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Physics

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Physics

1. Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of mass 88000 kg. The inner and outer radii of each column are 30cm and 40cm respectively. Assuming load distribution is uniform. The compressional strain of each column is (Y = 2×10¹¹ N/m² )

1) 20×10^-6

2) 1.25×1010^-6

3) 5×10^-6

4) 10×10^-6

Question 1 of 180

2. The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is ‘4.5 joule’. The charge on the sphere is '4μc' its radius will be [(1/4πε₀)=9×10⁹ N - m²c^-2]

1) 4mm

2) 8 mm

3) 2mm

4) 16 mm

Question 2 of 180

3. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates

1) OR

2) NAND

3)AND

4) NOR

Question 3 of 180

4. Of the following the one that is a vector is...

A. electric charge

B. electric field

C. electric energy

D. potential difference

Question 4 of 180

5. Two equal masses ‘A and B’ moving along the same straight line with velocities 3i m/sec and '-5i m/sec respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively

1) 4i m/sec for both

2) -3i m/sec and 5i m/sec

3) -4i m/sec and 4i m/sec

4) -5i m/sec and 3i m/sec

Question 5 of 180

6. The horizontal component of a force of 10 N inclined at 30° to the vertical is...

A. 5 N

B. 5√ 3 N

C. 3 N

D. 10/√ 3 N

Question 6 of 180

7. Pick out the wrong statement from the following.

1) Viscosity depends upon the nature of the liquids

2) Generally viscosity of liquids is more than that of gases

3) In case of gases, viscosity decreases with increase in temperature

4) In case of liquids, viscosity decreases with increase in temperature

Question 7 of 180

8. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 10³ kg/m³ with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are 8 × 10³ kg/m³ and 11 × 10³ kg/m³ The ratio of their radii is

1) 11/8

2) √(11/8)

3) 3/2

4) √(3/2)

Question 8 of 180

9. A square coil of side ‘25cm’ having 1000 turns is rotated with a uniform speed in a magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the direction of the field. At an instant ‘t’ the ‘e.m.f’ induced in the coil is E= 200 sin100πt. The strength of the magnetic field is (in Tesla)

1) 5/125π

2) 2/125π

3) 1/125π

4) 4/125π

Question 9 of 180

10. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is (C is the Velocity of light )

1) E/C

2) 2E/C

3) EC

4) E/C²

Question 10 of 180

11. Two parallel wires carry current in the same direction,...

A. they attract each other

B. they repel each other

C. they neither attract nor repel

D. they attract or repel depending on current type

Question 11 of 180

12. A source and Listner both moving towards each other each with speed .frequency of the note emitted by the source is ‘600Hz’ Apparent wave length of sound wave received by the observer is ( V = 330 m/ sec)

1) 0.5m

2) 0.45m

3)0.1m

4) 0.6m

Question 12 of 180

13. The plane faces of two identical plano-convex lenses each having focal length of 40cm are pressed against each other to form a usual convex lens. The distance from lens, at which an object must be placed to obtain a real, inverted image with magnification one is

1) 80cm

2) 40cm

3) 20cm

4) 162 cm

Question 13 of 180

14. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

A. interference

B. diffraction

C. resolving power

D. polarization

Question 14 of 180

15. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 15 of 180

16. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L.C.R series circuit used for communication

1) R = 15ΩL = 3.5H.C = 30μF

2) R = 25ΩL = 1.5H.C = 45μF

3) R = 20ΩL = 1.5H.C = 35μF

4) R = 25ΩL = 2.5H.C = 45μF

Question 16 of 180

17. Two bodies ‘A and B’ of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid partition. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. A force of 200N is applied horizontally at ‘A’ action reaction force between A and B is (g = 10 m/sec²)

1) 170 N

2) 200 N

3) 190 N

4) 210 N

Question 17 of 180

18. A Carnot engine operates between 800K and 200K. If it absorbs 8 kJ of heat in each cycle, the work done by it per cycle is...

A. 1 kJ

B. 2 kJ

C. 2.7 kJ

D. 6 kJ

Question 18 of 180

19. A single slit of width ‘0.1mm’ is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wave length and diffraction bands are observed on a screen ‘0.5m’ from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is

1) 9mm

2) 3mm

3)4.5mm

4)1.5mm

Question 19 of 180

20. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature ‘'T₁' expands according to the law (P/V) = constant expression for the workdone when its final temperature becomes 'T₂' is

1) R( T₂- T₁)

2) (R/2)( T₂- T₁)

3) (R/4)( T₂- T₁)

4) R (( T₂- (T_1/2))

Question 20 of 180

21. The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is half of its initial velocity ‘u’. Its range on the horizontal plane is

1) 2u2/3g

2) √3u2/2g

3) u2/3g

4) u2/2g

Question 21 of 180

22. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 22 of 180

23. Two identical containers each of volume V joined by a normal pipe contains gas at a
temperature T. If one of the containers is now maintained at the same temperature T while the other is maintained at 2T, the number of moles of gas in the container having temperature 2T will be

1) PV/2RT

2) PV/RT

3) 2PV/3RT

4) PV/3RT

Question 23 of 180

24. The radius of the planet is ‘R’ A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius ‘r’ with an angular velocity ‘ω’. The acceleration due to the gravity onthe planet surface is

1) r³ω/R

2) r³ω³/R

3) r³ω²/R

4) r³ω²/R²

Question 24 of 180

25. For monatomic gases, C_p/C_vis equal to...

A. 1.67

B. R

C. 1.67 R

D. 1.5 R

Question 25 of 180

26. Calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to raise temperature of 1g of water by 1⁰C and it is defined under which of the following conditions

1) From 14.50C to 15.50C at 760 mm of Hg

2) From 98.50C to 99.50C at 760 mm of Hg

3) From 13.50C to 14.50C at 76 mm of Hg

4) From 3.50C to 4.50C at 76 mm of Hg

Question 26 of 180

27. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry and the solid sphere about its diameter axis. After ‘t’ sec their angular velocities are . Choose the correct answer (initial angular speed of each is 'ω₀'

1) ω₁ = ω₂

2) ω₁ < ω₂

3) ω₁ > ω₂

4) Both 2 & 3

Question 27 of 180

28. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

1) Temperature on ideal gas scale

2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale

3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale

4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

Question 28 of 180

29. The image a camera forms on the film is...

A. always real

B. always virtual

C. always erect

D. sometimes inverted

Question 29 of 180

30. An electric cell of e.m.f ‘E’ is connected across a copper wire of diameter ‘d’ and length 'l' the drift velocity of electron in the wire is 'v_d' If the length and diameter of the wire are doubled the new drift velocity of electron is

1) v_d

2) 2v_d

3) v_d/2

3) v_d/4

Question 30 of 180

31. If the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. is V_mand maximum r.m.s. current is √ 2 ampere for an a.c. circuit with resistance R, then the value of V_min volt is equal to...

A. 2R

B. R

C. 1/R

D. √ 2/R

Question 31 of 180

32. A ‘2Mev’ proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ‘2.5 Tesla’. The force on the proton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10^-27 kg)

1) 3×10^-10 N

2) 8× 10^-11 N

3) 3×10^-11N

4) 8×10^-12N

Question 32 of 180

33. A projectile is thrown in the direction making an angle θ with the horizontal. The projectile attains maximum height for θ equal to...

A. 0

B. π/4

C. π/2

D. π

Question 33 of 180

34. For a projectile, its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are equal, maximum height reached by it is (‘u’ is initial velocity of the projectile)

1) u²/2g

2) 3u²/4g

3) 16u²/17g

4) 8u²/17g

Question 34 of 180

35. The aperture of the objective lens of a telescope is made large so as to

1) Increase the magnifying power of the telescope

2) Increase the resolving power of the telescope

3) Focus on distant objects

4) Ease of Manufacture

Question 35 of 180

36. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 600, the angle of refraction ‘A’, angle of deviation ‘δ ’ and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is

1) 1.73

2) 1.15

3) 1.5

4) 1.33

Question 36 of 180

37. A variable frequency A.C. source is connected to a capacitor. How will the displacement current change with decrease in frequency?

1) Increases

2) Decreases

3) Remains same

4) Becomes zero

Question 37 of 180

38. When a ferromagnet is inserted in a current-carrying loop, the magnetic field...

A. decreases slightly

B. decreases greatly

C. does not change

D. increases greatly

Question 38 of 180

39. A nucleus of mass 'M + ∆m' is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass '(M/2)' each speed of light is ‘C’. The speed of daughter nuclei is

1) C√[∆m/M + ∆m]

2) C√[∆m/M]

3) C√[2∆m/ M]

4) C√[M/2∆m]

Question 39 of 180

40. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6. The amount of water should be put inside the balloon so that it accelerates down at rate of g/6. (Assume buoyancy force remains the same)

1) m/5

2) 2m/5

3) 3m/5

4) 4m/5

Question 40 of 180

41. A block of mass 10kg moving in X-direction with a constant speed of 10 msec^-1, is subjected to a retarding force F = (x/10) (Joule/meter) during its travel from x=10m to x=20m its final kenetic energy will be (in Joule)

1) 475

2) 450

3) 485

4) 515

Question 41 of 180

42. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10^-4m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

A. 1.2 W

B. 1.4 W

C. 1.7 W

D. 12 W

Question 42 of 180

43. In the figure shown a source of sound of frequency 510 Hz move with constant velocity V_s=20 m/ s in the direction shown. The wind is blowing at a constant velocity V_w=20 m/S towards an observer who is at rest at point B. Corresponding to the sound emitted by the source in initial position A, the frequency detected by the observer is equal to (speed of sound relative to air = 330 m/s)

1) 510 Hz

2) 500 Hz

3) 525 Hz

4) 550 Hz

Question 43 of 180

44. The maximum value of ‘F’ for which both the blocks move together is

1) 95N

2) 100 N

3) 105 N

4) 110 N

Question 44 of 180

45. A cart of mass ‘M’ is tied by one end of a massless rope of length ‘10m’. The other end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass ‘M’. The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. The man is at ‘x=o’ and the cart at ‘x=10m’ of the man pulls the cart by the rope , the man and the cart will meet at the point

1) X=0

2) x= 5 m

3) x = 10m

4) x=1.5m

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

1) Independent sporophyte

2) Presence of archegonia

3) Well developed vascular tissues

4) Independent gametophyte

Question 46 of 180

47. Identify the correct matched related to plant movements

1) Migration of male gametes in bryophytes and pteridophytes - Chemotropism

2) Growth of pollen tube – Chemotactism

3) Avena coleoptiles – Phototropism

4) Sleeping movements in legumes – Thermonasty

Question 47 of 180

48. After initial growth maize stem elongates by the activity of

1) Intercalary meristem

2) Intrafascicular cambium

3) Interfascicular cambium

4) Secondary cortical cambium

Question 48 of 180

49. Read the following and identify the correct statement

1) The price of earth’s fundamental ecosystem services is – US $18 trillion

2) Among the all ecosystem services soil formation alone accounts for about 50%.

3) Bees are alone responsible for 30-45% of food production in US by bringing cross pollination in crops

4) The lungs of the word are cows, buffaloes, goats and sheep

Question 49 of 180

50. Bicollateral vascularbundles are present in which part of the Solanaceae and Cucurbitaceae members

1) Root

2) Leaves

3) Stem

4) All the above

Question 50 of 180

51. How many of the following statements are true

i) Volvox and Fucus show oogamy

ii) Agar is commercially obtained from Gelidium and Gracillaria

iii) Gametophyte is parasite on sporophyte in Sphagnum

iv) Funaria is monoecious and Marchantia is dioecious

v) Source of SCP are Spirullina and Chlorella

1) 4

2) 3

3) 5

4) 2

Question 51 of 180

52. Number of amembraneous structures from the following is/areRibosome, Centriole, Cytoskeleton, Peroxisome, Nucleolus, Inclusion bodies, Power house of the cell

1) 7

2) 5

3) 6

4) 4

Question 52 of 180

53. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option

Column – I Column - II

Ascomycetes i) Ustilago
Phycomycetes ii) Saccharomyces
Basidionycetes iii) trichoderma
Deuteromycetes iv) Albugo

1) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

3) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

4) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)

Question 53 of 180

54. Meiosis involves

1. One nuclear, one chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

2. Two nuclear, one chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, one cycle of DNA replication

3. One nuclear, two chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

4. Two nuclear, two chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, two cycles of DNA replication

Question 54 of 180

55. Select the nutritive tissue in the structure of anther

1) –S

2) –R

3) –Q

4) P

Question 55 of 180

56. Primary succession results in formation of communities on area

1) After afforestation

2) Of abandoned crop field

3) With no record of earlier vegetation

4) After heavy floods spoiled agricultural field

Question 56 of 180

57. Culture of the following SCP organism does not require any organic nutrients in the nutrient medium

1) Spirulina

2) Methylophilus

3)Candida

4) Brevibacterium

Question 57 of 180

58. Identify A. B. C. D in the following diagram

1) Amonoacid acceptor end, anticodon, codon, mRNA

2) codon, mRNA, Anticodon, Aminoacid acceptor end

3) Autocodon, Codon, mRNA, Aminoacid acceptor end

4) mRNA, anticodon, codon, Aminoacid acceptor end

Question 58 of 180

59. Which of the following is true statement

1) Pribnow box lies in mRNA in upstream stream sequence.

2) In clover leaf model of tRNA, amino acid is attached to 5’ by ester bond, if it is a charged one

3) Translation is initiated by factor, formed of -chain, of RNA polymerase enzyme

4) Sn RNA, 5S RNA and tRNA are transcribed with the help of RNA polymerase lll in eukaryotes

Question 59 of 180

60. Which of the following four phases, in the post emergence life of an angiospermic plant, begins just after germination of seed and ends when the plant develops the capacity to reproduce ?

1) Death

2) Maturity

3) Ageing

4) Juvenility

Question 60 of 180

61. Wall less protistans among the following are

1) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella

2) Paramoecium & Amoeba

3) Nostoc & Anabaena

4) Diatoms & Dinoflagellates

Question 61 of 180

62. The biocatalyst ribozyme is synthesized by a process called

1) Replication

2) Reverse transcription

3) Transcription

4)Translation

Question 62 of 180

63. Find out the correctly matched one

1) PCR method - Gene insertion into a desired host cell

2) Spooling-Separation of DNA fragments in electric field

3) Elusion - Insertion of desired gene into a vector

4) Biolistic method - DNA transfer method into host cells

Question 63 of 180

64. Which of the following statements are correct

A. Guttation is the manifestation of root pressure

B. Natural antitranspirant is PMA

C. Turgor pressure, wall pressure
and pressure potential of a cell, all are numerically equal with same sign

D. High nitrogen to carbon ratio is found in Ureids

1) A B C only

2) B, C, D only

3) A B C D only

4) A, C, D only

Question 64 of 180

65. Read carefully the table and fill up the blanks;

A,B,C and D in the above table refer to

1) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Starch and Laminarin; C-Cellulose; D-2-10 equal apical

2) A-chlorophyll-a and c; B-Mannitol and starch; C-Cellulose & algin, D-2-8 equal lateral

3) A-chlorophyll-a and b; B-Floridean starch; C-Cellulose & algin; D-Not present

4) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Mannitol and floridean; C-Cellulose; starch; D-Not present

Question 65 of 180

66. Which one among the following represents the correct method of replication of DNA

Question 66 of 180

67. Synthesis of human insulin in E.coli cells is the best evidence for

1) Ambiguity of genetic code

2) Universality of genetic code

3) Non cognate genetic code

4) Genetic code is not degenerate

Question 67 of 180

68. How many chromosomes will be found in a cell at anaphase –II having 2n = 50 ?

1) 50

2) 40

3) 100

4) 25

Question 68 of 180

69. The leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in mature plant in

1) China rose

2) Mango

3) Delphenium

4) Nerium

Question 69 of 180

70. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

1) Obtaining pure product

2) Addition of preservatives to the product

3) The non requirement of any quality control test

4) Ensuing aerobic conditions in the culture vessel

Question 70 of 180

71. Read the following character given with respect to short distance transport and identify correct combination
Property Simple diffusion Facilitated diffusion Activetransport
I) Requires special Yes No Yes
membrane proteins
II) Requires ATP energy No No Yes
III) Highly selective Yes Yes No
IV) Uphill transport No No Yes

1) I and II

2) II and III

3) II and IV

4) III and IV

Question 71 of 180

72. In the given diagrams the correct labelling of A, B, C, D, respectively, is

1) A-Frond, B-Stipe, C-Branches, D-Holdfast

2) A-Flagella, B-Frond, C-Holdfast, D-Stipe

3) A-Air bladder, B-Holdfast, C-Stipe, D-branches

4) A-Air bladder, B-Frond, C-branches, D-Daughter colony

Question 72 of 180

73. In dicotyledonous stem, which of the following is the sequence of tissues from inside to outside?

1) Pith, phloem, cambium protoxylem, metaxylem, pericycle, parenchyma, collenchyma, endodermis and epidermis

2) Pith, cambium, phloem, protoxylem, metaxylem, pericycle, endodermis, parenchyma, collenchyma and epidermis

3)Pith, phloem, protoxylem, metaxylem, cambium, pericycle, endodermis, parenchyma, collenchyma and epidermis

4) Pithm protoxylem, metaxylem, cambium, phloem, pericycle,endodermis, parenchyma, collenchyma and epidermis

Question 73 of 180

74. Which site of a tRNA molecule forms hydrogen bonds with particular codon of mRNA molecule?

1) DHU loop

2) Anticodon end

3) Accessory arm

4)3' end of the t-RNA molecule

Question 74 of 180

75. A pure pea plant having yellow pods and yellow cotyledons is crossed with another pure pea plant having green pods and green cotyledons. What will be the ratio of recombinants and non-recombinants in F2 generation?

1) 5 : 3

2) 9 : 7

3) 9 : 4 : 3

4) 3 : 5

Question 75 of 180

76. Agar - agar, an inert polysaccharide is extracted from

1) Polysiphonia and Porphyra, members of red algae

2) Gracilaria and Gelidium members of brown algae

3) Ectocarpus and Laminaria, members of brown algae

4) Gracilaria and Gelidium, members of red algae

Question 76 of 180

77. Choose correct option for A,B,C and D of a dicot embryo

1) A-Hypocotyl; B-Cotyledons; C-Root cap; D-Radicle

2) A- Cotyledons; B- Hypocotyl; C- Root cap; D-Radicle

3) A- Cotyledons ;B- Hypocotyl;C- Radicle ;D- Root cap

4) A- Cotyledons; B- Radicle; C- Hypocotyl; D- Root cap

Question 77 of 180

78. Match the columns, I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given

1) a – 2 – K , b – 1 – K, c – 3 – L

2) a – 2 – L , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – L

3) a – 2 – K , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – L

4) a – 2 – L , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – K

Question 78 of 180

79. A leafy vegetable ‘bathua’ produced by IARI is rich in

1) Vitamin A, proteins, calcium

2) Calcium, iron and vitamin C

3) Vitamin D, lysine and tryptophan

4) Iron, vitamin B and carotene

Question 79 of 180

80. Which of the following are correct statements?

j) Pinus and orchid seeds can’t germinate and establish without the formation of mycorrhiza

k) Plants absorbs maximum water from the soil by passive absorption

l) In endodermis region of roots, water follow symplastic pathway

m) High O₂ concentration high light intensity induces photorespiration in sciophytes.

n) paper used to compare transpiration from two surfaces of leaf

1) j, k and m only

2) l, m and n only

3) j, k and n only

4) All of these

Question 80 of 180

81. ‘Vascular cryptogams’ are not the first group to exhibit

1) Heterospory

2) Root system

3) Complex tissues

4) Homospory

Question 81 of 180

82. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

1) Breast cancer

2) ADA deficiency

3) Meningitis

4) Chicken Pox

Question 82 of 180

83. Which is incorrect about coenzyme

1) Every enzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is a coenzyme

2) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is not a coenzyme

3) Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides and are composed of vitamins

4) Coenzymes are the active constituents of enzymes.

Question 83 of 180

84. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon compound by a reaction between

1) Succinic acid and pyruvic acid

2) Malic acid and Acetyl CO-A

3) Fumaric acid and pyruvic acid

4) OAA and Acetyl CO-A

Question 84 of 180

85. Select the correct statement

1) During early-M-phase cells may have more than 2C content of DNA

2) During early S-phase cells have 4C content of DNA

3) Replication continues in G2-phase

4) In plant cells G0-phase is absent

Question 85 of 180

86. Find the correct match w.r.t annual rings

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 86 of 180

87. Consider the following statements and select the number of correct statements

1. Replication of DNA is carried out by semi-conservative method in prokaryotes only

2. Hershey and chase conducted transformation experiments to confirm the genetic nature of DNA

3. Three types of RNA polymerases or formed in the
nucleus of eukaryotes

4. After transcription also gene regulation is possible in eukaryotes

1) One

2) Four

3) Three

4) Two

Question 87 of 180

88. A cell is kept in hypotonic solution, after sometime is

1) OP ↓ and Ψ_S ↑

2) Ψ_W↑ and DPD ↓

3) Ψ_P and TP both ↑

4) all of the above

Question 88 of 180

89. Which of the following taxonomical aids are used in identification of both plants and animals?

1) Herbarium only

2) Keys & Herbarium only

3) Museums only

4) Keys & Museums

Question 89 of 180

90. Which of the following transforms more amount of radiant energy into chemical energy

1) P700 chl a

2) P680 chl a

3) Lycopene

4) Phycoerythrin

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A. Dodo I) Rauwolfia
B. Reserpine II) Mauritius
C. Nile perch in lake Victoria III) Habitat destruction
D. Main cause for biodiversity loss IV) Alien species

1) A-II B-I C-III D-IV

2) A-II B-I C-IV D-III

3) A-II B-IV C-III D-I

4) A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Question 91 of 180

92. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is

1) corona radiate, zona pellucid and vitelline membrane

2) zona pellucid, corona radiate and vitelline membrane

3) vitelline membrane, zona pellucid and corona radiate

4) zona pellucid, vitelline membrane and corona radiate

Question 92 of 180

93. Choose the wrong statement.

1) In grasshoppers, besides autosomes, males have only one X-chromosome, whereas femaleshave a pair of X-chromosomes.

2) In Xy type of sex determination, both males and females have same number ofchromosomes.

3) In Drosophila, males have one X and one y chromosome, whereas females have a pair of Xchromosomebesides autosomes.

4) In insects with XO type of sex determination, all sperms bear X-chromosome besidesautosomes.

Question 93 of 180

94. Bundle of His is a network of:

1) Muscle fibres distributedthroughout the heart walls

2) Muscle fibres found only in theventricle wall

3) Nerve fibres distributed inventricles

4) Nerve fibres found throughoutheart

Question 94 of 180

95. How many of the following statements are wrong w.r.t. STDs?

A. AIDs is the most dangerous STD.

B. Hepatitis B, genital herpes and HIV infection are not curable

C. Ectopic pregnancy and cancer are not included under the complications of STDs

D. The incidence of STDs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 yearsx

1) One

2) Two

3) Three

4) Four

Question 95 of 180

96. Select the correct statement from the following

1) Mutations are random and directional

2) Darwinian variations are small and directionless

3) Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution

4) Darwin believed that it is mutation which causes evolution

Question 96 of 180

97. Select the synovial joint which is exclusive to Axial skeleton

1) Tibiofemoral joint

2) Atlanto-Axial joint

3) Inter tarsal joint

4) Humero scapular joint

Question 97 of 180

98. The Epithelium given below is not found in

1) moist surface of Pharynx

2) Lining of Pancreatic duct

3) Largest endocrine gland

4) Ducts of salivary glands

Question 98 of 180

99. All of the following are functions of secretions from (b) except

1) Glycogenolysis

2) Glucogenesis

3) proteolysis

4) hypoglycemia

Question 99 of 180

100. Given below are four statements A-D w.r.t. mechanism of muscle contraction. Choose from the option stating them as true (T) and false (F)

A. The action potential in the sarcolemma is generated by release of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm

B. The globular head of meromyosin possesses ATPase enzyme activity which causes hydrolysis of ATP and the energy derived make myosin head bind to exposed active sites on actin.

C. Cross bridge formation is followed by pulling the attached myosin filaments towards the centre of ‘I’ band.

D. The breaking of cross bridge requires binding of new ATP at the myosin head.

A B C D

1) T T F T

2) F T F F

3) F T F T

4) T F F T

Question 100 of 180

101. Biodiversity is maximum in tropics because

1) Speciation is a function of time

2) Tropics have less seasonal variation and relatively more predictable environment

3) Tropics are more productive and can support a wider range of species

4) All are correct

Question 101 of 180

102. Plant whose product is with hallucinogenic properties is

1) Papaver somniferum

2) Atropa belladona

3) Solanum tuberosum

4) Rauwolfia serpentina

Question 102 of 180

103. The state of heart when it does not pump blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body is

1) Heart attack

2) Angina pectoris

3) Cardiac arrest

4) Heart failure

Question 103 of 180

104. A tumour in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the hormones in that region. Which of the following you might expect to find in a patient with such a tumour?

1) Increased blood sodium levels

2) Increased blood glucose levels

3) Decreased blood calcium levels

4) Increased dehydration

Question 104 of 180

105. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?

1) Haemocytes

2) Serum albumins

3) Serum globulins

4) Fibrinogen in the plasma

Question 105 of 180

106. Fill in the blank A involves mating of animals of two different breeds. Hisardale, a new breed of B, has been developed through this mechanism. A B

1) Cross-breeding Sheep

2) Cross-breeding Goat

3) Out-crossing Sheep

4) Out-crossing Goat

Question 106 of 180

107. Observe the relaxed myocyte’s myofibril

Which of the following muscles have those traits?

a) Lateral rectus muscle

b) Iris muscles

c) Ciliary muscles

d) Sartorius muscle

1) a and c

2) b only

3) a, b and d

4)a and d

Question 107 of 180

108. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 108 of 180

109. Observe the following

The above device is used to

1) Reduce Particulate pollution

2) Remove SO2

3) Reduce automobile emissions

4) limit noise pollution

Question 109 of 180

110. Read the following (A-D)

A) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in mouth.

B) Chylomicrons are protein coated fat globules transported from intestine into circulatory fluid with all formed elements.

C) In stomach,oxynctic cells secrete proenzyme pepsinogen

D) Unlike marasmus, some fat is still left under skin in kwashiorkor

How many of the above statements are correct

1) Four

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

Question 110 of 180

111. Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during spermatogenesis, some sperms carry both sex
chromosomes (22A + XY) and some sperms do not carry any sex chromosome (22A + O). If these sperms fertilise normal eggs (22A + X), what types of genetic disorders appear among the offsprings?

1) Klinefelter’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

2) Down’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome

3) Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

4) Down’s syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome

Question 111 of 180

112. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

1) Calciferol – Pellagra

2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

4) Cobalamin – Beriberi

Question 112 of 180

113. If the light source in front of an eye becomes bright suddenly

1) Pupil dilates

2) retinal blood supply is cut

3) vitreous humour becomes fluid

4) pupil will contract

Question 113 of 180

114. In present times the origin of life is not possible from inorganic compounds due to

1) Raw material not available

2) High O2 in atmosphere

3) Decrease in temperature

4) Excess of pollution

Question 114 of 180

115. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates 5. Annelid

1) a – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 5, E – 3

2) a – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 3

3) a – 5, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2, E – 4

4) a – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2

Question 115 of 180

116. In Anaphylaxis, IgE interacts with which one of the following biocyte to promote release of inflammatory mediators.

Question 116 of 180

117. Based on observations made during a sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S. Beagle, Charles Darwin concluded that

1) Evolution of life forms had occurred driven by use and disuse of organs

2) Allelic frequencies in a population are stable and is constant from generation to generation

3) Mutation causes evolution as these are random and directionless

4) Existing life forms share similarities to varying degrees not only among themselves but also with life forms that existed millions of years ago

Question 117 of 180

118. Identical twins are produced when

1) One fertilized egg divides and two blastomeres separate

2) One sperm fertilizes two eggs

3) One egg is fertilized with two sperms

4) Two eggs are fertilized

Question 118 of 180

119. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates 5. Annelid

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 119 of 180

120. Arrange the following habitats related to Bio diversity conservation in India in descending order

M)Biosphere reserves N)National Parks

O) Bio diversity hot spots P) Sanctuaries

1 )M-P-O-N

2) O-M-N-P

3) P-N-M-O

4) M-N-O-P

Question 120 of 180

121. The enzyme which catalysis the following Biochemical reaction is released from which cells

Trypsinogen → Trypsin

1) Gastric Epithelium

2) Intestinal Mucosa (SI)

3) Hepatic lobules

4) Serous cells of Parotid glands

Question 121 of 180

122. Find out the correctly matching set

1) Gamitocytes – Infective stages of plasmodium to man

2) IgE anti body – Rich in colostrums

3) Metagenesis – Malignant tumor

4) SCID – Somatic line gene therapy

Question 122 of 180

123. Which of the following technique has been shown in the given diagram

1) Agarose gel electrophoresis in which smallest DNA fragment moves farther

2) Identification and elimination of non-transformants

3) Agarose gel electrophoresis in which DNA fragments resolve according to their size

4) More than one option is correct

Question 123 of 180

124. How many of the given statements are wrong?

A. The rate of diffusion of gas at the respiratory membrane depends upon its solubility as well as on the thickness of membrane

B. The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference if partial pressure is much higher when compared to that of O2

C. Oxygen can bind with haemoglobin in an irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin

D. The factors responsible for formation of oxyhaemoglobin include high pO2, low pCO2, high H+ concentration and low temperature.

1) One

2) Two

2) Three

4) Four

Question 124 of 180

125. A phenomena in which a bee visits a flower at the same time every day is called

1) biological clock

2) circadian rhythm

3) commensalism

4) mutualism

Question 125 of 180

126. In the resting muscle fiber, tropomyosin partially covers

1) calcium binding sites on troponin

2) actin binding sites on myosin

3) myosin binding sites on actin

4) calcium binding sites on actin

Question 126 of 180

127. Following is a diagrammatic representation of endocrine glands with a labelled part ‘A’. The part ‘A’ serves as the connection between

1) Hypothalamus and adenohypophysis

2) Hypothalamus and neurohypophysis

3) Hypothalamus and pars nervosa

4) Hypothalamus and epiphysis

Question 127 of 180

128. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t alimentary canal of cockroach?

1) Oesophagus leads into a sac like structure called crop used for storing of food

2) Gizzard has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner cuticle forming six highly chitinous plate called teeth

3) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caeca is present at the junction of foregut and midgut

4) The hindgut is narrower than midgut and is differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum

Question 128 of 180

129. Consider the following features:

A. Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical diploblastic organisms with tissue level of organisation.

B. The body bears eight external rows of ciliary comb plates.

C. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular

D. Exhibit bioluminescence

E. Monoecious, fertilisation external with indirect development The above-mentioned features belong to the animal

1) Physalia

2) Euspongia

3) Fasciola

4) Pleurobrachia

Question 129 of 180

130. The three-chambered heart of frog is not as efficient as the human heart with four chambers, because

1) the muscles of the heart are not strong

2) both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the ventricle

3) the ventricle cannot pump blood properly

4) it cannot hold enough quantity of blood

Question 130 of 180

131. The stage of suspended development shown by zooplanktons is called

1) desiccation

2) diapause

3) hibernation

4) aestivation

Question 131 of 180

132. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 132 of 180

133. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, select the option that correctly fills the blanks A,B and C

A B C

(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin

(2) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone

(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin

(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin

Question 133 of 180

134. According to Darwin

I) Inter specific competition is a potent force in organic evolution

II) Evolution was gradual and variations are small and directional

III) Branching decent and Natural selection are two key concepts of evolution

Which of the following statements are correct

1) I

2) II

3) II and III

4) I,II and III

Question 134 of 180

135. Which is correctly labeled with respect to the given diagram?

1) B : Logistic curve

2) C: Carrying capacity

3) C: Exponential curve

4) A : Carrying capacity

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. A solution ‘X’ contains 30 mole percent of A and is in equilibrium with its vapour that contains 40 mole percent of ‘B’. The ratio of vapor pressure of pure A and B will be:

1) 2 : 1

2) 7 : 2

3) 3 : 4

4) 4 : 3

Question 136 of 180

137. 20g of naphthoic acid (C₁₁H₈O₂) is dissolved in 50g of benzene, then freezing point depression of 2K is observed for solution. The vant hoff factor will be ( K_f for benzene=1.72 Kg Mol^-1)

1) 0.75

2) 2

3) 0.5

4) 3

Question 137 of 180

138. Which of the following has minimum flocculation value for positively charged sol ?

1) Cl^-

2) SO₄^2-

3) PO₄^3-

4) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-

Question 138 of 180

139. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solution will record the highest p^H?

1) BaCl2

2) MgCl2

3) CaCl2

4) SrCl2

Question 139 of 180

140. The equivalent weight of HCl in the given reaction is
KCr₂O₇ +14 HCl -->2KCl + 2CrCl₃ +3Cl₂ +H₂O

1) 16.25

2) 36.5

3) 73

4) 85.1

Question 140 of 180

141.

Question 141 of 180

142. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C₆H₅CO NH₂ II) Pyridine
III) C₆H₅-N=N-C₆H₅

1) I,III

2) II,III

3) III,IV

4) I,II

Question 142 of 180

143. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?

1) Pyrolusite

2) Magnetite

3)Malachite

4) Cassiterite

Question 143 of 180

144. In Kjeldahl ‘s method, the nitrogen gas evolved from 1.325 g sample of a fertilizer is passed into 50.0 mL of 0.2030 N H₂SO₄mL of 0.1980 N NaOH are required for the titration of unused acid. The percentage of nitrogen in fertilizer is

1) 10.86%

2) 21.72 %

3) 5.43 %

4) 2.75 %

Question 144 of 180

145. Assertion: Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
Reason: ΔH_f⁰ of graphite is taken as zero

1) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2) Both assertion and reason are correct reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion.

3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.

4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

Question 145 of 180

146. When 0.1mole MnO₄^2- is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required in coulombs to completely oxidize MnO₄^2- to MnO₄^- is

1) 96500

2) 2×96500

3)9650

4) 96.50

Question 146 of 180

147. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

1) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]

2) [ Acid ] × 10⁵ = [conjugatebase]

3) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]× 10⁵

4) [ Acid ] = 2[conjugatebase]

Question 147 of 180

148. Method which is based on difference in solubility of impurities in molted metal and solid state
of metal is

1) Parke’s process

2) bessemerisation

3) zone refining

4) electrolytic refining

Question 148 of 180

149. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

1) (CH3)3N

2) (SiH3)3N

3) XeF2

4) SF₄

Question 149 of 180

150. The weight of H₂O₂present in 80 ml of 10V H₂O₂ solution is

1) 3.2 gr

2) 4.2 gr

3) 2.4 gr

4) 3.6 gr

Question 150 of 180

151. At what temperature will average speed of the molecules of the second member of the series C_nH_2nbe the same of Cl₂ at 627⁰C?

1) 259.4K

2) 400K

3) 532.4K

4) 628K

Question 151 of 180

152. Which of the following amines form N-nitroso derivative when treated with NaNO₂and HCl

1) CH3NH2

2) C₆H₅ - NH₂

3) C₆H₅ - NH - R

Question 152 of 180

153. 75% completion of a first order reaction takes 2.38 hours. How much time will it take for 99.9% completion?

1) 1.39 h

2) 7.14h

3) 11.9 h

4) 15.85 h

Question 153 of 180

154. The pair of molecules having same geometry and same bond angles are

1) NH₄+,PCl3

2) NH4+ , CH4

3) H2O , SO2

4) NH3 , PH3

Question 154 of 180

155. To form osazone, mumber of moles of phenyl hydrazine required by one mole of glucose is

1) 4

2) 3

3) 2

4) 1

Question 155 of 180

156.

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

1) 4 : 5

2) 5 : 4

3) 1 : 1

4) 2 : 3

Question 156 of 180

157. Total number of coordination isomers shown by complex [Co(NH₃)₆] [Cr(Cl)₆] is:

1)4

2)5

3)6

4)0

Question 157 of 180

158. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom?

1) 127 pm

2) 157 pm

3) 181 pm

4) 108 pm

Question 158 of 180

159. An oxide of Nitrogen which form reddish brown fumes in air is

1) N₂O

2) NO₂

3) NO

4) N₂O₃

Question 159 of 180

160. When the value of azimuthal quantum number is 3, the maximum and the minimum values of the spin multiplicities are

1) 4,3

2) 8,1

3) 1,3

4) 8,2

Question 160 of 180

161. A and B are compounds of sodium. ‘A’ is thermally stable. On passing CO₂through aq. solution
‘A’, ‘B’ is formed. ‘B’ on heating gives ‘A’. Phenolpthalein is added to aqueous solutions of A, B.
The colours are

1) colourless, colourless

2) pink, pink

3) colourless, pink

4) pink, colourless

Question 161 of 180

162. 100ml of O ₂on partial ozonisation, O₂and O₃are obtained in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 what % of O₂is converted into ozone

1) 60%

2) 50%

3) 40%

4) 57%

Question 162 of 180

163. The correct statement/s about H₂ S₂ O₇ is/are

1) It is called peroxydisulphuric acid

2) It is contains one O-O bond in its molecule

3) It is obtained by dissolution of SO3 in conc. H₂ SO₄

4) Both (2) & (3)

Question 163 of 180

164. I_2(aq)+ I^-(aq) --> I^-_3(aq)+We started with 1 mole of I^₂and 0.5 mole of I^- in one litre flask. After equilibrium is reached excess of AgNO₃ gave 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate. Then
Equilibrium constant is

1) 1.33

2) 2.66

3) 2.0

4) 3.0

Question 164 of 180

165. Which of the following C – H bond has the least bond dissociation energy

Question 165 of 180

166. The correct statement among the following is:
i) NaBH₄produce BH₆on reaction with I₂

ii) Reaction between B₂H₆and NMe₃is an acid base reaction

iii) BH₆is produced on industrial scale by reaction with BF₃, NaH

iv) Boranes on hydrolysis produce
B₂H₆and H₂gas

1) All are correct

2) Only i & ii are correct

3) Only iv is correct

4) Only i, ii, iii are correct

Question 166 of 180

167. At Boyles temperature, compressibility factor Z for a real gas is

1) Z = 1

2) Z = 0

3) Z > 1

4) Z >> 1

Question 167 of 180

168. DNA & RNA are chiral molecules due to the presence of

1) Chiral bases

2) Phosphate ester unit

3) D- sugar component

4) L – sugar component

Question 168 of 180

169. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption.

Question 169 of 180

170. In Na₂O having antifluorite structure

1) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupy all the octahedral voids.

2) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupyall the eight tetrahedral voids

3) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangement and O2-
occupy all tetrahedral voids.

4) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangementand O2- occupy all octahedral voids

Question 170 of 180

171. For decolourization of one mole of KMnO₄ the required litre of 30 volume H₂O₂ in acidified medium is

1) 0.94

2) 9.4

3) 0.094

4) 3.01

Question 171 of 180

172. If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ions discharged at cathode are

1) H⁺

2) Na⁺

3) OH^-

4) Cl^-

Question 172 of 180

173. Incorrect statement among the following is

1) Pure CO is prepared bydehydration of formic acid with conc. H₂S4

2) Commercially CO is prepared byassing steam over red hot coke

3) CO is a powerful reducing agentand reduces almost all metal oxidesother than IA, IIA group elements,Al etc...

4) CO is a Lewis acid

Question 173 of 180

174. What would be the product formed when 1-bromo-3 chloro cyclo butane reacts with two equivalents of metallic sodium in ether

Question 174 of 180

175. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 175 of 180

176. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form ‘A’ . ‘A’ is dissolved in water to give ‘Y’. The basicity of ‘Y’ is

1) 1

2) 2

3) 0

4) 3

Question 176 of 180

177. Which of the following compound react faster through SN²mechanism

1) CH3- CH2Br

2) CH3- O - CH₂Br

3) C₆H5- CO - CH2Br

4) CH₃ - C (CH₃ )2- CH2Br

Question 177 of 180

178. Which of the following is incorrect for the indicated property

1) Beo < Mgo (Basic strength)

2) SO2> SeO2> TeO2 (Acidic strength)

3) Nacl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl (Melting point)

4) BaSO4> SrSO4> CaSO4>MgSO4> BeSO4 (Solubility)

Question 178 of 180

179. The half life of a reaction is 46 minutes when the initial concentration of the reactant is 4 mol/L and 92 minutes when the initial concentration is 0.2mol/L. The order of the reaction is

1) Zero

2) 0.5

3) 2

4) 1

Question 179 of 180

180. The correct order of E⁰_M⁺²_/Mvalues with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr,Mn,Fe and Co is

1) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co

2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co

3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co

4) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co

Question 180 of 180

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