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Physics

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Physics

1. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

1) 0.25

2) 0.5

3) 0.75

4) 0.99

Question 1 of 180

2. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents ‘SHM’

a) Y = sinωt - cosωt

b) Y = Sin³ ωt

c) Y = 5 cos[(3π/4) - 3ωt]

d) Y = 1 + ωt + ω²t²

1) only ‘a’ and ‘b’

2) only ‘a’

3) only ‘a’ and ‘d’

4) only ‘a’ and ‘c’

Question 2 of 180

3. A rocket of initial mass 'm₀' moving with velocity ‘v’ discharges a jet of gases of mean density ‘ρ’ and effective area ‘A’ the minimum value of ‘v’ of fuel gas, which enables the rocket to rise vertically above is nearly

1) √(ρg)/(m₀A)

2) √(ρgA)/m₀

3) √(m₀g)/(ρA)

4) √(2m₀gA)/ρ

Question 3 of 180

4. The given graph represents V – I characteristic for a semiconductor device

Which of the following statement is correct

1) It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

2) It is for a LED and points A and B represents open circuit voltage and short circuit current respectively

3) It is V – I characteristic for solar cell where point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current

4) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

Question 4 of 180

5. A projectile is thrown in the direction making an angle θ with the horizontal. The projectile attains maximum height for θ equal to...

A. 0

B. π/4

C. π/2

D. π

Question 5 of 180

6. Two identical containers each of volume V joined by a normal pipe contains gas at a
temperature T. If one of the containers is now maintained at the same temperature T while the other is maintained at 2T, the number of moles of gas in the container having temperature 2T will be

1) PV/2RT

2) PV/RT

3) 2PV/3RT

4) PV/3RT

Question 6 of 180

7. A ‘2Mev’ proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ‘2.5 Tesla’. The force on the proton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10^-27 kg)

1) 3×10^-10 N

2) 8× 10^-11 N

3) 3×10^-11N

4) 8×10^-12N

Question 7 of 180

8. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2ev and the stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface is ‘5volt’. The incident radiation lies in

1) Infrared region

2) Visible region

3) X- ray region

4) Ultra – violet region

Question 8 of 180

9. A single slit of width ‘0.1mm’ is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wave length and diffraction bands are observed on a screen ‘0.5m’ from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is

1) 9mm

2) 3mm

3)4.5mm

4)1.5mm

Question 9 of 180

10. The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is ‘4.5 joule’. The charge on the sphere is '4μc' its radius will be [(1/4πε₀)=9×10⁹ N - m²c^-2]

1) 4mm

2) 8 mm

3) 2mm

4) 16 mm

Question 10 of 180

11. An object moving with a speed of 6.25 m/sec, is decelerated at a rate given by (dy/dt) = -2.5√v . Where ‘v’ is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object to come to rest, would be

1) 1 sec

2) 2 sec

3) 4 sec

4) 8 sec

Question 11 of 180

12. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature ‘'T₁' expands according to the law (P/V) = constant expression for the workdone when its final temperature becomes 'T₂' is

1) R( T₂- T₁)

2) (R/2)( T₂- T₁)

3) (R/4)( T₂- T₁)

4) R (( T₂- (T_1/2))

Question 12 of 180

13. The power of a lens having refractive index 1.25 is +3 diopters. When placed in a liquid its power is -2 diopters. The refractive index of the liquid is

1) 1.2

2) 1.4

3) 1.5

4) 1.6

Question 13 of 180

14. The value of the stopping potential depends on...

A. the intensity of light

B. the frequency of light

C. the metal surface area

D. the charge on the electron

Question 14 of 180

15. For a projectile, its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are equal, maximum height reached by it is (‘u’ is initial velocity of the projectile)

1) u²/2g

2) 3u²/4g

3) 16u²/17g

4) 8u²/17g

Question 15 of 180

16. In a uniform segment of a circuit the current is proportional to the...

A. density of the segment

B. resistance of the segment

C. volume of the segment

D. potential difference at its ends

Question 16 of 180

17. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

1) A meter scale

2) A vernier callipers where the ‘10’ divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in ‘1 cm’

3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

Question 17 of 180

18. A square coil of side ‘25cm’ having 1000 turns is rotated with a uniform speed in a magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the direction of the field. At an instant ‘t’ the ‘e.m.f’ induced in the coil is E= 200 sin100πt. The strength of the magnetic field is (in Tesla)

1) 5/125π

2) 2/125π

3) 1/125π

4) 4/125π

Question 18 of 180

19. The radius of the planet is ‘R’ A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius ‘r’ with an angular velocity ‘ω’. The acceleration due to the gravity onthe planet surface is

1) r³ω/R

2) r³ω³/R

3) r³ω²/R

4) r³ω²/R²

Question 19 of 180

20. A block of mass 10kg moving in X-direction with a constant speed of 10 msec^-1, is subjected to a retarding force F = (x/10) (Joule/meter) during its travel from x=10m to x=20m its final kenetic energy will be (in Joule)

1) 475

2) 450

3) 485

4) 515

Question 20 of 180

21. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6. The amount of water should be put inside the balloon so that it accelerates down at rate of g/6. (Assume buoyancy force remains the same)

1) m/5

2) 2m/5

3) 3m/5

4) 4m/5

Question 21 of 180

22. The distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is...

A. λ

B. λ/2

C. λ/3

D. λ/4

Question 22 of 180

23. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

A. frequency

B. amplitude

C. wavelength

D. both frequency and amplitude

Question 23 of 180

24. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 24 of 180

25. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

A. 40 °C

B. 80 °C

C. 313 °C

D. 586 °C

Question 25 of 180

26. The intermolecular potential is dependent on...

A. the shape of the molecules only

B. the molecular separation only

C. both the shape and the molecular separation

D. none of the above

Question 26 of 180

27. A cart of mass ‘M’ is tied by one end of a massless rope of length ‘10m’. The other end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass ‘M’. The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. The man is at ‘x=o’ and the cart at ‘x=10m’ of the man pulls the cart by the rope , the man and the cart will meet at the point

1) X=0

2) x= 5 m

3) x = 10m

4) x=1.5m

Question 27 of 180

28. For monatomic gases, C_p/C_vis equal to...

A. 1.67

B. R

C. 1.67 R

D. 1.5 R

Question 28 of 180

29. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10^-4m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

A. 1.2 W

B. 1.4 W

C. 1.7 W

D. 12 W

Question 29 of 180

30. If the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. is V_mand maximum r.m.s. current is √ 2 ampere for an a.c. circuit with resistance R, then the value of V_min volt is equal to...

A. 2R

B. R

C. 1/R

D. √ 2/R

Question 30 of 180

31. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

1) The kinetic energy of α-particle is zero

2) The kinetic energy of daughter nucleus is always less than kinetic energy of α-particle

3) The magnitude of linear momentum of α-particle and daughter nucleus are not equal

4) The daughter nucleus is always stable

Question 31 of 180

32. A variable frequency A.C. source is connected to a capacitor. How will the displacement current change with decrease in frequency?

1) Increases

2) Decreases

3) Remains same

4) Becomes zero

Question 32 of 180

33. If for the planets in solar system, r is the radius of the orbit and T is the periodic time, then the ratio r³ /T² is...

A. 1

B. same for all planets

C. more for farther planets

D. less for farther planets

Question 33 of 180

34. Magnetic moment and angular moment of revolving electron in a hydrogen atom ‘M’ and ‘L’ respectively then

1) (M/L) = (e/2m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

2) (M/L) = (e/2m);M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

3) (M/L) = (2e/m); M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

4) (M/L) = (4e/m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

Question 34 of 180

35. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index

1) Lies between √2 and 1

2) Lies between 2and √2

3) Is less than 1

4) Is grater 2

Question 35 of 180

36. A thin ring has mass M and radius R. Its moment of inertia about the axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is...

A. MR²

B. M²R

C. M/R²

D. M²/R

Question 36 of 180

37. A voltage of peak value 283 volt and varying frequency is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which R =3 ohm, ‘L=25 mH and C = 40μF . The frequency of the source at which maximum power is dissipated in the circuit is

1) (5000/π) Hz

2) (50/π)Hz

3) (500/π)Hz

4) (5/π)Hz

Question 37 of 180

38. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

1) Temperature on ideal gas scale

2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale

3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale

4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

Question 38 of 180

39. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 600, the angle of refraction ‘A’, angle of deviation ‘δ ’ and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is

1) 1.73

2) 1.15

3) 1.5

4) 1.33

Question 39 of 180

40. The plane faces of two identical plano-convex lenses each having focal length of 40cm are pressed against each other to form a usual convex lens. The distance from lens, at which an object must be placed to obtain a real, inverted image with magnification one is

1) 80cm

2) 40cm

3) 20cm

4) 162 cm

Question 40 of 180

41. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s² . Compared with her mass and weight on the earth, an astronaut on Mars has...

A. less mass and less weight

B. more mass and more weight

C. the same mass and less weight

D. the same mass and more weight

Question 41 of 180

42. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 42 of 180

43. A cable stretches by amount 'a' under a certain load. If it is replaced by a cable of the same material but half as long and half the diameter, the same load will stretch it by...

A. a/4

B. a/2

C. a

D. 2a

Question 43 of 180

44. A thin circular loop of radius ‘R’ rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ‘ ’. A small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω ≤ √(g/R) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = √(2g/R) (Neglect the friction)

1) 300

2) 600

3) 450

4) 1200

Question 44 of 180

45. When a ferromagnet is inserted in a current-carrying loop, the magnetic field...

A. decreases slightly

B. decreases greatly

C. does not change

D. increases greatly

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. Identify A. B. C. D in the following diagram

1) Amonoacid acceptor end, anticodon, codon, mRNA

2) codon, mRNA, Anticodon, Aminoacid acceptor end

3) Autocodon, Codon, mRNA, Aminoacid acceptor end

4) mRNA, anticodon, codon, Aminoacid acceptor end

Question 46 of 180

47. Which of the following statements are correct

A. Guttation is the manifestation of root pressure

B. Natural antitranspirant is PMA

C. Turgor pressure, wall pressure
and pressure potential of a cell, all are numerically equal with same sign

D. High nitrogen to carbon ratio is found in Ureids

1) A B C only

2) B, C, D only

3) A B C D only

4) A, C, D only

Question 47 of 180

48. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

1) 5n, 4n, 7n

2) 7n, 5n, 4n

3) 4n, 5n, 7n

4) 5n, 7n, 4n

Question 48 of 180

49. A common step for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration is

1) ETS

2) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid

3) Glycolysis

4) Krebs cycle

Question 49 of 180

50. Match the items of Column-I with those in Column-II
A B C D E

1) R P T S Q

2) Q P S R T

3) S P Q T R

4) P T R Q S

Question 50 of 180

51. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon compound by a reaction between

1) Succinic acid and pyruvic acid

2) Malic acid and Acetyl CO-A

3) Fumaric acid and pyruvic acid

4) OAA and Acetyl CO-A

Question 51 of 180

52. Select the correct combination of the statements (i-iv) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms

i) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas

ii) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen

iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesise cellulose from glucose

iv) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.

1) (ii) and (iii)

2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

3)(ii), (iii) and (iv)

4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 52 of 180

53. Different types of plastids (chloroplast, chromoplast and leucoplast) are quite related as:

1) These all store lipids and starch

2) These are restricted to the green parts of a plant

3) These al perform almost same function

4) These are interconvertible depending upon the requirement of an organ

Question 53 of 180

54. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option

Column – I Column - II

Ascomycetes i) Ustilago
Phycomycetes ii) Saccharomyces
Basidionycetes iii) trichoderma
Deuteromycetes iv) Albugo

1) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

3) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

4) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)

Question 54 of 180

55. Choose correct option for A,B,C and D of a dicot embryo

1) A-Hypocotyl; B-Cotyledons; C-Root cap; D-Radicle

2) A- Cotyledons; B- Hypocotyl; C- Root cap; D-Radicle

3) A- Cotyledons ;B- Hypocotyl;C- Radicle ;D- Root cap

4) A- Cotyledons; B- Radicle; C- Hypocotyl; D- Root cap

Question 55 of 180

56. Feature unrelated to slime moulds

1) Connecting link between protista and Fungi

2) Multinucleate body

3) Vegetative phase resembles with plants and reproductive phase with animals

4) Multiply by plasmotomy

Question 56 of 180

57. Which of the following four phases, in the post emergence life of an angiospermic plant, begins just after germination of seed and ends when the plant develops the capacity to reproduce ?

1) Death

2) Maturity

3) Ageing

4) Juvenility

Question 57 of 180

58. Which of the following statement is wrong?

1) Uracil is a pyrimidine

2) Sucrose is a disaccharide

3) Cellulose is a homopolysaccharide

4) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid

Question 58 of 180

59. A primary root grows from 10 cm to 30 cm in a day. Calculate the Absolute Growth Rate (AGR) and Relative Growth Rate (RGR) over the period AGR

1) 20 cm 300%

2) 10 cm 200%

3) 20 cm 200%

4) 20 cm 30%

Question 59 of 180

60. Synthesis of human insulin in E.coli cells is the best evidence for

1) Ambiguity of genetic code

2) Universality of genetic code

3) Non cognate genetic code

4) Genetic code is not degenerate

Question 60 of 180

61. Identify P,Q,R and S in the given diagram

1) P-Bundle sheath cell, Q-Regeneration R-Decarboxylation, S-Carboxylation

2) P-Bundle sheath cell, Q-Regeneration R-Decarboxylation, S-Fixation

3) P-mesophyll cell, Q-Regeneration R-Decarboxylation, S-Carboxylation

4) P-Bundle sheath cell, Q-Regeneration R-Carboxylation, S-Fixation

Question 61 of 180

62. Which is incorrect about coenzyme

1) Every enzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is a coenzyme

2) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is not a coenzyme

3) Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides and are composed of vitamins

4) Coenzymes are the active constituents of enzymes.

Question 62 of 180

63. Resistance to shoot and fruit borer is observed in a bhindi variety namely

1) Pusa Swarnim

2) Pusa Sawani

3) Pusa Gaurav

4) Pusa Sem-2 & 3

Question 63 of 180

64. Study the following diagrams & choose the correct option.

1) It is a dioecious pteridophyte producing antheridiophore and archegoniophore

2) It is a dioecious alga producing antheridiophore and archegoniophore

3) a- Male plant of Marchantia, b-Female plant of Marchantia

4) a- Female plant of Marchantia, b-Male plant of Marchantia

Question 64 of 180

65. Eight bacteria kept in cup divide repeatedly and produce 64 bacteria in 2 hours. Find the time consumed in binary fission.

1) 15 minutes

2) 20 minutes

3) 40 minutes

4) 30 minutes

Question 65 of 180

66. The fruit of Annona squamosa (custard apple) develops from

1) polycarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

2) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary and thalamus

3) single ovary

4) polycarpellary, syncarpous ovary

Question 66 of 180

67. Which of the following is less general in characters compared to family

1) Domain

2) Phylum

3) Cohort

4) Genus

Question 67 of 180

68. Pioneers of xerarch succession are

1) Vascular archegoniates

2) Archegoniate spermatophytes

3) Non- archegoniate spermatophytes

4) Composite plants having thalloid body with light harvesting pigments and thalloid bodywith chitinous cellwalls

Question 68 of 180

69. Select the wrong match for microbial products

1) Monascus penpureus – Statins

2) Trichoderma polysporium – Cephalosporin A

3) Streptococcus – Streptokinase

4) Penicillum notatum – Penicillin

Question 69 of 180

70. The biocatalyst ribozyme is synthesized by a process called

1) Replication

2) Reverse transcription

3) Transcription

4)Translation

Question 70 of 180

71. A pure pea plant having yellow pods and yellow cotyledons is crossed with another pure pea plant having green pods and green cotyledons. What will be the ratio of recombinants and non-recombinants in F2 generation?

1) 5 : 3

2) 9 : 7

3) 9 : 4 : 3

4) 3 : 5

Question 71 of 180

72. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

1) Obtaining pure product

2) Addition of preservatives to the product

3) The non requirement of any quality control test

4) Ensuing aerobic conditions in the culture vessel

Question 72 of 180

73. Regarding ATP synthesis in aerobic respiration select the correct match

A B C D

1) III IV I V

2) IV III II I

3) IV III V I

4) III I IV V

Question 73 of 180

74. Which of the following is true w.r.t. grafting

1) Very commonly practiced in monocot plants

2) In air layering i.e. one typed grafting uses auxin to induce rooting

3) Stock is shoot piece which is used in grafting

4) New plant produced after grafting produces fruits similar to scion source

Question 74 of 180

75. The probabilities of homozygous tall, heterozygous tall, and homozygous dwarf plants in F2 generation of a monohybrid cross respectively, is

1) 1/4, 1/2, 1/4

2) 1/2, 1/4, 1/2

3) 1/2, 1/4, 1/4

4) 1/4, 1/4, 1/2

Question 75 of 180

76. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

1) Independent sporophyte

2) Presence of archegonia

3) Well developed vascular tissues

4) Independent gametophyte

Question 76 of 180

77. A leafy vegetable ‘bathua’ produced by IARI is rich in

1) Vitamin A, proteins, calcium

2) Calcium, iron and vitamin C

3) Vitamin D, lysine and tryptophan

4) Iron, vitamin B and carotene

Question 77 of 180

78. Which one among the following represents the correct method of replication of DNA

Question 78 of 180

79. Apple, Custard apple, Pine apple and thorn apple are

1) Parthenocarp, Pseudocarp, Baccate fruit, Schizocarp

2) Pseudocarp, Etaerio of berries, Composite fruit and true fruit

3) Simple fruit, Aggregate fruit, False fruit and multiple fruit

4) Amphisarca, Balausta, Cypsela and Drupe

Question 79 of 180

80. Anticodon is a base triplet present on

1) mRNA complementary to base sequence on rRNA

2) mRNA, complementary to base sequence on tRNA

3) tRNA, complementary to base sequence on rRNA

4) tRNA, complementary to base sequence on mRN

Question 80 of 180

81. Select the incorrect statements

(i) Cell organelle within cell organelle is plasmosome

(ii) Factory of protein factories is ergosome

(iii) Membraneless non-cell organelle is centrosome

(iv) nucleosomes are ribonucleoprotein bodies

(v) A eukaryotic cell in a eukaryotic cell is vegetative cell

1) ii, iii and iv only

2) i, iv and v only

3) iii, iv and v only

4) i, ii, iii, iv and v only

Question 81 of 180

82. Which of the following kinds of plants fix carbon dioxide by Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM) pathway

1) Sorghum

2) Cactii

3) Grass

4) Chlorella

Question 82 of 180

83.

Select the correct match
Column – I Column – II

A. Terminalisation I. Pachytene

B. Synapsis II. Anaphase II

C. Disjunction III. Zygotene

D. Recombinations IV. Anaphase I

V. Diakinesis
A B C D

1) III V IV II

2) V III II I

3) V III IV I

4) III IV II V

Question 83 of 180

84. Which of the following statements about classification is true?

i) Members of a family are less similar than members of an included genus

ii) An order has more members than the number of members in as included genus

iii) Families have more members than phyla

iv) Members of a family share a common ancestor in the more distance past than members of an included genus

v) The number of species in a taxon depends on their relative degree of similiarity

1) i, ii, iii, and iv

2) i, ii, iv and v

3) ii, iii and v

4) All of these

Question 84 of 180

85. In dicot roots, the pericycle gives rise to

1) Lateral roots and a part of vascular cambium

2) Cortex and pith

3) Xylem and Phloem

4) Epidermis and vascular bundles

Question 85 of 180

86. Ψ_wand Ψ_pare zero respectively for

1) Pure water and Flaccid cell

2) Flaccid cell and Turgid cell

3) Pure water and Turgid cell

4) Flaccid cell and Pure water

Question 86 of 180

87. Which of the following are the simple mechanical tissues

1) Parenchyma and Collenchyma

2) Sclerenchyma and Collenchyma

3) Primary xylem and Primary phloem

4) Bast and Leptome

Question 87 of 180

88. Find the correct match w.r.t annual rings

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 88 of 180

89. In garden pea, round shape of seeds is dominant over wrinkled shape. A pea plant heterozygous for round shape of seed is selfed and 1600 seeds produced during the cross are subsequently germinatied. How many seedlings will have the parental phenotype?

1) 400

2) 1600

3) 1200

4) 800

Question 89 of 180

90. An abnormality in humans called ‘Sickle cell anemia’ is resulted due to point mutation leading to the change of

1) Glutamate in to valine

2) Valine into glutamate

3)Alamine into Senine

4) Glycine into valine

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. In which one of the following , erythrocytes are repositories of more ions as compared to others?

1) Carotid artery

2) Jugular vein

3) Pulmonary vein

4) Renal artery

Question 91 of 180

92. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are

1) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and parathormone

2) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucacorticoids

3) insulin, glucagon, glucacorticoids and calcitonin

4) insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and melatonin

Question 92 of 180

93. According to 2001 census report, the population growth rate of India was

1) 17/1000/year

2) 25/1000/year

3) 33/1000/year

4) 8/1000/year

Question 93 of 180

94. A sensitized Rh --ve woman gives birth dizygotic twins with different Rh phenotypes then

1) Type II hyper sensitivity reaction is seen in both the off springs

2) IgG after transplacental migration cause HDNB in both

3) Erythroblastosis foetalis is in off spring with dominant allele

4) Both off springs remain unaffected

Question 94 of 180

95. Read the following (A-D)

A) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in mouth.

B) Chylomicrons are protein coated fat globules transported from intestine into circulatory fluid with all formed elements.

C) In stomach,oxynctic cells secrete proenzyme pepsinogen

D) Unlike marasmus, some fat is still left under skin in kwashiorkor

How many of the above statements are correct

1) Four

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

Question 95 of 180

96. If a female having gene for haemophilia and colour blindness on its one chromosome marries a normal male, then what are the chances in their offspring

1) 50% son are diseased and 50%are normal

2) All normal offspring

3) 100% daughters are carrier

4) 100% son are diseased

Question 96 of 180

97. The enzyme which catalysis the following Biochemical reaction is released from which cells

Trypsinogen → Trypsin

1) Gastric Epithelium

2) Intestinal Mucosa (SI)

3) Hepatic lobules

4) Serous cells of Parotid glands

Question 97 of 180

98. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

1) Temperate deciduous forest

2) Tropical rain forest

3) Tropical deciduous forest

4) Temperate evergreen forest

Question 98 of 180

99. ABO blood group has

1) Two codominants and onerecessive alleles

2) Two codominants and tworecessive alleles

3) Two incompletely dominant genes

4) Two pseudo alleles

Question 99 of 180

100. Select the correct statement from the following

1) Mutations are random and directional

2) Darwinian variations are small and directionless

3) Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution

4) Darwin believed that it is mutation which causes evolution

Question 100 of 180

101. The state of heart when it does not pump blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body is

1) Heart attack

2) Angina pectoris

3) Cardiac arrest

4) Heart failure

Question 101 of 180

102. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

1) A-1000, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

2) A-1400, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

3) A-1000, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

4) A-1400, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

Question 102 of 180

103. All of the following are functions of catecholamines, except

1) Pupilary dilation

2) Piloerection

3) Tachycardia

4) Lipogenesis

Question 103 of 180

104. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

1) Calciferol – Pellagra

2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

4) Cobalamin – Beriberi

Question 104 of 180

105. Hyperdactyly (the possession of more than 12 fingers) is determined by the dominant allele (H) and normal condition by recessive allele (h).

The diagram shown a family tree in which some members of the family are hyperdactylus
Find out the genotype of A, B and C

1) A-Hh, B-Hh, C-hh

2) A-HH, B-Hh, C-hh

3) A-Hh, B-HH, C-hh

4) A-HH, B-HH, C-hh

Question 105 of 180

106. Arrange the periods of palaeozoic era in ascending order in a geological time scale

1) Silurian – Devonian – Carboniferous - Permian

2) Devonian – Silurian – Carboniferous – Permian

3) Permian -Devonian– Silurian – Carboniferous

4) Silurian – Carboniferous – Permian – Devonian

Question 106 of 180

107. Which of the following statements are false/true?
I. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium level
II. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth.
III. Grave’s disease is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal cortex
IV. ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine output.

1) I and III are true; II and IV are false

2) I and II are true; III and IV are false

3) II and III are true; I and IV are false

4) I, II and III are true; IV only false

Question 107 of 180

108. Which is correctly labeled with respect to the given diagram?

1) B : Logistic curve

2) C: Carrying capacity

3) C: Exponential curve

4) A : Carrying capacity

Question 108 of 180

109. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the outer side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

1) First positive, then negative and again back to positive

2) First negative, then positive and again back to negative

3) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative

4) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive

Question 109 of 180

110. Observe the following

The above device is used to

1) Reduce Particulate pollution

2) Remove SO2

3) Reduce automobile emissions

4) limit noise pollution

Question 110 of 180

111. The embryonic membrane involved in the formation of placenta in human is

1) yolk sac

2) umbilical cord

3) amnion

4) chorion

Question 111 of 180

112. In the resting muscle fiber, tropomyosin partially covers

1) calcium binding sites on troponin

2) actin binding sites on myosin

3) myosin binding sites on actin

4) calcium binding sites on actin

Question 112 of 180

113. The copper ions of IUDs

1) Suppress the motility and fertilization capacity of sperms

2) Make the uterus suitable for implantation

3) Increase pinocytosis of sperms

4) Make cervix hostile to sperms

Question 113 of 180

114. In Anaphylaxis, IgE interacts with which one of the following biocyte to promote release of inflammatory mediators.

Question 114 of 180

115. Satellite DNA is useful tool in

1) organ transplantation

2) sex determination

3) forensic science

4) genetic engineering

Question 115 of 180

116. Bundle of His is a network of:

1) Muscle fibres distributedthroughout the heart walls

2) Muscle fibres found only in theventricle wall

3) Nerve fibres distributed inventricles

4) Nerve fibres found throughoutheart

Question 116 of 180

117. Which of the following statement is true for the structure marked ‘A’ in the given figure

1) It contains sensory areas, motor areas and association areas

2) It is referred to as the grey matter due to it’s greyish appearance

3) It is thrown into prominent folds

4) It constitutes the inner part of cerebral hemisphere

Question 117 of 180

118. Milk of first transgenic cow Rosie consists

1) alpha lactalbumin

2) alpha-1 antitrypsin

3) alpha amylase

4) alpha polypeptide

Question 118 of 180

119. Identify the molecules (a) and (B) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.

Molecule Source Use
1) A - Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine
2) B - Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions
3) B - Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations
4) A - Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 119 of 180

120. Following is a diagrammatic representation of endocrine glands with a labelled part ‘A’. The part ‘A’ serves as the connection between

1) Hypothalamus and adenohypophysis

2) Hypothalamus and neurohypophysis

3) Hypothalamus and pars nervosa

4) Hypothalamus and epiphysis

Question 120 of 180

121. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 121 of 180

122. The diagram shows an antibody molecule. Identify A to F.

1) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

2) A-Antigen binding site; B-Constant region (of L-Chain); C-Variable region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain(L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

3) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Heavy polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Light polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

4) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

Question 122 of 180

123. Observe the relaxed myocyte’s myofibril

Which of the following muscles have those traits?

a) Lateral rectus muscle

b) Iris muscles

c) Ciliary muscles

d) Sartorius muscle

1) a and c

2) b only

3) a, b and d

4)a and d

Question 123 of 180

124. Find the incorrect match

1) Colostrum – IgA antibodies

2) Recombinant DNA – Hepatitis Bvaccine technology produced fromyeast

3) Allergy – Release of chemicals likehistamine and serotonin from themast cells

4) Autoimmune – Adrenaline disease

Question 124 of 180

125. Which of the following statements are correct related to human

A. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase.

B. Lipases are absent in secretion of gastric glands

C. Bile helps in emulsification of fats and also activates lipases.

D. Nucleases in the succus entericus acts on nucleic acids to form nucleotides and nucleosides

1) A, B, C

2) A, C

3) C, D

4) A, C, D

Question 125 of 180

126. Which of the following statements correctly defines the phenomenon of genetic drift?
I. Random change in gene allele frequency
II. Occur by chance
III. It is directional
IV. Causes elimination of certain alleles
V. Causes fixation of alleles
The correct combination is

1) I, II and III

2) III, IV and V

3) I, III and V

4) I, II, IV and V

Question 126 of 180

127. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?

1) Ventral heart→Scorpion

2) Post-anal tail→Octopus

3) Ventral central nervous system→Leech

4) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo→Chamaeleon

Question 127 of 180

128. Find out the correct labelling of bones A, B, C and D in the given figure

1) A-Clavicle B-Humerus C-Ulna D-Radius

2) A-Clavicle B-Humerus C-Radius D-Ulna

3) A-Scapula B-Humerus C-Ulna D-Ulna

4) A-Clavicle B-Femur C-Radius D-Ulna

Question 128 of 180

129. Implantation of the blastocyst occurs

1) just prior to conception

2) one week after fertilization

3) at one month’s gestation

4) just prior to birth

Question 129 of 180

130. Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during spermatogenesis, some sperms carry both sex
chromosomes (22A + XY) and some sperms do not carry any sex chromosome (22A + O). If these sperms fertilise normal eggs (22A + X), what types of genetic disorders appear among the offsprings?

1) Klinefelter’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

2) Down’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome

3) Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

4) Down’s syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome

Question 130 of 180

131. Plant whose product is with hallucinogenic properties is

1) Papaver somniferum

2) Atropa belladona

3) Solanum tuberosum

4) Rauwolfia serpentina

Question 131 of 180

132. ‘Penicillin rich medium proves detrimental to bacteria but not beneficial to Penicillium which releases it’. This association can be symbolized as

1) + +

2) - 0

3) - -

4) + 0

Question 132 of 180

133. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

1)Lemur

2)Tasmanian wolf

3) Numbat

4)Bobcat

Question 133 of 180

134. Identical twins are produced when

1) One fertilized egg divides and two blastomeres separate

2) One sperm fertilizes two eggs

3) One egg is fertilized with two sperms

4) Two eggs are fertilized

Question 134 of 180

135. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is

1) FSH, progesterone, oestrogen

2) oestrogen, FSH, progesterone

3) FSH, oestrogen, progesterone

4) progesterone, oestrogen, FSH

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136.

Number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain

1) 7

2) 4

3)6

4)5

Question 136 of 180

137.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

1) formation of Y is a syn addition

2)during the formation of X, the intermediate is a carbocation

3) X is a positional isomer of Y

4) formation of Y follows markonikov's rule

Question 137 of 180

138. An oxide of Nitrogen which form reddish brown fumes in air is

1) N₂O

2) NO₂

3) NO

4) N₂O₃

Question 138 of 180

139. When two moles of an ideal gas (C_pm=(5/2)R) heated from 300K to 600K at constant pressure. The change in entropy of gas (∆s ) is

1) (3/2)R ln2

2) (-3/2)R ln2

3) 5R ln2

4) (5/2)R ln2

Question 139 of 180

140. Assertion: Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
Reason: ΔH_f⁰ of graphite is taken as zero

1) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2) Both assertion and reason are correct reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion.

3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.

4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

Question 140 of 180

141. The half life of a reaction is 46 minutes when the initial concentration of the reactant is 4 mol/L and 92 minutes when the initial concentration is 0.2mol/L. The order of the reaction is

1) Zero

2) 0.5

3) 2

4) 1

Question 141 of 180

142. 51. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zn dust and water gives compound ‘E’. Compound ‘E’ on further treatment with aqu.KOH yields compound ‘F’. Compound ‘F’ is

Question 142 of 180

143. The values of electro negativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage ionic character of A-B bond is

1) 50%

2) 72.24%

3) 55.3%

4) 43%

Question 143 of 180

144. The standard reduction potential for Cu⁺²/ Cu  is +0.34V.Calculate the reduction potential at pH=14
for the above couple. ^K_s_pof Cu(OH)₂= 1.0×10^-19

1) +0.2205V

2) +0.386V

3) -0.2205V

4) -0.386V

Question 144 of 180

145. For one mole of a vanderwaal’s gaswhen b=0 and T=300K, the PV vs1/V plot is shown below. The value of vander waal’s constant ‘a’ in atm.lit² mole^-2is (graph not to scale)

1) 1.0

2)4.5

3) 1.5

4) 3.0

Question 145 of 180

146. The most volatile alkane is

1) n – pentane

2) isopentane

3) neopentane

4) n–hexane

Question 146 of 180

147. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl₃solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

1) peptisation

2) dialysis

3) osmosis

4) coagulation

Question 147 of 180

148. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

1) Teflon –Additional polymer

2) Gun cotton –synthetic polymer

3) Protein – natural polymer

4) Nylon-6, 6 – condensation polymer

Question 148 of 180

149. When 0.1mole MnO₄^2- is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required in coulombs to completely oxidize MnO₄^2- to MnO₄^- is

1) 96500

2) 2×96500

3)9650

4) 96.50

Question 149 of 180

150. Which of the following compound react faster through SN²mechanism

1) CH3- CH2Br

2) CH3- O - CH₂Br

3) C₆H5- CO - CH2Br

4) CH₃ - C (CH₃ )2- CH2Br

Question 150 of 180

151. The weight of H₂O₂present in 80 ml of 10V H₂O₂ solution is

1) 3.2 gr

2) 4.2 gr

3) 2.4 gr

4) 3.6 gr

Question 151 of 180

152. In Kjeldahl ‘s method, the nitrogen gas evolved from 1.325 g sample of a fertilizer is passed into 50.0 mL of 0.2030 N H₂SO₄mL of 0.1980 N NaOH are required for the titration of unused acid. The percentage of nitrogen in fertilizer is

1) 10.86%

2) 21.72 %

3) 5.43 %

4) 2.75 %

Question 152 of 180

153. A possitive carbylamine test is given by

1) N,N – dimethyl aniline

2) Isopropyl amine

3) diethyl amine

4) trimethyl amine

Question 153 of 180

154. 100ml of O ₂on partial ozonisation, O₂and O₃are obtained in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 what % of O₂is converted into ozone

1) 60%

2) 50%

3) 40%

4) 57%

Question 154 of 180

155. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption.

Question 155 of 180

156. If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ions discharged at cathode are

1) H⁺

2) Na⁺

3) OH^-

4) Cl^-

Question 156 of 180

157. To form osazone, mumber of moles of phenyl hydrazine required by one mole of glucose is

1) 4

2) 3

3) 2

4) 1

Question 157 of 180

158. Find correct statement

1) KMnO₄ is coloured due to d-d transition

2) K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is low spin complex

3) Zn and Cd are transition metal

4) All lanthanoids are radioactive

Question 158 of 180

159. If lone pair of electron occupy axial position then, incorrect about is :

1) It is a planar molecule

2) It has T-shape

3) All bond lengths are equal

4) repulsion will be minimum

Question 159 of 180

160. Incorrect statement among the following is

1) Pure CO is prepared bydehydration of formic acid with conc. H₂S4

2) Commercially CO is prepared byassing steam over red hot coke

3) CO is a powerful reducing agentand reduces almost all metal oxidesother than IA, IIA group elements,Al etc...

4) CO is a Lewis acid

Question 160 of 180

161. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 161 of 180

162. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in

1) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides

2) forming polymeric hydrides

3) forming covalent halides

4)exhibiting same covalency incompounds

Question 162 of 180

163. Compound having least heat of hydrogenation:

Question 163 of 180

164. The pair of molecules having same geometry and same bond angles are

1) NH₄+,PCl3

2) NH4+ , CH4

3) H2O , SO2

4) NH3 , PH3

Question 164 of 180

165. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural?

1) NH₃ , PH₃

2) XeF₄ , XeO₄

3) SiCl₄ , PCl⁺₄

4) diamond, silicon carbide

Question 165 of 180

166. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C₆H₅CO NH₂ II) Pyridine
III) C₆H₅-N=N-C₆H₅

1) I,III

2) II,III

3) III,IV

4) I,II

Question 166 of 180

167. 20g of naphthoic acid (C₁₁H₈O₂) is dissolved in 50g of benzene, then freezing point depression of 2K is observed for solution. The vant hoff factor will be ( K_f for benzene=1.72 Kg Mol^-1)

1) 0.75

2) 2

3) 0.5

4) 3

Question 167 of 180

168. The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1eV The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na⁺ will be

1) -2.55eV

2) -5.1eV

3) -10.21eV

4) +2.55eV

Question 168 of 180

169. The plots of 1/ X_AVs 1/Y_A( where X_A and Y_Aare the mole fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercepts respectively

Question 169 of 180

170. Which of the following is incorrect for the indicated property

1) Beo < Mgo (Basic strength)

2) SO2> SeO2> TeO2 (Acidic strength)

3) Nacl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl (Melting point)

4) BaSO4> SrSO4> CaSO4>MgSO4> BeSO4 (Solubility)

Question 170 of 180

171. Most basic and acidic oxides are formed by the following 3rd period elements.

1) Cs, Cl

2) Na, Cl

3) Na, F

4) Cs, S

Question 171 of 180

172. The shortest wavelength of He⁺ ion in Balmer series is x, then longest wavelength in the paschen series of Li²⁺is

1) 36x/5

2) 16x/7

3) 9x/5

4) 5x/5

Question 172 of 180

173. A and B are compounds of sodium. ‘A’ is thermally stable. On passing CO₂through aq. solution
‘A’, ‘B’ is formed. ‘B’ on heating gives ‘A’. Phenolpthalein is added to aqueous solutions of A, B.
The colours are

1) colourless, colourless

2) pink, pink

3) colourless, pink

4) pink, colourless

Question 173 of 180

174. Which of the following has minimum flocculation value for positively charged sol ?

1) Cl^-

2) SO₄^2-

3) PO₄^3-

4) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-

Question 174 of 180

175. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form ‘A’ . ‘A’ is dissolved in water to give ‘Y’. The basicity of ‘Y’ is

1) 1

2) 2

3) 0

4) 3

Question 175 of 180

176. The molecule which is having maximum number of lone pair

1) SiF₄

2) BrF₃

3) XeF₂

4) SF₄

Question 176 of 180

177. Which of the following vitamin contains ionone ring and
hydrocarbon chain.

1) Calciferol

2) Thiamin

3) Retinol

4) Riboflavin

Question 177 of 180

178. Which of the substances added to soap make it antiseptic?

1) Iodine

2) KMnO4

3) Bithional

4) Cl2

Question 178 of 180

179.

1) Glyptal

2) Dacron

3) Nylon-6,6

4) Nylon-6

Question 179 of 180

180. For decolourization of one mole of KMnO₄ the required litre of 30 volume H₂O₂ in acidified medium is

1) 0.94

2) 9.4

3) 0.094

4) 3.01

Question 180 of 180

NEET Free Mock Test 1

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Zoology for NEET and EAMCET – Online Practice Test