NEET Free Mock Test 1

  • Physics
  • Botany
  • Zoology
  • Chemistry

Physics

1. A voltage of peak value 283 volt and varying frequency is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which R =3 ohm, ‘L=25 mH and C = 40μF . The frequency of the source at which maximum power is dissipated in the circuit is

Question 1 of 180

2. A single slit of width ‘0.1mm’ is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wave length and diffraction bands are observed on a screen ‘0.5m’ from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is

 

Question 2 of 180

3. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L.C.R series circuit used for communication

 

Question 3 of 180

4. The intermolecular potential is dependent on...

Question 4 of 180

5. The value of the stopping potential depends on...

Question 5 of 180

6. A block of mass 10kg moving in X-direction with a constant speed of  10 msec-1, is subjected to a retarding force F = (x/10) (Joule/meter) during its travel from x=10m to x=20m its final kenetic energy will be (in Joule)

 

Question 6 of 180

7. The power of a lens having refractive index 1.25 is +3 diopters. When placed in a liquid its power is -2 diopters. The refractive index of the liquid is

Question 7 of 180

8. A ‘2Mev’ proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ‘2.5 Tesla’. The force on the proton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10-27 kg)

Question 8 of 180

9. For a projectile, its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are equal, maximum height reached by it is (‘u’ is initial velocity of the projectile)

Question 9 of 180

10. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6. The amount of water should be put inside the balloon so that it accelerates down at rate of g/6. (Assume buoyancy force remains the same)

Question 10 of 180

11. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

Question 11 of 180

12. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1:4 produce an interference pattern the fringe visibility will be

 

Question 12 of 180

13. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

Question 13 of 180

14. The aperture of the objective lens of a telescope is made large so as to

 

Question 14 of 180

15. Two parallel wires carry current in the same direction,...

Question 15 of 180

16. A cart of mass ‘M’ is tied by one end of a massless rope of length ‘10m’. The other end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass ‘M’. The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. The man is at ‘x=o’ and the cart at ‘x=10m’ of the man pulls the cart by the rope , the man and the cart will meet at the point

Question 16 of 180

17. A sonometer wire resonate with a given tuning fork forming standing wave with five antinode between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of M is

Question 17 of 180

18. Fermi is a unit of...

Question 18 of 180

19. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10-4 m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

Question 19 of 180

20. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

Question 20 of 180

21. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry and the solid sphere about its diameter axis. After ‘t’ sec their angular velocities are . Choose the correct answer (initial angular speed of each is 'ω0'

Question 21 of 180

22. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 'λ1'and 'λ2' respectively are placed at a distance ‘R’. The force per unit length on either wire will be (k = (1/4πε0))

Question 22 of 180

23. Two equal masses ‘A and B’ moving along the same straight line with velocities 3i m/sec  and '-5i m/sec respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively

Question 23 of 180

24. A cable stretches by amount 'a' under a certain load. If it is replaced by a cable of the same material but half as long and half the diameter, the same load will stretch it by...

Question 24 of 180

25. Diamagnetic materials are substances that...

Question 25 of 180

26. The horizontal component of a force of 10 N inclined at 30° to the vertical is...

Question 26 of 180

27. The given graph represents V – I characteristic for a semiconductor device

Which of the following statement is correct

Question 27 of 180

28. To keep a vehicle moving at the speed v requires a force F. The power needed is...

Question 28 of 180

29. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

 

Question 29 of 180

30. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2ev and the stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface is ‘5volt’. The incident radiation lies in

 

Question 30 of 180

31. The image a camera forms on the film is...

Question 31 of 180

32. A rocket of initial mass  'm0' moving with velocity ‘v’ discharges a jet of gases of mean density ‘ρ’ and effective area ‘A’ the minimum value of ‘v’ of fuel gas, which enables the rocket to rise vertically above is nearly

Question 32 of 180

33. Mark out the incorrect statement regarding transverse standing waves on a string

Question 33 of 180

34. Gas at a pressure ‘P0’ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their r.m.s speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

Question 34 of 180

35. A light ray passes through a prism with an angle of incidence θ, an angle of deviation δ and an angle of emergence ε. Minimum deviation occurs when...

Question 35 of 180

36. A square coil of side ‘25cm’ having 1000 turns is rotated with a uniform speed in a magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the direction of the field. At an instant ‘t’ the ‘e.m.f’ induced in the coil is E= 200 sin100πt. The strength of the magnetic field is (in Tesla)

Question 36 of 180

37. The distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is...

Question 37 of 180

38. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents ‘SHM’

a) Y = sinωt - cosωt

b) Y = Sin3 ωt

c) Y = 5 cos[(3π/4) - 3ωt]

d) Y = 1 + ωt + ω2t2

Question 38 of 180

39. A particle moves along X –axis in such a way that coordinate X varies with time t according to the equation . x = ( 2-5t+6t2)m The initial velocity of the particle is

Question 39 of 180

40. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

 

Question 40 of 180

41. For monatomic gases, Cp/Cv is equal to...

Question 41 of 180

42. Two identical containers each of volume V joined by a normal pipe contains gas at a
temperature T. If one of the containers is now maintained at the same temperature T while the other is maintained at 2T, the number of moles of gas in the container having temperature 2T will be

Question 42 of 180

43. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

 

Question 43 of 180

44. A source and Listner both moving towards each other each with speed .frequency of the note emitted by the source is ‘600Hz’ Apparent wave length of sound wave received by the observer is  ( V = 330 m/ sec)

Question 44 of 180

45. A solid sphere of mass ’M’ ; radius ‘R’ and having moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass is ‘I’. It recast into a disc of thickness ‘t’. Whose moment of inertia about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane remains ‘I’ then radius of the disc will be

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. The probabilities of homozygous tall, heterozygous tall, and homozygous dwarf plants in F2 generation of a monohybrid cross respectively, is

Question 46 of 180

47. The number of Phosphodiester bonds and ester bonds Present in 13.6 nm length DNA

Question 47 of 180

48. Resistance to shoot and fruit borer is observed in a bhindi variety namely

Question 48 of 180

49. Which of the following is true w.r.t. grafting

Question 49 of 180

50. Apple, Custard apple, Pine apple and thorn apple are

Question 50 of 180

51. Consider the following statements and select the wrong one

Question 51 of 180

52. Study the following diagrams & choose the correct option.

Question 52 of 180

53. The assemblage of all the population of different species that function as an integrated unit through coevolved metabolic transformation in a specific area is called

Question 53 of 180

54. Culture of the following SCP organism does not require any organic nutrients in the nutrient medium

Question 54 of 180

55. Identify P,Q,R and S in the given diagram

Question 55 of 180

56. Identify the correct matched related to plant movements

Question 56 of 180

57. S-I : Linked genes get separated due to crossing over

S-II : The closer the genes on a chromosome the more is the probability of recombinations

Question 57 of 180

58. The minerals involved in water-splitting reaction during light phase of photosynthesis is/are

Question 58 of 180

59. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

Question 59 of 180

60. Structures observed both in prokaryotic and eukaryotc cells are

Question 60 of 180

61. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

Question 61 of 180

62. Mesokaryotic condition and mixotrophic nutrition are found, respectively, in

Question 62 of 180

63. In the given diagrams the correct labelling of A, B, C, D, respectively, is

Question 63 of 180

64. DNA polymerase enzyme used in PCR technique is isolated from

Question 64 of 180

65. Which of the following is a wrong match?

Question 65 of 180

66. The phytohormone/s which play(s) an important role in development, maturation and dormancy of seeds is
I. GA3     II. ABA    III. IAA     IV. Kinetin

Question 66 of 180

67. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M-phase, what will be the content of DNA at G1 phase chromosome and S - phase chromosome of mitosis?

Question 67 of 180

68. A cell is kept in hypotonic solution, after sometime is

Question 68 of 180

69. Processes which can never occur in the structure called “Cell brain” are

A. Polymerisation of ribonucleotides

B. Synthesis of ‘energy currency of cell’

C. Polymerisation of deoxyribonucleotides

D. Polymerisation of amino acids

Question 69 of 180

70. Synthesis of human insulin in E.coli cells is the best evidence for

Question 70 of 180

71. Which is incorrect about coenzyme

Question 71 of 180

72. Identify the non-suberised loosely arranged cells for gaseous exchange in the given diagram

Question 72 of 180

73. How many of the following statements are true

i) Volvox and Fucus show oogamy

ii) Agar is commercially obtained from Gelidium and Gracillaria

iii) Gametophyte is parasite on sporophyte in Sphagnum

iv) Funaria is monoecious and Marchantia is dioecious

v) Source of SCP are Spirullina and Chlorella

Question 73 of 180

74. Which site of a tRNA molecule forms hydrogen bonds with particular codon of mRNA molecule?

Question 74 of 180

75. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

Question 75 of 180

76. In garden pea, round shape of seeds is dominant over wrinkled shape. A pea plant heterozygous for round shape of seed is selfed and 1600 seeds produced during the cross are subsequently germinatied. How many seedlings will have the parental  phenotype?

Question 76 of 180

77. Find the correct match
I) Aspergillus niger — fungus — citric acid
II) Streptococcus — bacterium — streptokinase
III) Trichoderma polysporum — fungus — cyclosporin A
IV) Monascus purpureus — yeast — statins
The correct answer is

Question 77 of 180

78. Choose correct option for A,B,C and D of a dicot embryo

Question 78 of 180

79. The following is not a fungal plant disease

Question 79 of 180

80. The following set of cell organs are included in endomembrane system

Question 80 of 180

81. Wall less protistans among the following are

Question 81 of 180

82. Bacteria differ from cyanobacteria by which of the following features?

i) Absence of flagella and fimbriae

ii) dsDNA without attached histones

iii) Anoxygenic photosynthesis

iv) Stored food as glycogen

v) Absence of N2 Fixing cells like heterocysts

 

Question 82 of 180

83. Which of the following statements are correct

A. Guttation is the manifestation of root pressure

B. Natural antitranspirant is PMA

C. Turgor pressure, wall pressure
and pressure potential of a cell, all are numerically equal with same sign

D. High nitrogen to carbon ratio is found in Ureids

Question 83 of 180

84. Which of the following kinds of plants fix carbon dioxide by Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM) pathway

Question 84 of 180

85. Which of the following instruments are correctly matched, except?

i) Potometer – Transpiration rate

ii) Atmometer – Demonstrate transpiration pull

iii) Auxanometer – Growth measurement

iv) Ganog’s light screen – Measure light intensity

v) Manometer – Demonstreate toot pressure

Question 85 of 180

86. Which of the following statement is wrong?

Question 86 of 180

87. In dicotyledonous stem, which of the following is the sequence of tissues from inside to outside?

Question 87 of 180

88. The leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in mature plant in

Question 88 of 180

89. Which of the following is true statement

Question 89 of 180

90. Identify A. B. C. D in the following diagram

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. How many of the following statements are wrong w.r.t. STDs?

A. AIDs is the most dangerous STD.

B. Hepatitis B, genital herpes and HIV infection are not curable

C. Ectopic pregnancy and cancer are not included under the complications of STDs

D. The incidence of STDs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 yearsx

Question 91 of 180

92. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli, atmospheric air and tissue will be ------- mm of Hg

Question 92 of 180

93. Choose the combination of conditions in a tissue that would influence the most rapid dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 93 of 180

94. Select the correct statement from the following

Question 94 of 180

95. ‘Penicillin rich medium proves detrimental to bacteria but not beneficial to Penicillium which releases it’. This association can be symbolized as

Question 95 of 180

96. How many of the given statements are wrong?

A. The rate of diffusion of gas at the respiratory membrane depends upon its solubility as well as on the thickness of membrane

B. The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference if partial pressure is much higher when compared to that of O2

C. Oxygen can bind with haemoglobin in an irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin

D. The factors responsible for formation of oxyhaemoglobin include high pO2, low pCO2, high H+ concentration and low temperature.

Question 96 of 180

97. Which of the following statements correctly defines the phenomenon of genetic drift?
I. Random change in gene allele frequency
II. Occur by chance
III. It is directional
IV. Causes elimination of certain alleles
V. Causes fixation of alleles
The correct combination is

Question 97 of 180

98. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?

Question 98 of 180

99. Identical twins are produced when

Question 99 of 180

100. The following depiction is the karyotype of “Cinderalla of genetics”

The sex of the Hexapod should beThe sex of the Hexapod should be

Question 100 of 180

101. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

Question 101 of 180

102. Match the following columns
Column-I                                          Column-II
A. Dodo                                           I) Rauwolfia
B. Reserpine                                  II) Mauritius
C. Nile perch in lake Victoria       III) Habitat destruction
D. Main cause for biodiversity loss  IV) Alien species

Question 102 of 180

103. Which of the following is responsible for rejection of graft ?

Question 103 of 180

104. When Glomerular filtrate  is passing through PCT which of the following Biomolecule’s selective reabsorption is 100% into PTC

B1)Creatinine               B2) Glucose

B3) Amino Acids           B4)  Potassium

Question 104 of 180

105. Identify the molecules (a) and (B) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.

Molecule                                     Source                                       Use
1) A - Cocaine                   Erythroxylum coca                Accelerates the                                                                                                                           transport of dopamine
2) B - Heroin                    Cannabis sativa                      Depressant and slows down                                                                                                     body functions
3) B - Cannabinoid              Atropa belladonna            Produces hallucinations
4) A - Morphine               Papaver somniferum            Sedative and pain killer

Question 105 of 180

106. Which of the following recombinant protein has been used to treat emphysema?

Question 106 of 180

107. According to Darwin

I) Inter specific competition is a potent force in organic evolution

II) Evolution was gradual and variations are small and directional

III) Branching decent and Natural selection are two key concepts of evolution

Which of the following statements are correct

Question 107 of 180

108. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is

Question 108 of 180

109. According to Forestry Commission Report 1997 the total forest cover of India:

Question 109 of 180

110. Which of the following technique has been shown in the given diagram

 

Question 110 of 180

111. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

A. Crocodile 4-Chambered heart

B. Sea Urchin Parapodia

C. Obelia Metagenesis

D. Lemur Thecodont

Question 111 of 180

112. Two adaptive radiations are shown in the figure below. Animal ‘B’ acquires the same adaptations as the Animal ‘Q’. This type of evolution is called as

Question 112 of 180

113. In which one of the following , erythrocytes are repositories of more  ions as compared to others?

Question 113 of 180

114. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I                          Column II
A. Choanocytes               1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts                 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells                  3. Porifera
D. Nephridia                   4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates               5. Annelid

Question 114 of 180

115. The diagram shows an antibody molecule. Identify A to F.

Question 115 of 180

116. According to 2001 census report, the population growth rate of India was

Question 116 of 180

117. A sensitized Rh --ve woman gives birth dizygotic twins with different Rh phenotypes then

Question 117 of 180

118. In the resting muscle fiber, tropomyosin partially covers

Question 118 of 180

119. Nephrostome occurs in

Question 119 of 180

120. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?

Question 120 of 180

121. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t alimentary canal of cockroach?

Question 121 of 180

122. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

Question 122 of 180

123. Find out the correctly matching set

Question 123 of 180

124. The copper ions of IUDs

Question 124 of 180

125. All of the following are functions of catecholamines, except

Question 125 of 180

126. Given below are four statements A-D w.r.t. mechanism of muscle contraction. Choose from the option stating them as true (T) and false (F)

A. The action potential in the sarcolemma is generated by release of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm

B. The globular head of meromyosin possesses ATPase enzyme activity which causes hydrolysis of ATP and the energy derived make myosin head bind to exposed active sites on actin.

C. Cross bridge formation is followed by pulling the attached myosin filaments towards the centre of ‘I’ band.

D. The breaking of cross bridge requires binding of new ATP at the myosin head.

A B C D

Question 126 of 180

127. Making two varieties of a cattle breed like Red Dane which have no common ancestors on either sides of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations is an example for

Question 127 of 180

128. Find the incorrect match

Question 128 of 180

129. Milk of first transgenic cow Rosie consists

Question 129 of 180

130. which of the the following statement is false?

Question 130 of 180

131. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is

Question 131 of 180

132. In cockroach the flow of haemolymph is

Question 132 of 180

133. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

Question 133 of 180

134. Biodiversity is maximum in tropics because

Question 134 of 180

135. Human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle they are

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl3 solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

Question 136 of 180

137. What would be the product formed when 1-bromo-3 chloro cyclo butane reacts with two equivalents of metallic sodium in ether

Question 137 of 180

138. To form osazone, mumber of moles of phenyl hydrazine  required by one mole of glucose is

 

Question 138 of 180

139. The equivalent weight of HCl in the given reaction is
KCr2O7 +14 HCl -->2KCl + 2CrCl3 +3Cl2 +H2O

Question 139 of 180

140. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except

Question 140 of 180

141. A and B are compounds of sodium. ‘A’ is thermally stable. On passing CO2 through aq. solution
‘A’, ‘B’ is formed. ‘B’ on heating gives ‘A’. Phenolpthalein is added to aqueous solutions of A, B.
The colours are

Question 141 of 180

142. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

Question 142 of 180

143. Incorrect statement among the following is

Question 143 of 180

144. The correct order of increasing acidic strength of the compounds
A) CH3CO2H
B) MeOCH2CO2H
C) CF3CO2H

D)

 

Question 144 of 180

145. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form ‘A’ . ‘A’ is dissolved in water to give ‘Y’. The basicity of ‘Y’ is

Question 145 of 180

146.

Question 146 of 180

147. For one mole of a vanderwaal’s gaswhen b=0 and T=300K, the PV vs1/V plot is shown below. The value of vander waal’s constant ‘a’ in atm.lit2 mole-2 is (graph not to scale)

Question 147 of 180

148. For the given complex ,[CoCl2(en)(NH3)]+ the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

Question 148 of 180

149.

 

 

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

Question 149 of 180

150. DNA & RNA are chiral molecules due to the presence of

 

Question 150 of 180

151. If lone pair of electron occupy axial position then, incorrect about is :

 

Question 151 of 180

152. At what temperature will average speed of the molecules of the second member of the series  CnH2n be the same of Cl2 at 6270C?

Question 152 of 180

153. Which of the following is used as “morning after pill”?

Question 153 of 180

154. The correct order of EM+2/M values with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr,Mn,Fe and Co is

Question 154 of 180

155. Total number of coordination isomers shown by complex  [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(Cl)6] is:

Question 155 of 180

156. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

 

Question 156 of 180

157. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solution will record the highest pH?

Question 157 of 180

158. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?

Question 158 of 180

159. 51. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zn dust and water gives compound ‘E’. Compound ‘E’ on further treatment with aqu.KOH yields compound ‘F’. Compound ‘F’ is

Question 159 of 180

160. Which of the substances added to soap make it antiseptic?

Question 160 of 180

161. The impure 7g of NaCl is dissolved in water and then treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The weight of precipitate of silver chloride is found to be 14g. The % purity of NaCl solution would be (M. Wt of AgCl = 143.5, NaCl = 58.5)

Question 161 of 180

162. V1 ml of 3M HCl solution is mixed with V2ml of 3M H2SO4 to from a solution in which molarity of H+ ions is 5M, then the relation between V1and V2is

 

Question 162 of 180

163. Benzene reacts with cholorine in the presence of U.V. light and gives

Question 163 of 180

164. A possitive carbylamine test is given by

Question 164 of 180

165. Which of the following amines form N-nitroso derivative when treated with NaNO2 and HCl

Question 165 of 180

166. An acid-base indicator has a In Kln of 3 ×10-5. The acid form of indicator is red and the basic form is blue.
Then

Question 166 of 180

167. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

 

Question 167 of 180

168. Which of the following organ metallic compound is σ and π
bonded?

Question 168 of 180

169. The pair of molecules having same geometry and same bond angles are

Question 169 of 180

170. In Kjeldahl ‘s method, the nitrogen gas evolved from 1.325 g sample of a fertilizer is passed into 50.0 mL of 0.2030 N H2SO4mL of 0.1980 N NaOH are required for the titration of unused acid. The percentage of nitrogen in fertilizer is

Question 170 of 180

171.

Question 171 of 180

172. The half life of a reaction is 46 minutes when the initial concentration of the reactant is 4 mol/L and 92 minutes when the initial concentration is 0.2mol/L. The order of the reaction is

Question 172 of 180

173. The shortest wavelength of He+ ion in Balmer series is x, then longest wavelength in the paschen series of Li2+is

Question 173 of 180

174. A solution ‘X’ contains 30 mole percent of A and is in equilibrium with its vapour that contains 40 mole percent of ‘B’. The ratio of vapor pressure of pure A and B will be:

Question 174 of 180

175. When H2S is passed through acidified KMnO4  we get

Question 175 of 180

176. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption.

 

Question 176 of 180

177. Which of the following vitamin contains ionone ring and
hydrocarbon chain.

Question 177 of 180

178. The conductivity of saturated solution of BaSO4is 3.06×10-6  mho cm-1and its equivalent conductance is 1.53 mho cm-2 eq-1. Then Ksp for BaSO4 will be

Question 178 of 180

179. Compound having least heat of hydrogenation:

Question 179 of 180

180. The pH of a solution of H2O2is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

Question 180 of 180


 



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