

3) pharyngeal and septal nephridia

4) pharyngeal and integumentary nephridia

Question 98 of 180

99. The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic process. On this basis fill up A and B boxes in the given diagram with correct options

1) A = Natality + Immigration, B = Mortality + Emigration

2) A = Natality + Mortality, B = Immigration + Emigration

3) A = Birth rate + Death rate, B = Migration + Emigration

4) A = Natality + Emigration, B = Mortality + Immigration

Question 99 of 180

100. Arrange the following habitats related to Bio diversity conservation in India in descending order

M)Biosphere reserves N)National Parks

O) Bio diversity hot spots P) Sanctuaries

1 )M-P-O-N

2) O-M-N-P

3) P-N-M-O

4) M-N-O-P

Question 100 of 180

101. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli, atmospheric air and tissue will be ------- mm of Hg

1) 40, 159, 45

2) 40, 0.3, 45

3) 104, 159, 40

4) 104, 0.3, 45

Question 101 of 180

102. Bone can be distinguished from cartilage with

1) The haversian system

2) High vascular nature

3) Calcified matrix

4) All the above

Question 102 of 180

103. If a female having gene for haemophilia and colour blindness on its one chromosome marries a normal male, then what are the chances in their offspring

1) 50% son are diseased and 50%are normal

2) All normal offspring

3) 100% daughters are carrier

4) 100% son are diseased

Question 103 of 180

104. Consider the following features:

A. Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical diploblastic organisms with tissue level of organisation.

B. The body bears eight external rows of ciliary comb plates.

C. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular

D. Exhibit bioluminescence

E. Monoecious, fertilisation external with indirect development The above-mentioned features belong to the animal

1) Physalia

2) Euspongia

3) Fasciola

4) Pleurobrachia

Question 104 of 180

105. The diagram shows an antibody molecule. Identify A to F.

1) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

2) A-Antigen binding site; B-Constant region (of L-Chain); C-Variable region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain(L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

3) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Heavy polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Light polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

4) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

Question 105 of 180

106. Find out the correct labelling of bones A, B, C and D in the given figure

1) A-Clavicle B-Humerus C-Ulna D-Radius

2) A-Clavicle B-Humerus C-Radius D-Ulna

3) A-Scapula B-Humerus C-Ulna D-Ulna

4) A-Clavicle B-Femur C-Radius D-Ulna

Question 106 of 180

107. The stage of suspended development shown by zooplanktons is called

1) desiccation

2) diapause

3) hibernation

4) aestivation

Question 107 of 180

108. Observe the relaxed myocyte’s myofibril

Which of the following muscles have those traits?

a) Lateral rectus muscle

b) Iris muscles

c) Ciliary muscles

d) Sartorius muscle

1) a and c

2) b only

3) a, b and d

4)a and d

Question 108 of 180

109. Hyperdactyly (the possession of more than 12 fingers) is determined by the dominant allele (H) and normal condition by recessive allele (h).

The diagram shown a family tree in which some members of the family are hyperdactylus
Find out the genotype of A, B and C

1) A-Hh, B-Hh, C-hh

2) A-HH, B-Hh, C-hh

3) A-Hh, B-HH, C-hh

4) A-HH, B-HH, C-hh

Question 109 of 180

110. Which of the following statements about blood transfusion is correct

1) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-B.

2) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B and receive from group-AB

3) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-O and receive from group-B

4) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-AB

Question 110 of 180

111. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

1) Calciferol – Pellagra

2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

4) Cobalamin – Beriberi

Question 111 of 180

112. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the outer side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

1) First positive, then negative and again back to positive

2) First negative, then positive and again back to negative

3) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative

4) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive

Question 112 of 180

113. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

1) lower levels of adrenalin/noradrenalin in its blood

2) higher levels of thyroxin

3) higher levels of cortisone

4) lower levels of blood testosterone

Question 113 of 180

114. Following is a diagrammatic representation of endocrine glands with a labelled part ‘A’. The part ‘A’ serves as the connection between

1) Hypothalamus and adenohypophysis

2) Hypothalamus and neurohypophysis

3) Hypothalamus and pars nervosa

4) Hypothalamus and epiphysis

Question 114 of 180

115. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are

1) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and parathormone

2) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucacorticoids

3) insulin, glucagon, glucacorticoids and calcitonin

4) insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and melatonin

Question 115 of 180

116. Observe the following

The above device is used to

1) Reduce Particulate pollution

2) Remove SO2

3) Reduce automobile emissions

4) limit noise pollution

Question 116 of 180

117. The correct match for structures of cockroach is
Column-I Column-II
A. Ommatidia I. Articulates with thorax
B. Trochanter II. For vision
C. Coxa III. Forming exoskeleton
D. Sclerites IV. Fused with large and stout femur

1) A-II B-IV C-I D-III

2) B-II D-IV A-I C-III

3) C-II D-IV B-I A-III

4) D-II A-IV C-I B-III

Question 117 of 180

118. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

1) Predation on one another

2) Mutualism

3) Intra-specific competition

4) Inter-specific competition

Question 118 of 180

119. If the light source in front of an eye becomes bright suddenly

1) Pupil dilates

2) retinal blood supply is cut

3) vitreous humour becomes fluid

4) pupil will contract

Question 119 of 180

120. Which of the following structures are found in female cockroach ?

1) Caudal styles

2) Phallomeres

3) Spermathecae

4) Seminal vesicles

Question 120 of 180

121. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

1) A-1000, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

2) A-1400, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

3) A-1000, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

4) A-1400, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

Question 121 of 180

122. Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during spermatogenesis, some sperms carry both sex
chromosomes (22A + XY) and some sperms do not carry any sex chromosome (22A + O). If these sperms fertilise normal eggs (22A + X), what types of genetic disorders appear among the offsprings?

1) Klinefelter’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

2) Down’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome

3) Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

4) Down’s syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome

Question 122 of 180

123. Identify the molecules (a) and (B) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.

Molecule Source Use
1) A - Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine
2) B - Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions
3) B - Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations
4) A - Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 123 of 180

124. Choose the combination of conditions in a tissue that would influence the most rapid dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 124 of 180

125. When Glomerular filtrate is passing through PCT which of the following Biomolecule’s selective reabsorption is 100% into PTC

B1)Creatinine B2) Glucose

B3) Amino Acids B4) Potassium

1)B2-B3

2)B1

3) B2-B3-B1

4) All except B2

Question 125 of 180

126. The embryonic membrane involved in the formation of placenta in human is

1) yolk sac

2) umbilical cord

3) amnion

4) chorion

Question 126 of 180

127. In a population of 60,000 individuals if the frequency of dominant allele is 60%. Then extrapolate the % of Dominant individuals

1) 16%

2) 84%

3) 36%

4) 48%

Question 127 of 180

128. All of the following are functions of secretions from (b) except

1) Glycogenolysis

2) Glucogenesis

3) proteolysis

4) hypoglycemia

Question 128 of 180

129. Read the following statements

A : A considerable amount of NPP is utilised by plants in respiration

B: The annual NPP of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons of organic matter

1) Both A and B are correct

2) Only A is correct

3) Only B is correct

4) Both A and B are incorrect

Question 129 of 180

130. A tumour in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the hormones in that region. Which of the following you might expect to find in a patient with such a tumour?

1) Increased blood sodium levels

2) Increased blood glucose levels

3) Decreased blood calcium levels

4) Increased dehydration

Question 130 of 180

131. In present times the origin of life is not possible from inorganic compounds due to

1) Raw material not available

2) High O2 in atmosphere

3) Decrease in temperature

4) Excess of pollution

Question 131 of 180

132. Which of the following statements are correct related to human

A. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase.

B. Lipases are absent in secretion of gastric glands

C. Bile helps in emulsification of fats and also activates lipases.

D. Nucleases in the succus entericus acts on nucleic acids to form nucleotides and nucleosides

1) A, B, C

2) A, C

3) C, D

4) A, C, D

Question 132 of 180

133. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

1)Lemur

2)Tasmanian wolf

3) Numbat

4)Bobcat

Question 133 of 180

134. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A. Dodo I) Rauwolfia
B. Reserpine II) Mauritius
C. Nile perch in lake Victoria III) Habitat destruction
D. Main cause for biodiversity loss IV) Alien species

1) A-II B-I C-III D-IV

2) A-II B-I C-IV D-III

3) A-II B-IV C-III D-I

4) A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Question 134 of 180

135. Bundle of His is a network of:

1) Muscle fibres distributedthroughout the heart walls

2) Muscle fibres found only in theventricle wall

3) Nerve fibres distributed inventricles

4) Nerve fibres found throughoutheart

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

1) Aspartame

2) Saccharin

3) Sucralose

4) Alitame

Question 136 of 180

137. Which of the following ‘gem’ diols is stable?

Question 137 of 180

138. Which of the following has minimum flocculation value for positively charged sol ?

1) Cl^-

2) SO₄^2-

3) PO₄^3-

4) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-

Question 138 of 180

139. Find correct statement

1) KMnO₄ is coloured due to d-d transition

2) K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is low spin complex

3) Zn and Cd are transition metal

4) All lanthanoids are radioactive

Question 139 of 180

140. The vapour pressure of a dilute solution of glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373K. The mole fraction of solute is

1) 1/7.6

2) 1/76

3) 1/35

4) 1/10

Question 140 of 180

141. If lone pair of electron occupy axial position then, incorrect about is :

1) It is a planar molecule

2) It has T-shape

3) All bond lengths are equal

4) repulsion will be minimum

Question 141 of 180

142. Which of the following organ metallic compound is σ and π
bonded?

1) [ Fe(η⁵-C₂H5)₂]

2) [ PtCl3 (η2 -C2H₄ ) ]

3) [ Co(Co)5 NH₃ ]⁺²

4) All the above

Question 142 of 180

143. When 0.1mole MnO₄^2- is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required in coulombs to completely oxidize MnO₄^2- to MnO₄^- is

1) 96500

2) 2×96500

3)9650

4) 96.50

Question 143 of 180

144. At Boyles temperature, compressibility factor Z for a real gas is

1) Z = 1

2) Z = 0

3) Z > 1

4) Z >> 1

Question 144 of 180

145. The impure 7g of NaCl is dissolved in water and then treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The weight of precipitate of silver chloride is found to be 14g. The % purity of NaCl solution would be (M. Wt of AgCl = 143.5, NaCl = 58.5)

1) 81.5%

2) 63%

3) 93%

4) 77%

Question 145 of 180

146. To form osazone, mumber of moles of phenyl hydrazine required by one mole of glucose is

1) 4

2) 3

3) 2

4) 1

Question 146 of 180

147.

1) Glyptal

2) Dacron

3) Nylon-6,6

4) Nylon-6

Question 147 of 180

148. The correct statement/s about H₂ S₂ O₇ is/are

1) It is called peroxydisulphuric acid

2) It is contains one O-O bond in its molecule

3) It is obtained by dissolution of SO3 in conc. H₂ SO₄

4) Both (2) & (3)

Question 148 of 180

149. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 149 of 180

150. For decolourization of one mole of KMnO₄ the required litre of 30 volume H₂O₂ in acidified medium is

1) 0.94

2) 9.4

3) 0.094

4) 3.01

Question 150 of 180

151. Which of the substances added to soap make it antiseptic?

1) Iodine

2) KMnO4

3) Bithional

4) Cl2

Question 151 of 180

152. When two moles of an ideal gas (C_pm=(5/2)R) heated from 300K to 600K at constant pressure. The change in entropy of gas (∆s ) is

1) (3/2)R ln2

2) (-3/2)R ln2

3) 5R ln2

4) (5/2)R ln2

Question 152 of 180

153. V1 ml of 3M HCl solution is mixed with V₂ml of 3M H₂SO₄to from a solution in which molarity of H+ ions is 5M, then the relation between V₁and V₂is

1) V₁= V₂

2) V₂=2V₁

3) 3V₁= V₂

4) 2V₂= V₁

Question 153 of 180

154. Which of the following compound react faster through SN²mechanism

1) CH3- CH2Br

2) CH3- O - CH₂Br

3) C₆H5- CO - CH2Br

4) CH₃ - C (CH₃ )2- CH2Br

Question 154 of 180

155. The pH of a solution of H₂O₂is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

1) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0

2) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant solution

3) The pH of resultant solution becomes less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated

4) Cl₂O is formed in the resultant solution

Question 155 of 180

156.

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

1) 4 : 5

2) 5 : 4

3) 1 : 1

4) 2 : 3

Question 156 of 180

157. Which of the following vitamin contains ionone ring and
hydrocarbon chain.

1) Calciferol

2) Thiamin

3) Retinol

4) Riboflavin

Question 157 of 180

158. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

1) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]

2) [ Acid ] × 10⁵ = [conjugatebase]

3) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]× 10⁵

4) [ Acid ] = 2[conjugatebase]

Question 158 of 180

159. The correct order of increasing acidic strength of the compounds
A) CH₃CO₂H
B) MeOCH₂CO₂H
C) CF₃CO₂H

1) D < A < B < C

2) A < D < B < C

3) B < D < A < C

4) D < A < C < B

Question 159 of 180

160. When the value of azimuthal quantum number is 3, the maximum and the minimum values of the spin multiplicities are

1) 4,3

2) 8,1

3) 1,3

4) 8,2

Question 160 of 180

161. 20g of naphthoic acid (C₁₁H₈O₂) is dissolved in 50g of benzene, then freezing point depression of 2K is observed for solution. The vant hoff factor will be ( K_f for benzene=1.72 Kg Mol^-1)

1) 0.75

2) 2

3) 0.5

4) 3

Question 161 of 180

162. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

1) (CH3)3N

2) (SiH3)3N

3) XeF2

4) SF₄

Question 162 of 180

163. A possitive carbylamine test is given by

1) N,N – dimethyl aniline

2) Isopropyl amine

3) diethyl amine

4) trimethyl amine

Question 163 of 180

164. The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1eV The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na⁺ will be

1) -2.55eV

2) -5.1eV

3) -10.21eV

4) +2.55eV

Question 164 of 180

165. An acid-base indicator has a In K_ln of 3 ×10^-5. The acid form of indicator is red and the basic form is blue.
Then

1) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 50%blue.

2) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75%red.

3) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 75%red

4) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75%blue.

Question 165 of 180

166. The values of electro negativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage ionic character of A-B bond is

1) 50%

2) 72.24%

3) 55.3%

4) 43%

Question 166 of 180

167. Which of the following is used as “morning after pill”?

1) Ethynyl estradiol

2) Mifepristone

3) Norethindrone

4) Promethazine

Question 167 of 180

168. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 ×10^-2
mol L^-1 min^-1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reactant. The
half life of the reaction is

1) 23.1 min

2) 8.73 min

3) 7.53 min

4) 0.383 min

Question 168 of 180

169. The conductivity of saturated solution of BaSO₄is 3.06×10^-6 mho cm^-1and its equivalent conductance is 1.53 mho cm^-2 eq^-1. Then K_sp for BaSO₄ will be

1) 4×10^-12M

2) 1×10⁶M

3) 4×10⁶M²

4) 1×10^-6M²

Question 169 of 180

170. The number of carbon atoms per unitcell of diamond unitcell is

1) 8

2) 6

3) 1

4) 4

Question 170 of 180

171. What will be the equivalent weight of H₃PO₃ in the following reaction. 4H₃PO₃ → 3H₃PO₄+PH₃

1) M/6

2) 2M/3

3) M/12

4) M/2

Question 171 of 180

172. At what temperature will average speed of the molecules of the second member of the series C_nH_2nbe the same of Cl₂ at 627⁰C?

1) 259.4K

2) 400K

3) 532.4K

4) 628K

Question 172 of 180

173. Which property is common in diamond and graphite

1) Electrical conductivity

2) Crystal structure

3) Relative atomic mass

4) Density

Question 173 of 180

174. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom?

1) 127 pm

2) 157 pm

3) 181 pm

4) 108 pm

Question 174 of 180

175. In Na₂O having antifluorite structure

1) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupy all the octahedral voids.

2) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupyall the eight tetrahedral voids

3) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangement and O2-
occupy all tetrahedral voids.

4) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangementand O2- occupy all octahedral voids

Question 175 of 180

176. Xe has max. EN in:-

1) XeF₂

2) XeF₄

3) XeO₄

4) XeOF₂

Question 176 of 180

177. The half life of a reaction is 46 minutes when the initial concentration of the reactant is 4 mol/L and 92 minutes when the initial concentration is 0.2mol/L. The order of the reaction is

1) Zero

2) 0.5

3) 2

4) 1

Question 177 of 180

178. The shortest wavelength of He⁺ ion in Balmer series is x, then longest wavelength in the paschen series of Li²⁺is

1) 36x/5

2) 16x/7

3) 9x/5

4) 5x/5

Question 178 of 180

179. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C₆H₅CO NH₂ II) Pyridine
III) C₆H₅-N=N-C₆H₅

1) I,III

2) II,III

3) III,IV

4) I,II

Question 179 of 180

180. Which one of the following oxyacids of chlorine is the least
oxidising in nature

1) HOCl

2) HClO₂

3) HClO₄

4) HClO₃

Question 180 of 180

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Leave a Comment Cancel reply