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Physics

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Physics

1. A thin ring has mass M and radius R. Its moment of inertia about the axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is...

A. MR²

B. M²R

C. M/R²

D. M²/R

Question 1 of 180

2. A projectile is thrown in the direction making an angle θ with the horizontal. The projectile attains maximum height for θ equal to...

A. 0

B. π/4

C. π/2

D. π

Question 2 of 180

3. The power of a lens having refractive index 1.25 is +3 diopters. When placed in a liquid its power is -2 diopters. The refractive index of the liquid is

1) 1.2

2) 1.4

3) 1.5

4) 1.6

Question 3 of 180

4. The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is half of its initial velocity ‘u’. Its range on the horizontal plane is

1) 2u2/3g

2) √3u2/2g

3) u2/3g

4) u2/2g

Question 4 of 180

5. For a projectile, its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are equal, maximum height reached by it is (‘u’ is initial velocity of the projectile)

1) u²/2g

2) 3u²/4g

3) 16u²/17g

4) 8u²/17g

Question 5 of 180

6. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 10³ kg/m³ with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are 8 × 10³ kg/m³ and 11 × 10³ kg/m³ The ratio of their radii is

1) 11/8

2) √(11/8)

3) 3/2

4) √(3/2)

Question 6 of 180

7. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 7 of 180

8. An electric cell of e.m.f ‘E’ is connected across a copper wire of diameter ‘d’ and length 'l' the drift velocity of electron in the wire is 'v_d' If the length and diameter of the wire are doubled the new drift velocity of electron is

1) v_d

2) 2v_d

3) v_d/2

3) v_d/4

Question 8 of 180

9. A source and Listner both moving towards each other each with speed .frequency of the note emitted by the source is ‘600Hz’ Apparent wave length of sound wave received by the observer is ( V = 330 m/ sec)

1) 0.5m

2) 0.45m

3)0.1m

4) 0.6m

Question 9 of 180

10. The maximum value of ‘F’ for which both the blocks move together is

1) 95N

2) 100 N

3) 105 N

4) 110 N

Question 10 of 180

11. An object moving with a speed of 6.25 m/sec, is decelerated at a rate given by (dy/dt) = -2.5√v . Where ‘v’ is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object to come to rest, would be

1) 1 sec

2) 2 sec

3) 4 sec

4) 8 sec

Question 11 of 180

12. Fermi is a unit of...

A. length

B. mass

C. time

D. electric flux

Question 12 of 180

13. In the figure shown a source of sound of frequency 510 Hz move with constant velocity V_s=20 m/ s in the direction shown. The wind is blowing at a constant velocity V_w=20 m/S towards an observer who is at rest at point B. Corresponding to the sound emitted by the source in initial position A, the frequency detected by the observer is equal to (speed of sound relative to air = 330 m/s)

1) 510 Hz

2) 500 Hz

3) 525 Hz

4) 550 Hz

Question 13 of 180

14. The image a camera forms on the film is...

A. always real

B. always virtual

C. always erect

D. sometimes inverted

Question 14 of 180

15. The de-Broglie wave length of an electron in first Bohr orbit is

1) Equal to one fourth the circumference of the first orbit

2) Equal to half the circumference of the first orbit

3) Equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit

4) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit

Question 15 of 180

16. The horizontal component of a force of 10 N inclined at 30° to the vertical is...

A. 5 N

B. 5√ 3 N

C. 3 N

D. 10/√ 3 N

Question 16 of 180

17. Two bodies ‘A and B’ of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid partition. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. A force of 200N is applied horizontally at ‘A’ action reaction force between A and B is (g = 10 m/sec²)

1) 170 N

2) 200 N

3) 190 N

4) 210 N

Question 17 of 180

18. A thin circular loop of radius ‘R’ rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ‘ ’. A small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω ≤ √(g/R) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = √(2g/R) (Neglect the friction)

1) 300

2) 600

3) 450

4) 1200

Question 18 of 180

19. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

A. 40 °C

B. 80 °C

C. 313 °C

D. 586 °C

Question 19 of 180

20. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

1) Temperature on ideal gas scale

2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale

3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale

4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

Question 20 of 180

21. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6. The amount of water should be put inside the balloon so that it accelerates down at rate of g/6. (Assume buoyancy force remains the same)

1) m/5

2) 2m/5

3) 3m/5

4) 4m/5

Question 21 of 180

22. To keep a vehicle moving at the speed v requires a force F. The power needed is...

A. F.v

B. (1/2)F.v²

C. F/v

D. F/v²

Question 22 of 180

23. Two equal masses ‘A and B’ moving along the same straight line with velocities 3i m/sec and '-5i m/sec respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively

1) 4i m/sec for both

2) -3i m/sec and 5i m/sec

3) -4i m/sec and 4i m/sec

4) -5i m/sec and 3i m/sec

Question 23 of 180

24. For monatomic gases, C_p/C_vis equal to...

A. 1.67

B. R

C. 1.67 R

D. 1.5 R

Question 24 of 180

25. The intermolecular potential is dependent on...

A. the shape of the molecules only

B. the molecular separation only

C. both the shape and the molecular separation

D. none of the above

Question 25 of 180

26. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10^-4m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

A. 1.2 W

B. 1.4 W

C. 1.7 W

D. 12 W

Question 26 of 180

27. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 27 of 180

28. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease of cross sectional area by 2%. The percentage increase in its length is

1) 3%

2) 2.5%

3) 1%

4) 0.5%

Question 28 of 180

29. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates

1) OR

2) NAND

3)AND

4) NOR

Question 29 of 180

30. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 'λ₁'and 'λ₂' respectively are placed at a distance ‘R’. The force per unit length on either wire will be (k = (1/4πε₀))

1) K [2λ₁λ₂/R²]

2) K [2λ₁λ₂/R]

3) K[λ₁λ₂/R²]

4) K[λ₁λ₂/R]

Question 30 of 180

31. Magnetic moment and angular moment of revolving electron in a hydrogen atom ‘M’ and ‘L’ respectively then

1) (M/L) = (e/2m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

2) (M/L) = (e/2m);M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

3) (M/L) = (2e/m); M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

4) (M/L) = (4e/m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

Question 31 of 180

32. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 600, the angle of refraction ‘A’, angle of deviation ‘δ ’ and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is

1) 1.73

2) 1.15

3) 1.5

4) 1.33

Question 32 of 180

33. Gas at a pressure ‘P₀’ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their r.m.s speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

1) 4P₀

2) 2P₀

3) P₀

4) P₀/2

Question 33 of 180

34. Mark out the incorrect statement regarding transverse standing waves on a string

1) Within a loop, the total energy of the wave remains constant.

2) When the particles are at the maximum displacements, the entire energy within the loopappears as potential energy

3) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy is equally divided aspotential energy and kinetic energy.

4) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy appears as kineticenergy

Question 34 of 180

35. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry and the solid sphere about its diameter axis. After ‘t’ sec their angular velocities are . Choose the correct answer (initial angular speed of each is 'ω₀'

1) ω₁ = ω₂

2) ω₁ < ω₂

3) ω₁ > ω₂

4) Both 2 & 3

Question 35 of 180

36. A ‘2Mev’ proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ‘2.5 Tesla’. The force on the proton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10^-27 kg)

1) 3×10^-10 N

2) 8× 10^-11 N

3) 3×10^-11N

4) 8×10^-12N

Question 36 of 180

37. A rocket of initial mass 'm₀' moving with velocity ‘v’ discharges a jet of gases of mean density ‘ρ’ and effective area ‘A’ the minimum value of ‘v’ of fuel gas, which enables the rocket to rise vertically above is nearly

1) √(ρg)/(m₀A)

2) √(ρgA)/m₀

3) √(m₀g)/(ρA)

4) √(2m₀gA)/ρ

Question 37 of 180

38. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through origin. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process will be

1) 4R

2) 2.5R

3) 3R

4)4R/3

Question 38 of 180

39. To charge a secondary cell, what is needed is...

A. a d.c. current

B. an a.c. current

C. fresh electrolyte

D. heating

Question 39 of 180

40. The given graph represents V – I characteristic for a semiconductor device

Which of the following statement is correct

1) It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

2) It is for a LED and points A and B represents open circuit voltage and short circuit current respectively

3) It is V – I characteristic for solar cell where point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current

4) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

Question 40 of 180

41. When the velocity of a moving object is doubled...

A. its acceleration is doubled

B. its momentum is doubled

C. its kinetic energy is doubled

D. its potential energy is doubled

Question 41 of 180

42. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

A. frequency

B. amplitude

C. wavelength

D. both frequency and amplitude

Question 42 of 180

43. A nucleus of mass 'M + ∆m' is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass '(M/2)' each speed of light is ‘C’. The speed of daughter nuclei is

1) C√[∆m/M + ∆m]

2) C√[∆m/M]

3) C√[2∆m/ M]

4) C√[M/2∆m]

Question 43 of 180

44. A sonometer wire resonate with a given tuning fork forming standing wave with five antinode between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of M is

1) 25 kg

2) 5kg

3) 12.5kg

4) (1/25) kg

Question 44 of 180

45. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2ev and the stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface is ‘5volt’. The incident radiation lies in

1) Infrared region

2) Visible region

3) X- ray region

4) Ultra – violet region

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. Identify A. B. C. D in the following diagram

1) Amonoacid acceptor end, anticodon, codon, mRNA

2) codon, mRNA, Anticodon, Aminoacid acceptor end

3) Autocodon, Codon, mRNA, Aminoacid acceptor end

4) mRNA, anticodon, codon, Aminoacid acceptor end

Question 46 of 180

47. Apple, Custard apple, Pine apple and thorn apple are

1) Parthenocarp, Pseudocarp, Baccate fruit, Schizocarp

2) Pseudocarp, Etaerio of berries, Composite fruit and true fruit

3) Simple fruit, Aggregate fruit, False fruit and multiple fruit

4) Amphisarca, Balausta, Cypsela and Drupe

Question 47 of 180

48. Read the following character given with respect to short distance transport and identify correct combination
Property Simple diffusion Facilitated diffusion Activetransport
I) Requires special Yes No Yes
membrane proteins
II) Requires ATP energy No No Yes
III) Highly selective Yes Yes No
IV) Uphill transport No No Yes

1) I and II

2) II and III

3) II and IV

4) III and IV

Question 48 of 180

49. How many of the following statements are correct

A. Yellow mosaic resistance mung bean was developed by hybridisation

B. Yellow mosaic resistant bhindi was produced by mutation breeding

C. White rust resistant mustard was developed by hybridisation

D. Pomato was developed by somatic hybridisation E. Golden rice variety was produced by trans genies

1) Four

2) Three

3) Two

4) One

Question 49 of 180

50. The phytohormone/s which play(s) an important role in development, maturation and dormancy of seeds is
I. GA3 II. ABA III. IAA IV. Kinetin

1) I and III

2) II and III

3) II alone

4) III and IV

Question 50 of 180

51. The minerals involved in water-splitting reaction during light phase of photosynthesis is/are

1) Calcium, Magnesium and Chlorine

2) Calcium, Potassium and Manganese

3) Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine

4) Calcium, Molydenum and Manganese

Question 51 of 180

52. Read the following and identify the correct statement

1) The price of earth’s fundamental ecosystem services is – US $18 trillion

2) Among the all ecosystem services soil formation alone accounts for about 50%.

3) Bees are alone responsible for 30-45% of food production in US by bringing cross pollination in crops

4) The lungs of the word are cows, buffaloes, goats and sheep

Question 52 of 180

53. How many of the following statements are true

i) Volvox and Fucus show oogamy

ii) Agar is commercially obtained from Gelidium and Gracillaria

iii) Gametophyte is parasite on sporophyte in Sphagnum

iv) Funaria is monoecious and Marchantia is dioecious

v) Source of SCP are Spirullina and Chlorella

1) 4

2) 3

3) 5

4) 2

Question 53 of 180

54. Which of the following transforms more amount of radiant energy into chemical energy

1) P700 chl a

2) P680 chl a

3) Lycopene

4) Phycoerythrin

Question 54 of 180

55. Eight bacteria kept in cup divide repeatedly and produce 64 bacteria in 2 hours. Find the time consumed in binary fission.

1) 15 minutes

2) 20 minutes

3) 40 minutes

4) 30 minutes

Question 55 of 180

56. Read carefully the table and fill up the blanks;

A,B,C and D in the above table refer to

1) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Starch and Laminarin; C-Cellulose; D-2-10 equal apical

2) A-chlorophyll-a and c; B-Mannitol and starch; C-Cellulose & algin, D-2-8 equal lateral

3) A-chlorophyll-a and b; B-Floridean starch; C-Cellulose & algin; D-Not present

4) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Mannitol and floridean; C-Cellulose; starch; D-Not present

Question 56 of 180

57. Identify the correct matched related to plant movements

1) Migration of male gametes in bryophytes and pteridophytes - Chemotropism

2) Growth of pollen tube – Chemotactism

3) Avena coleoptiles – Phototropism

4) Sleeping movements in legumes – Thermonasty

Question 57 of 180

58. Feature unrelated to slime moulds

1) Connecting link between protista and Fungi

2) Multinucleate body

3) Vegetative phase resembles with plants and reproductive phase with animals

4) Multiply by plasmotomy

Question 58 of 180

59. Regarding ATP synthesis in aerobic respiration select the correct match

A B C D

1) III IV I V

2) IV III II I

3) IV III V I

4) III I IV V

Question 59 of 180

60. A pure pea plant having yellow pods and yellow cotyledons is crossed with another pure pea plant having green pods and green cotyledons. What will be the ratio of recombinants and non-recombinants in F2 generation?

1) 5 : 3

2) 9 : 7

3) 9 : 4 : 3

4) 3 : 5

Question 60 of 180

61. Photorespiration is performed by

1) Peroxisome

2) Chloroplast

3) Mitochondrion

4) All the above

Question 61 of 180

62. Among the following the no. of asexual reproductive structures is/are Gemmae of Marchantia, Epiphyllous buds of Bryophyllum, Bulbils of Agave Rhizome of zinger, Tuberous stem of potato, Offsets of Pistia, Zoospores of Chlamydomonas, Hormogonia of Nostoc

1) 2 only

2) 4 only

3) 6 only

4) All eight

Question 62 of 180

63. Which of the following statements is true

1) Microbe resistant plant material is sporopollenin

2) Each node is a propagule in Opuntia

3) Bryophyllum reproduces through bulbils

4) Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from zygote

Question 63 of 180

64. Which of the following cannot freely interbreed in nature

A. Winter and spring varieties of wheat

B. LDP and SDP varieties of Tobacco

C. Tall and Dwarf varieties of Pea

D. Red and white flowered varieties of Dog flower

1) C and D

2) A and C

3) B and D

3) B and D 4) A and B

Question 64 of 180

65. S-I : Linked genes get separated due to crossing over

S-II : The closer the genes on a chromosome the more is the probability of recombinations

1) S-I and S-II are false e

2) S-I is false and S-II is true

3) S-I is true and S-II is false

4) S-I and S-II are true

Question 65 of 180

66. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground tissue system of roots, is characterised by

1) Casparian bands

2) Starch grains

3) Complementary cells

4) Intercellular spaces

Question 66 of 180

67. Which of the following is a wrong match?

1) Bolting in rosette plant - GA₃

2) Avena curvature test – IAA

3) Induction of immediate stomatal closure – ABA

4) Induction of growth in axillary buds – Ethephon

Question 67 of 180

68. The number of Phosphodiester bonds and ester bonds Present in 13.6 nm length DNA

1) 158 and 178

2) 80 and 160

3) 98 and 118

4) 78 and 158

Question 68 of 180

69. Which of the following statements are correct

A. Guttation is the manifestation of root pressure

B. Natural antitranspirant is PMA

C. Turgor pressure, wall pressure
and pressure potential of a cell, all are numerically equal with same sign

D. High nitrogen to carbon ratio is found in Ureids

1) A B C only

2) B, C, D only

3) A B C D only

4) A, C, D only

Question 69 of 180

70. The biocatalyst ribozyme is synthesized by a process called

1) Replication

2) Reverse transcription

3) Transcription

4)Translation

Question 70 of 180

71. Structures observed both in prokaryotic and eukaryotc cells are

1) 70s ribosomes, cytoplasm, plasma membrane

2) 80s ribosomes, plastids, cytoplasm, mesomes

3) 80s ribosomes, mitochondria, vacuoles

4) 70s ribosomes, ER, dictyosomes

Question 71 of 180

72. Study the following diagrams and identify the option containing correct set answers

1) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Cladophora

2) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Fucus

3) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Homo sapiens

4) A- Male gamete, B-Female gamete of Fucus

Question 72 of 180

73. Match the columns, I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given

1) a – 2 – K , b – 1 – K, c – 3 – L

2) a – 2 – L , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – L

3) a – 2 – K , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – L

4) a – 2 – L , b – 3 – K, c – 1 – K

Question 73 of 180

74. A,B,C and D lies on same chromosome with given distances between them, as

AD=60 morgan, AB-38 morgan, DB=22 morgan and

AC=18 morgan. Find the sequence of four genes on the chromosome

1) A,C,B and D

2) C,A,B and D

3) D,B,A and C

4) any of these

Question 74 of 180

75. Anticodon is a base triplet present on

1) mRNA complementary to base sequence on rRNA

2) mRNA, complementary to base sequence on tRNA

3) tRNA, complementary to base sequence on rRNA

4) tRNA, complementary to base sequence on mRN

Question 75 of 180

76. Primary succession results in formation of communities on area

1) After afforestation

2) Of abandoned crop field

3) With no record of earlier vegetation

4) After heavy floods spoiled agricultural field

Question 76 of 180

77. Which one among the following represents the correct method of replication of DNA

Question 77 of 180

78. Select the correct statement

1) During early-M-phase cells may have more than 2C content of DNA

2) During early S-phase cells have 4C content of DNA

3) Replication continues in G2-phase

4) In plant cells G0-phase is absent

Question 78 of 180

79. When PS-I is excited with the light of wavelength greater then 680nm, photophosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flow of electrons, results in synthesis of

1) NADPH + H+ and ATP

2) only NADPH + H+

3) only ATP

4) NADH and ATP

Question 79 of 180

80. Find out mismatch

1) Mg – Macromineral element

2) Mn – Micromineral element

3) B – Macromineral element

4) Ni – Recently discovered trace element

Question 80 of 180

81. Who of the following scientists is not concerned with O2 release from water in photosynthesis?

1) Julius von Sachs

2) Van Neil

3) Robert Hill

4) T.W. Engelman

Question 81 of 180

82. Which site of a tRNA molecule forms hydrogen bonds with particular codon of mRNA molecule?

1) DHU loop

2) Anticodon end

3) Accessory arm

4)3' end of the t-RNA molecule

Question 82 of 180

83. How many plants among the following have opposite phyllotaxy. China rose, Sun flower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium?

1) Two

2) Three

3) Four

4) Five

Question 83 of 180

84. Wall less protistans among the following are

1) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella

2) Paramoecium & Amoeba

3) Nostoc & Anabaena

4) Diatoms & Dinoflagellates

Question 84 of 180

85. Consider the following statements and select the number of correct statements

1. Replication of DNA is carried out by semi-conservative method in prokaryotes only

2. Hershey and chase conducted transformation experiments to confirm the genetic nature of DNA

3. Three types of RNA polymerases or formed in the
nucleus of eukaryotes

4. After transcription also gene regulation is possible in eukaryotes

1) One

2) Four

3) Three

4) Two

Question 85 of 180

86. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

1) Obtaining pure product

2) Addition of preservatives to the product

3) The non requirement of any quality control test

4) Ensuing aerobic conditions in the culture vessel

Question 86 of 180

87. The correct sequence of electron acceptors in respiratory electron transport is

1) Cyt a, a3, c

2) cyt b, c, a, a3

3) cyt c, b, a, a3

4) Cyt a3, c, b, a

Question 87 of 180

88. ‘Vascular cryptogams’ are not the first group to exhibit

1) Heterospory

2) Root system

3) Complex tissues

4) Homospory

Question 88 of 180

89. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

1) Breast cancer

2) ADA deficiency

3) Meningitis

4) Chicken Pox

Question 89 of 180

90. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon compound by a reaction between

1) Succinic acid and pyruvic acid

2) Malic acid and Acetyl CO-A

3) Fumaric acid and pyruvic acid

4) OAA and Acetyl CO-A

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

1) Temperate deciduous forest

2) Tropical rain forest

3) Tropical deciduous forest

4) Temperate evergreen forest

Question 91 of 180

92. If a female having gene for haemophilia and colour blindness on its one chromosome marries a normal male, then what are the chances in their offspring

1) 50% son are diseased and 50%are normal

2) All normal offspring

3) 100% daughters are carrier

4) 100% son are diseased

Question 92 of 180

93. Fill in the blank A involves mating of animals of two different breeds. Hisardale, a new breed of B, has been developed through this mechanism. A B

1) Cross-breeding Sheep

2) Cross-breeding Goat

3) Out-crossing Sheep

4) Out-crossing Goat

Question 93 of 180

94. If the light source in front of an eye becomes bright suddenly

1) Pupil dilates

2) retinal blood supply is cut

3) vitreous humour becomes fluid

4) pupil will contract

Question 94 of 180

95. Select the synovial joint which is exclusive to Axial skeleton

1) Tibiofemoral joint

2) Atlanto-Axial joint

3) Inter tarsal joint

4) Humero scapular joint

Question 95 of 180

96. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovolution?

1) Vitelline membrane

2) Graafian follicle

3) Stroma

4) Germinal epithelium

Question 96 of 180

97. When Glomerular filtrate is passing through PCT which of the following Biomolecule’s selective reabsorption is 100% into PTC

B1)Creatinine B2) Glucose

B3) Amino Acids B4) Potassium

1)B2-B3

2)B1

3) B2-B3-B1

4) All except B2

Question 97 of 180

98. Consider the following diagrammatic representation of the sectional view of cochlea with certain labeled parts A,B,C and D. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t labeled part and its identification/description.

1) A – Scala media-Contains endolymph

2) B- Tectorial membrane – Vibrates and sends Sensory impulses to auditory area of brain

3) C- Scala vestibuli – Contains perilymph

4) D-Basilar membrane-Organ of Corti rest upon it

Question 98 of 180

99. Read the following statements

A : A considerable amount of NPP is utilised by plants in respiration

B: The annual NPP of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons of organic matter

1) Both A and B are correct

2) Only A is correct

3) Only B is correct

4) Both A and B are incorrect

Question 99 of 180

100. Statement(1): (S1): After primary immune response, subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response

Statement(2): (S2): Anamnestic response is because our body develops memory after the first encounter.

1) S1 and S2 are correct

2) S1 and S2 are incorrect

3) S1 is correct; S2 is incorrect

4) S1 is incorrect; S2 is correct

Question 100 of 180

101. The diagram shows an antibody molecule. Identify A to F.

1) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

2) A-Antigen binding site; B-Constant region (of L-Chain); C-Variable region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain(L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

3) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Heavy polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Light polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

4) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

Question 101 of 180

102. In a population of 60,000 individuals if the frequency of dominant allele is 60%. Then extrapolate the % of Dominant individuals

1) 16%

2) 84%

3) 36%

4) 48%

Question 102 of 180

103. Choose the wrong statement.

1) Teeth in chondrichthyes are modified ctenoid scales.

2) air bladder in fishes regulates buoyancy.

3) In amphibians, the tympanum represents the ear.

4) Long bones in birds are pneumatic.

Question 103 of 180

104. What is safe sex period regarding birth control?

1) A week before and a week after menses

2) A week before menses

3) A week after menses

4) None of these

Question 104 of 180

105. Which is correctly labeled with respect to the given diagram?

1) B : Logistic curve

2) C: Carrying capacity

3) C: Exponential curve

4) A : Carrying capacity

Question 105 of 180

106. The diagram shows a section through an alveolus and ablood capillary What are the oxygen concentrations at A,B and C?

A B C

1) Low High Low

2) Low High High

3) High Low Low

4) High Low High

Question 106 of 180

107. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 107 of 180

108. Find the incorrect match

1) Colostrum – IgA antibodies

2) Recombinant DNA – Hepatitis Bvaccine technology produced fromyeast

3) Allergy – Release of chemicals likehistamine and serotonin from themast cells

4) Autoimmune – Adrenaline disease

Question 108 of 180

109. Which of the following structures are found in female cockroach ?

1) Caudal styles

2) Phallomeres

3) Spermathecae

4) Seminal vesicles

Question 109 of 180

110. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 110 of 180

111. Arrange the periods of palaeozoic era in ascending order in a geological time scale

1) Silurian – Devonian – Carboniferous - Permian

2) Devonian – Silurian – Carboniferous – Permian

3) Permian -Devonian– Silurian – Carboniferous

4) Silurian – Carboniferous – Permian – Devonian

Question 111 of 180

112. Given below are four statements A-D w.r.t. mechanism of muscle contraction. Choose from the option stating them as true (T) and false (F)

A. The action potential in the sarcolemma is generated by release of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm

B. The globular head of meromyosin possesses ATPase enzyme activity which causes hydrolysis of ATP and the energy derived make myosin head bind to exposed active sites on actin.

C. Cross bridge formation is followed by pulling the attached myosin filaments towards the centre of ‘I’ band.

D. The breaking of cross bridge requires binding of new ATP at the myosin head.

A B C D

1) T T F T

2) F T F F

3) F T F T

4) T F F T

Question 112 of 180

113. ‘Penicillin rich medium proves detrimental to bacteria but not beneficial to Penicillium which releases it’. This association can be symbolized as

1) + +

2) - 0

3) - -

4) + 0

Question 113 of 180

114. ABO blood group has

1) Two codominants and onerecessive alleles

2) Two codominants and tworecessive alleles

3) Two incompletely dominant genes

4) Two pseudo alleles

Question 114 of 180

115. Complete the following Analogy

Seminal Vesicle: Cockroach: : --------: human

1) Spermatheca

2) rete-testis

3) Epididymis

4) Oothecal chamber

Question 115 of 180

116. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t alimentary canal of cockroach?

1) Oesophagus leads into a sac like structure called crop used for storing of food

2) Gizzard has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner cuticle forming six highly chitinous plate called teeth

3) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caeca is present at the junction of foregut and midgut

4) The hindgut is narrower than midgut and is differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum

Question 116 of 180

117. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

1) The population of its predators increases enormously

2) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect

3) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.

4) Its population growth curve is of J-type

Question 117 of 180

118. The Epithelium given below is not found in

1) moist surface of Pharynx

2) Lining of Pancreatic duct

3) Largest endocrine gland

4) Ducts of salivary glands

Question 118 of 180

119. The embryonic membrane involved in the formation of placenta in human is

1) yolk sac

2) umbilical cord

3) amnion

4) chorion

Question 119 of 180

120. How many of the given statements are wrong?

A. The rate of diffusion of gas at the respiratory membrane depends upon its solubility as well as on the thickness of membrane

B. The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference if partial pressure is much higher when compared to that of O2

C. Oxygen can bind with haemoglobin in an irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin

D. The factors responsible for formation of oxyhaemoglobin include high pO2, low pCO2, high H+ concentration and low temperature.

1) One

2) Two

2) Three

4) Four

Question 120 of 180

121. Making two varieties of a cattle breed like Red Dane which have no common ancestors on either sides of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations is an example for

1) inbreeding

2) cross breeding

3) out crossing

4) interspecific hybridization

Question 121 of 180

122. Based on observations made during a sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S. Beagle, Charles Darwin concluded that

1) Evolution of life forms had occurred driven by use and disuse of organs

2) Allelic frequencies in a population are stable and is constant from generation to generation

3) Mutation causes evolution as these are random and directionless

4) Existing life forms share similarities to varying degrees not only among themselves but also with life forms that existed millions of years ago

Question 122 of 180

123. Arrange the following habitats related to Bio diversity conservation in India in descending order

M)Biosphere reserves N)National Parks

O) Bio diversity hot spots P) Sanctuaries

1 )M-P-O-N

2) O-M-N-P

3) P-N-M-O

4) M-N-O-P

Question 123 of 180

124. How many of the following statements are wrong w.r.t. STDs?

A. AIDs is the most dangerous STD.

B. Hepatitis B, genital herpes and HIV infection are not curable

C. Ectopic pregnancy and cancer are not included under the complications of STDs

D. The incidence of STDs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 yearsx

1) One

2) Two

3) Three

4) Four

Question 124 of 180

125. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

1) A-1000, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

2) A-1400, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

3) A-1000, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

4) A-1400, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

Question 125 of 180

126. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, select the option that correctly fills the blanks A,B and C

A B C

(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin

(2) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone

(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin

(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin

Question 126 of 180

127. A sensitized Rh --ve woman gives birth dizygotic twins with different Rh phenotypes then

1) Type II hyper sensitivity reaction is seen in both the off springs

2) IgG after transplacental migration cause HDNB in both

3) Erythroblastosis foetalis is in off spring with dominant allele

4) Both off springs remain unaffected

Question 127 of 180

128. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

1) Calciferol – Pellagra

2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

4) Cobalamin – Beriberi

Question 128 of 180

129. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is

1) FSH, progesterone, oestrogen

2) oestrogen, FSH, progesterone

3) FSH, oestrogen, progesterone

4) progesterone, oestrogen, FSH

Question 129 of 180

130. In Anaphylaxis, IgE interacts with which one of the following biocyte to promote release of inflammatory mediators.

Question 130 of 180

131. Which of the following recombinant protein has been used to treat emphysema?

1) β-galactosidase

2) Alpha – lactalbumin

3) α-1 antitrypsin

4) Adenosine deaminase

Question 131 of 180

132. Hyperdactyly (the possession of more than 12 fingers) is determined by the dominant allele (H) and normal condition by recessive allele (h).

The diagram shown a family tree in which some members of the family are hyperdactylus
Find out the genotype of A, B and C

1) A-Hh, B-Hh, C-hh

2) A-HH, B-Hh, C-hh

3) A-Hh, B-HH, C-hh

4) A-HH, B-HH, C-hh

Question 132 of 180

133. The state of heart when it does not pump blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body is

1) Heart attack

2) Angina pectoris

3) Cardiac arrest

4) Heart failure

Question 133 of 180

134. Alienate the number of incorrect statement(s)

S1: Laccifer lacks circulatory system.

S2: Neries have nephridia but no nephrons

S3: Silver fish is Non-operculate marine fish

S4: Neophron has both neurons and nephrons

1) Two

2) Three

3) One

4) Four

Question 134 of 180

135. which of the the following statement is false?

1)Spleen contains lymphocytes and act as SLO

2) In secondary lymphoid organs immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes

3) Both bone-narrow and thymus provide micro-environments for the development and maturation of lymphocytes

4) MALT also has a large reservoir of lymphocytes

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. 75% completion of a first order reaction takes 2.38 hours. How much time will it take for 99.9% completion?

1) 1.39 h

2) 7.14h

3) 11.9 h

4) 15.85 h

Question 136 of 180

137. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 137 of 180

138. When 0.1mole MnO₄^2- is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required in coulombs to completely oxidize MnO₄^2- to MnO₄^- is

1) 96500

2) 2×96500

3)9650

4) 96.50

Question 138 of 180

139.

Number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain

1) 7

2) 4

3)6

4)5

Question 139 of 180

140. For one mole of a vanderwaal’s gaswhen b=0 and T=300K, the PV vs1/V plot is shown below. The value of vander waal’s constant ‘a’ in atm.lit² mole^-2is (graph not to scale)

1) 1.0

2)4.5

3) 1.5

4) 3.0

Question 140 of 180

141. The pH of a solution of H₂O₂is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

1) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0

2) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant solution

3) The pH of resultant solution becomes less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated

4) Cl₂O is formed in the resultant solution

Question 141 of 180

142. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C₆H₅CO NH₂ II) Pyridine
III) C₆H₅-N=N-C₆H₅

1) I,III

2) II,III

3) III,IV

4) I,II

Question 142 of 180

143.

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

1) 4 : 5

2) 5 : 4

3) 1 : 1

4) 2 : 3

Question 143 of 180

144. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form ‘A’ . ‘A’ is dissolved in water to give ‘Y’. The basicity of ‘Y’ is

1) 1

2) 2

3) 0

4) 3

Question 144 of 180

145. When two moles of an ideal gas (C_pm=(5/2)R) heated from 300K to 600K at constant pressure. The change in entropy of gas (∆s ) is

1) (3/2)R ln2

2) (-3/2)R ln2

3) 5R ln2

4) (5/2)R ln2

Question 145 of 180

146. 100ml of O ₂on partial ozonisation, O₂and O₃are obtained in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 what % of O₂is converted into ozone

1) 60%

2) 50%

3) 40%

4) 57%

Question 146 of 180

147. Which of the following compound react faster through SN²mechanism

1) CH3- CH2Br

2) CH3- O - CH₂Br

3) C₆H5- CO - CH2Br

4) CH₃ - C (CH₃ )2- CH2Br

Question 147 of 180

148. A solution ‘X’ contains 30 mole percent of A and is in equilibrium with its vapour that contains 40 mole percent of ‘B’. The ratio of vapor pressure of pure A and B will be:

1) 2 : 1

2) 7 : 2

3) 3 : 4

4) 4 : 3

Question 148 of 180

149. Find the correct order of acidity of the following compounds

1) III> II> I> IV

2) III> I> II> IV

3)III> II> IV> I

4) IV> I> II> III

Question 149 of 180

150. When H₂S is passed through acidified KMnO₄ we get

1) K₂ SO₃

2) MnO₂

3) KHSO₃

4) Sulphur

Question 150 of 180

151. Method which is based on difference in solubility of impurities in molted metal and solid state
of metal is

1) Parke’s process

2) bessemerisation

3) zone refining

4) electrolytic refining

Question 151 of 180

152. The correct order of E⁰_M⁺²_/Mvalues with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr,Mn,Fe and Co is

1) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co

2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co

3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co

4) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co

Question 152 of 180

153. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except

1) sodium

2) NaOH / I₂

3) Neutral FeCl3

4) Br₂ / H₂O

Question 153 of 180

154. If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ions discharged at cathode are

1) H⁺

2) Na⁺

3) OH^-

4) Cl^-

Question 154 of 180

155. Which of the following vitamin contains ionone ring and
hydrocarbon chain.

1) Calciferol

2) Thiamin

3) Retinol

4) Riboflavin

Question 155 of 180

156. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

1) Aspartame

2) Saccharin

3) Sucralose

4) Alitame

Question 156 of 180

157. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M-O-H and M¹-O-H have been prepared in two different
beakers. If the electronegativity of M=3.5, M¹=0.9, O=3.5 and H=2.1, then the solutions respectively are

1) acidic, acidic

2) acidic, basic

3) basic, basic

4) basic, acidic

Question 157 of 180

158. When the value of azimuthal quantum number is 3, the maximum and the minimum values of the spin multiplicities are

1) 4,3

2) 8,1

3) 1,3

4) 8,2

Question 158 of 180

159.

1) Glyptal

2) Dacron

3) Nylon-6,6

4) Nylon-6

Question 159 of 180

160. The correct statement/s about H₂ S₂ O₇ is/are

1) It is called peroxydisulphuric acid

2) It is contains one O-O bond in its molecule

3) It is obtained by dissolution of SO3 in conc. H₂ SO₄

4) Both (2) & (3)

Question 160 of 180

161. What will be the equivalent weight of H₃PO₃ in the following reaction. 4H₃PO₃ → 3H₃PO₄+PH₃

1) M/6

2) 2M/3

3) M/12

4) M/2

Question 161 of 180

162. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption.

Question 162 of 180

163. The correct order of increasing acidic strength of the compounds
A) CH₃CO₂H
B) MeOCH₂CO₂H
C) CF₃CO₂H

1) D < A < B < C

2) A < D < B < C

3) B < D < A < C

4) D < A < C < B

Question 163 of 180

164. Find correct statement

1) KMnO₄ is coloured due to d-d transition

2) K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is low spin complex

3) Zn and Cd are transition metal

4) All lanthanoids are radioactive

Question 164 of 180

165. To form osazone, mumber of moles of phenyl hydrazine required by one mole of glucose is

1) 4

2) 3

3) 2

4) 1

Question 165 of 180

166. Compound having least heat of hydrogenation:

Question 166 of 180

167. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in

1) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides

2) forming polymeric hydrides

3) forming covalent halides

4)exhibiting same covalency incompounds

Question 167 of 180

168. The standard reduction potential for Cu⁺²/ Cu  is +0.34V.Calculate the reduction potential at pH=14
for the above couple. ^K_s_pof Cu(OH)₂= 1.0×10^-19

1) +0.2205V

2) +0.386V

3) -0.2205V

4) -0.386V

Question 168 of 180

169. For the given complex ,[CoCl₂(en)(NH₃)]⁺the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

1) 2,2 and 4

2) 2,0 and 2

3) 2,2 and 3

4) 0,2 and 2

Question 169 of 180

170. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

1) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]

2) [ Acid ] × 10⁵ = [conjugatebase]

3) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]× 10⁵

4) [ Acid ] = 2[conjugatebase]

Question 170 of 180

171. The weight of H₂O₂present in 80 ml of 10V H₂O₂ solution is

1) 3.2 gr

2) 4.2 gr

3) 2.4 gr

4) 3.6 gr

Question 171 of 180

172. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solution will record the highest p^H?

1) BaCl2

2) MgCl2

3) CaCl2

4) SrCl2

Question 172 of 180

173. V1 ml of 3M HCl solution is mixed with V₂ml of 3M H₂SO₄to from a solution in which molarity of H+ ions is 5M, then the relation between V₁and V₂is

1) V₁= V₂

2) V₂=2V₁

3) 3V₁= V₂

4) 2V₂= V₁

Question 173 of 180

174. An acid-base indicator has a In K_ln of 3 ×10^-5. The acid form of indicator is red and the basic form is blue.
Then

1) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 50%blue.

2) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75%red.

3) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 75%red

4) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75%blue.

Question 174 of 180

175. The impure 7g of NaCl is dissolved in water and then treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The weight of precipitate of silver chloride is found to be 14g. The % purity of NaCl solution would be (M. Wt of AgCl = 143.5, NaCl = 58.5)

1) 81.5%

2) 63%

3) 93%

4) 77%

Question 175 of 180

176. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl₃solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

1) peptisation

2) dialysis

3) osmosis

4) coagulation

Question 176 of 180

177.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

1) formation of Y is a syn addition

2)during the formation of X, the intermediate is a carbocation

3) X is a positional isomer of Y

4) formation of Y follows markonikov's rule

Question 177 of 180

178. The plots of 1/ X_AVs 1/Y_A( where X_A and Y_Aare the mole fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercepts respectively

Question 178 of 180

179. The number of carbon atoms per unitcell of diamond unitcell is

1) 8

2) 6

3) 1

4) 4

Question 179 of 180

180. Incorrect statement among the following is

1) Pure CO is prepared bydehydration of formic acid with conc. H₂S4

2) Commercially CO is prepared byassing steam over red hot coke

3) CO is a powerful reducing agentand reduces almost all metal oxidesother than IA, IIA group elements,Al etc...

4) CO is a Lewis acid

Question 180 of 180

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