NEET Free Mock Test 2

NEET examination is one of the toughest exams in the country. NEET is aimed at selecting candidates for medical courses across the country. The exam consists of 180 questions for 720 marks. Each question carries 4 marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark. Duration of the exam is 180 minutes.

  • Physics
  • Botany
  • Zoology
  • Chemistry

Physics

1. A cable stretches by amount 'a' under a certain load. If it is replaced by a cable of the same material but half as long and half the diameter, the same load will stretch it by...

Question 1 of 180

2. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

 

Question 2 of 180

3. A voltage of peak value 283 volt and varying frequency is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which R =3 ohm, ‘L=25 mH and C = 40μF . The frequency of the source at which maximum power is dissipated in the circuit is

Question 3 of 180

4. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index

 

Question 4 of 180

5. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum  transferred to the surface is (C is the Velocity of light )

Question 5 of 180

6. In the figure shown a source of sound of frequency 510 Hz move with constant velocity Vs=20 m/ s in the direction shown. The wind is blowing at a constant velocity Vw=20 m/S towards an observer who is at rest at point B. Corresponding to the sound emitted by the source in initial position A, the frequency detected by the observer is equal to (speed of sound relative to air = 330 m/s)

Question 6 of 180

7. A square coil of side ‘25cm’ having 1000 turns is rotated with a uniform speed in a magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the direction of the field. At an instant ‘t’ the ‘e.m.f’ induced in the coil is E= 200 sin100πt. The strength of the magnetic field is (in Tesla)

Question 7 of 180

8. An electric cell of e.m.f ‘E’ is connected across a copper wire of diameter ‘d’ and length 'l' the drift velocity of electron in the wire is 'vd' If the length and diameter of the wire are doubled the new drift velocity of electron is

Question 8 of 180

9. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

Question 9 of 180

10. The value of the stopping potential depends on...

Question 10 of 180

11. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of emf ‘e’ is balanced at a length l/5 from the positive end of the wire. Assuming there is no contribution in resistance from any part of the circuit except the potentiometer wire, the balancing length for the same cell if length of the wire is increased by l/2 is

Question 11 of 180

12. To keep a vehicle moving at the speed v requires a force F. The power needed is...

Question 12 of 180

13. If the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. is Vm and maximum r.m.s. current is √ 2 ampere for an a.c. circuit with resistance R, then the value of Vm in volt is equal to...

Question 13 of 180

14. The maximum value of ‘F’ for which both the blocks move together is

Question 14 of 180

15. Fermi is a unit of...

Question 15 of 180

16. Two parallel wires carry current in the same direction,...

Question 16 of 180

17. A single slit of width ‘0.1mm’ is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wave length and diffraction bands are observed on a screen ‘0.5m’ from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is

 

Question 17 of 180

18. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

Question 18 of 180

19. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

 

Question 19 of 180

20. For monatomic gases, Cp/Cv is equal to...

Question 20 of 180

21. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

 

Question 21 of 180

22. A light ray passes through a prism with an angle of incidence θ, an angle of deviation δ and an angle of emergence ε. Minimum deviation occurs when...

Question 22 of 180

23. A cart of mass ‘M’ is tied by one end of a massless rope of length ‘10m’. The other end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass ‘M’. The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. The man is at ‘x=o’ and the cart at ‘x=10m’ of the man pulls the cart by the rope , the man and the cart will meet at the point

Question 23 of 180

24. To charge a secondary cell, what is needed is...

Question 24 of 180

25. The image a camera forms on the film is...

Question 25 of 180

26. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10-4 m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

Question 26 of 180

27. A sonometer wire resonate with a given tuning fork forming standing wave with five antinode between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of M is

Question 27 of 180

28. Pick out the wrong statement from the following.

Question 28 of 180

29. A projectile is thrown in the direction making an angle θ with the horizontal. The projectile attains maximum height for θ equal to...

Question 29 of 180

30. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density  2 × 103 kg/m3  with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are  8 × 103 kg/m3  and 11 × 103 kg/m3   The ratio of their radii is

Question 30 of 180

31. If the velocity v of a particle moving along a straight line decreases linearly with its displacement ‘S’ from 20ms-1 to a value approaching zero at S=30m. Then acceleration of the particle at S=15m is

Question 31 of 180

32. A source and Listner both moving towards each other each with speed .frequency of the note emitted by the source is ‘600Hz’ Apparent wave length of sound wave received by the observer is  ( V = 330 m/ sec)

Question 32 of 180

33. When a ferromagnet is inserted in a current-carrying loop, the magnetic field...

Question 33 of 180

34. A block of mass 10kg moving in X-direction with a constant speed of  10 msec-1, is subjected to a retarding force F = (x/10) (Joule/meter) during its travel from x=10m to x=20m its final kenetic energy will be (in Joule)

 

Question 34 of 180

35. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 'λ1'and 'λ2' respectively are placed at a distance ‘R’. The force per unit length on either wire will be (k = (1/4πε0))

Question 35 of 180

36. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

Question 36 of 180

37. Two bodies ‘A and B’ of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid partition. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. A force of 200N is applied horizontally at ‘A’ action reaction force between A and B is (g = 10 m/sec2)

Question 37 of 180

38. A nucleus of mass 'M + ∆m'  is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass '(M/2)' each speed of light is ‘C’. The speed of daughter nuclei is

Question 38 of 180

39. Mark out the incorrect statement regarding transverse standing waves on a string

Question 39 of 180

40. For a projectile, its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are equal, maximum height reached by it is (‘u’ is initial velocity of the projectile)

Question 40 of 180

41. In a large building there are 15 bulbs of ‘40w’ 5 bulbs of ‘100w’. 5 fans of ‘80w’ and 1 heater of ‘1kw’ . The voltage of electric mains is ‘220 volts’.The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building will be

 

Question 41 of 180

42. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

Question 42 of 180

43. A particle moves along X –axis in such a way that coordinate X varies with time t according to the equation . x = ( 2-5t+6t2)m The initial velocity of the particle is

Question 43 of 180

44. The aperture of the objective lens of a telescope is made large so as to

 

Question 44 of 180

45. Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of mass 88000 kg. The inner and outer radii of each column are 30cm and 40cm respectively. Assuming load distribution is uniform. The compressional strain of each column is (Y = 2×1011  N/m2 )

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. Match the columns, I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given

 

Question 46 of 180

47. Which one among the following represents the correct method of replication of DNA

Question 47 of 180

48. Find out the correctly matched one

Question 48 of 180

49. S-I : Linked genes get separated due to crossing over

S-II : The closer the genes on a chromosome the more is the probability of recombinations

Question 49 of 180

50. Primary succession results in formation of communities on area

Question 50 of 180

51. In dicotyledonous stem, which of the following is the sequence of tissues from inside to outside?

Question 51 of 180

52. How many of the following statements are correct

A. Yellow mosaic resistance mung bean was developed by hybridisation

B. Yellow mosaic resistant bhindi was produced by mutation breeding

C. White rust resistant mustard was developed by hybridisation

D. Pomato was developed by somatic hybridisation E. Golden rice variety was produced by trans genies

Question 52 of 180

53. Match the items of Column-I with those in Column-II
A B C D E

 

Question 53 of 180

54. A leafy vegetable ‘bathua’ produced by IARI is rich in

Question 54 of 180

55. Which of the following cannot freely interbreed in nature

A. Winter and spring varieties of wheat

B. LDP and SDP varieties of Tobacco

C. Tall and Dwarf varieties of Pea

D. Red and white flowered varieties of Dog flower

Question 55 of 180

56. Find out mismatch

Question 56 of 180

57. Which of the following is less general in characters compared to family

Question 57 of 180

58. Select the incorrect statements

(i) Cell organelle within cell organelle is plasmosome

(ii) Factory of protein factories is ergosome

(iii) Membraneless non-cell organelle is centrosome

(iv) nucleosomes are ribonucleoprotein bodies

(v) A eukaryotic cell in a eukaryotic cell is vegetative cell

Question 58 of 180

59. The following set of cell organs are included in endomembrane system

Question 59 of 180

60. Which one of the following statements regarding enzymes is wrong

Question 60 of 180

61. Which of the following statements about classification is true?

i) Members of a family are less similar than members of an included genus

ii) An order has more members than the number of members in as included genus

iii) Families have more members than  phyla

iv) Members of a family share a common ancestor in the more distance past than members of an included genus

v) The number of species in a taxon depends on their relative degree of similiarity

Question 61 of 180

62. Processes which can never occur in the structure called “Cell brain” are

A. Polymerisation of ribonucleotides

B. Synthesis of ‘energy currency of cell’

C. Polymerisation of deoxyribonucleotides

D. Polymerisation of amino acids

Question 62 of 180

63. How many chromosomes will be found in a cell at anaphase –II having 2n = 50 ?

Question 63 of 180

64. Fuel of photosynthetic carbon oxidation, is

Question 64 of 180

65. Ability of sigma to recognise the pollen whether it is of right type or the wrong type

Question 65 of 180

66. Find out the incorrect pair

Question 66 of 180

67. How many of the following statements are true

i) Volvox and Fucus show oogamy

ii) Agar is commercially obtained from Gelidium and Gracillaria

iii) Gametophyte is parasite on sporophyte in Sphagnum

iv) Funaria is monoecious and Marchantia is dioecious

v) Source of SCP are Spirullina and Chlorella

Question 67 of 180

68. Which of the following are the simple mechanical tissues

Question 68 of 180

69. Which of the following is a correct match

Question 69 of 180

70. Identify A. B. C. D in the following diagram

Question 70 of 180

71. Which of the following is true w.r.t. grafting

Question 71 of 180

72. Study the following diagrams and identify the option containing correct set answers

Question 72 of 180

73. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M-phase, what will be the content of DNA at G1 phase chromosome and S - phase chromosome of mitosis?

Question 73 of 180

74. DNA polymerase enzyme used in PCR technique is isolated from

Question 74 of 180

75. Identify the set of plants without archegonia

Question 75 of 180

76. In garden pea, round shape of seeds is dominant over wrinkled shape. A pea plant heterozygous for round shape of seed is selfed and 1600 seeds produced during the cross are subsequently germinatied. How many seedlings will have the parental  phenotype?

Question 76 of 180

77. Feature unrelated to slime moulds

Question 77 of 180

78. Wall less protistans among the following are

Question 78 of 180

79. How many plants among the following have opposite phyllotaxy. China rose, Sun flower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium?

Question 79 of 180

80. Culture of the following SCP organism does not require any organic nutrients in the nutrient medium

Question 80 of 180

81. Regarding ATP synthesis in aerobic respiration select the correct match 

 

A B C D

Question 81 of 180

82. Identify the correct matched related to plant movements

Question 82 of 180

83. Read carefully the table and fill up the blanks;

A,B,C and D in the above table refer to

Question 83 of 180

84. A pure pea plant having yellow pods and yellow cotyledons is crossed with another pure pea plant having green pods and green cotyledons. What will be the ratio of recombinants and non-recombinants in F2 generation?

Question 84 of 180

85.

Select the correct match
Column – I                      Column – II

A. Terminalisation                 I. Pachytene

B. Synapsis                             II. Anaphase II

C. Disjunction                        III. Zygotene

D. Recombinations               IV. Anaphase I

V. Diakinesis
A B C D

Question 85 of 180

86. Select the correct statement

Question 86 of 180

87. Which inflorescences are of similar type?

Question 87 of 180

88. DNA with one strand labeled with radioactive thymidine. Allowed to replicate in normal nutrient medium for three generations. Then proportion of DNA molecules showing radioactivity is

Question 88 of 180

89. Identify the incorrect statements

I) Trichoderma species are symbiotic fungi

II) Baculoviruses are nothing but bacteriophages

III) Diphtheria is commonly known as kali khansi

IV) Microbes are used to ferment fish, soyabean and bamboo-shoots to make foods

 

Question 89 of 180

90. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?

Question 91 of 180

92. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I                                                    Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids                  Duodenum, move as                                                                    chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose                Large intestine, active                                                                   absorption
3) Glycine, glucose                        Small intestine, active                                                                   absorption
4) Fructose, Na+                            Small intestine, passive                                                                 absorption

Question 92 of 180

93. Choose the combination of conditions in a tissue that would influence the most rapid dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 93 of 180

94. According to Darwin

I) Inter specific competition is a potent force in organic evolution

II) Evolution was gradual and variations are small and directional

III) Branching decent and Natural selection are two key concepts of evolution

Which of the following statements are correct

Question 94 of 180

95. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

Question 95 of 180

96. According to 2001 census report, the population growth rate of India was

Question 96 of 180

97. Arrange the following habitats related to Bio  diversity conservation in India in descending order

M)Biosphere reserves         N)National Parks

O) Bio diversity hot spots    P) Sanctuaries

Question 97 of 180

98. The embryonic membrane involved in the formation of placenta in human is

Question 98 of 180

99. In Anaphylaxis, IgE interacts with which one of the following biocyte to promote release of inflammatory mediators.

Question 99 of 180

100. Identify the molecules (a) and (B) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.

Molecule                                     Source                                       Use
1) A - Cocaine                   Erythroxylum coca                Accelerates the                                                                                                                           transport of dopamine
2) B - Heroin                    Cannabis sativa                      Depressant and slows down                                                                                                     body functions
3) B - Cannabinoid              Atropa belladonna            Produces hallucinations
4) A - Morphine               Papaver somniferum            Sedative and pain killer

Question 100 of 180

101. Biodiversity is maximum in tropics because

Question 101 of 180

102. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?

Question 102 of 180

103. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

A. Crocodile 4-Chambered heart

B. Sea Urchin Parapodia

C. Obelia Metagenesis

D. Lemur Thecodont

Question 103 of 180

104. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is

Question 104 of 180

105. The state of heart when it does not pump blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body is

Question 105 of 180

106. The three-chambered heart of frog is not as efficient as the human heart with four chambers, because

Question 106 of 180

107. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are

Question 107 of 180

108. Statement(1): (S1): After primary immune response, subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response

Statement(2): (S2): Anamnestic response is because our body develops memory after the first encounter.

Question 108 of 180

109. What is common to whale, seal and shark?

Question 109 of 180

110. Which of the following animal is correctly matched with its genus and two of its characteristics?

 

Question 110 of 180

111. ABO blood group has

Question 111 of 180

112. Two adaptive radiations are shown in the figure below. Animal ‘B’ acquires the same adaptations as the Animal ‘Q’. This type of evolution is called as

Question 112 of 180

113. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

Question 113 of 180

114. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

Question 114 of 180

115. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart are partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

Question 115 of 180

116. The copper ions of IUDs

Question 116 of 180

117. The diagram shows a section through an alveolus and ablood capillary What are the oxygen concentrations at A,B and C?

 

A               B               C

Question 117 of 180

118. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the outer side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

Question 118 of 180

119. The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic process. On this basis fill up A and B boxes in the given diagram with correct options

Question 119 of 180

120. Fill in the blank A involves mating of animals of two different breeds. Hisardale, a new breed of B, has been developed through this mechanism. A B

Question 120 of 180

121. Nephrostome occurs in

Question 121 of 180

122. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?
Examples                                                                   Type of immunity
1) Polymorphonuclear

leucocytes and monocytes                                      Cellular barriers
2) anti-tetanus and anti-snake

bite injections                                                            Active immunity
3) Saliva in mouth and

tears in eyes                                                              Physical barriers
4) mucous coating of epithelium lining                Physiological barriers
the urinogenital tract and the HCl in stomach

Question 122 of 180

123. ‘Penicillin rich medium proves detrimental to bacteria but not beneficial to Penicillium which releases it’. This association can be symbolized as

Question 123 of 180

124. Bundle of His is a network of:

Question 124 of 180

125. According to Forestry Commission Report 1997 the total forest cover of India:

Question 125 of 180

126. Choose the wrong statement.

Question 126 of 180

127. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

Question 127 of 180

128. Given below are four statements A-D w.r.t. mechanism of muscle contraction. Choose from the option stating them as true (T) and false (F)

A. The action potential in the sarcolemma is generated by release of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm

B. The globular head of meromyosin possesses ATPase enzyme activity which causes hydrolysis of ATP and the energy derived make myosin head bind to exposed active sites on actin.

C. Cross bridge formation is followed by pulling the attached myosin filaments towards the centre of ‘I’ band.

D. The breaking of cross bridge requires binding of new ATP at the myosin head.

A B C D

Question 128 of 180

129. The following depiction is the karyotype of “Cinderalla of genetics”

The sex of the Hexapod should beThe sex of the Hexapod should be

Question 129 of 180

130. Find the incorrect match

Question 130 of 180

131. When Glomerular filtrate  is passing through PCT which of the following Biomolecule’s selective reabsorption is 100% into PTC

B1)Creatinine               B2) Glucose

B3) Amino Acids           B4)  Potassium

Question 131 of 180

132. The correct match for structures of cockroach is
Column-I                                                  Column-II
A. Ommatidia                             I. Articulates with thorax
B. Trochanter                             II. For vision
C. Coxa                                        III. Forming exoskeleton
D. Sclerites                                  IV. Fused with large and                                                                  stout femur

Question 132 of 180

133. How many of the given statements are wrong?

A. The rate of diffusion of gas at the respiratory membrane depends upon its solubility as well as on the thickness of membrane

B. The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference if partial pressure is much higher when compared to that of O2

C. Oxygen can bind with haemoglobin in an irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin

D. The factors responsible for formation of oxyhaemoglobin include high pO2, low pCO2, high H+ concentration and low temperature.

Question 133 of 180

134. Epididymis is

Question 134 of 180

135. A phenomena in which a bee visits a flower at the same time every day is called

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. If lone pair of electron occupy axial position then, incorrect about is :

 

Question 136 of 180

137. Which of the following is used as “morning after pill”?

Question 137 of 180

138. I2(aq) + I- (aq) --> I-3(aq)+  We started with 1 mole of I2 and 0.5 mole of I- in one litre flask. After equilibrium is reached excess of AgNO3 gave 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate. Then
Equilibrium constant is

Question 138 of 180

139. Total number of coordination isomers shown by complex  [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(Cl)6] is:

Question 139 of 180

140. DNA & RNA are chiral molecules due to the presence of

 

Question 140 of 180

141. The plots of 1/ XA Vs 1/YA ( where X and YA are the mole fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercepts respectively

Question 141 of 180

142. When H2S is passed through acidified KMnO4  we get

Question 142 of 180

143. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

Question 143 of 180

144. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C6H5CO NH2  II) Pyridine
III)  C6H5-N=N-C6H5

Question 144 of 180

145. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural?

Question 145 of 180

146. A possitive carbylamine test is given by

Question 146 of 180

147. The half life of a reaction is 46 minutes when the initial concentration of the reactant is 4 mol/L and 92 minutes when the initial concentration is 0.2mol/L. The order of the reaction is

Question 147 of 180

148.

Number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain

 

Question 148 of 180

149. 75% completion of a first order reaction takes 2.38 hours. How much time will it take for 99.9% completion?

Question 149 of 180

150. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

Question 150 of 180

151. The most volatile alkane is

Question 151 of 180

152. Which one of the following oxyacids of chlorine is the least
oxidising in nature

Question 152 of 180

153.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

Question 153 of 180

154. An acid-base indicator has a In Kln of 3 ×10-5. The acid form of indicator is red and the basic form is blue.
Then

Question 154 of 180

155. Method which is based on difference in solubility of impurities in molted metal and solid state
of metal is

Question 155 of 180

156. For the given complex ,[CoCl2(en)(NH3)]+ the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

Question 156 of 180

157. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except

Question 157 of 180

158. Benzene reacts with cholorine in the presence of U.V. light and gives

Question 158 of 180

159. Which of the following will have highest negative enthalpy of formation?

Question 159 of 180

160. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl3 solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

Question 160 of 180

161. Which property is common in diamond and graphite

Question 161 of 180

162. Incorrect statement among the following is

Question 162 of 180

163. When 0.1mole MnO42- is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required in coulombs to completely oxidize MnO42- to MnO4- is

Question 163 of 180

164. Assertion: Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
Reason: ΔHf0 of graphite is taken as zero

Question 164 of 180

165. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom?

Question 165 of 180

166. The standard reduction potential for  Cu+2/ Cu  is +0.34V.Calculate the reduction potential at pH=14
for the above couple.   Ksp of Cu(OH)2= 1.0×10-19

Question 166 of 180

167. What would be the product formed when 1-bromo-3 chloro cyclo butane reacts with two equivalents of metallic sodium in ether

Question 167 of 180

168. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

 

Question 168 of 180

169. 51. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zn dust and water gives compound ‘E’. Compound ‘E’ on further treatment with aqu.KOH yields compound ‘F’. Compound ‘F’ is

Question 169 of 180

170. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption.

 

Question 170 of 180

171. To form osazone, mumber of moles of phenyl hydrazine  required by one mole of glucose is

 

Question 171 of 180

172. Which of the following ‘gem’ diols is stable?

Question 172 of 180

173. The correct statement among the following is:
i) NaBH4 produce BH6 on reaction with I2

ii) Reaction between B2H6 and NMe3 is an acid base reaction

iii) BH6 is produced on industrial scale by reaction with BF3, NaH

iv) Boranes on hydrolysis produce
B2H6 and H2 gas

 

 

 

Question 173 of 180

174. 100ml of O 2 on partial ozonisation, O2 and O3are obtained in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 what % of O2is converted into ozone

Question 174 of 180

175. A solution ‘X’ contains 30 mole percent of A and is in equilibrium with its vapour that contains 40 mole percent of ‘B’. The ratio of vapor pressure of pure A and B will be:

Question 175 of 180

176. Which of the following vitamin contains ionone ring and
hydrocarbon chain.

Question 176 of 180

177. Which of the following is incorrect for the indicated property

Question 177 of 180

178. The molecule which is having maximum number of lone pair

Question 178 of 180

179. At what temperature will average speed of the molecules of the second member of the series  CnH2n be the same of Cl2 at 6270C?

Question 179 of 180

180. A and B are compounds of sodium. ‘A’ is thermally stable. On passing CO2 through aq. solution
‘A’, ‘B’ is formed. ‘B’ on heating gives ‘A’. Phenolpthalein is added to aqueous solutions of A, B.
The colours are

Question 180 of 180


 



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