Uncategorized – Page 148

NEET examination is one of the toughest exams in the country. NEET is aimed at selecting candidates for medical courses across the country. The exam consists of 180 questions for 720 marks. Each question carries 4 marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark. Duration of the exam is 180 minutes.

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is half of its initial velocity ‘u’. Its range on the horizontal plane is

1) 2u2/3g

2) √3u2/2g

3) u2/3g

4) u2/2g

Question 1 of 180

2. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

1) The kinetic energy of α-particle is zero

2) The kinetic energy of daughter nucleus is always less than kinetic energy of α-particle

3) The magnitude of linear momentum of α-particle and daughter nucleus are not equal

4) The daughter nucleus is always stable

Question 2 of 180

3. The image a camera forms on the film is...

A. always real

B. always virtual

C. always erect

D. sometimes inverted

Question 3 of 180

4. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s² . Compared with her mass and weight on the earth, an astronaut on Mars has...

A. less mass and less weight

B. more mass and more weight

C. the same mass and less weight

D. the same mass and more weight

Question 4 of 180

5. The value of the stopping potential depends on...

A. the intensity of light

B. the frequency of light

C. the metal surface area

D. the charge on the electron

Question 5 of 180

6. Two parallel wires carry current in the same direction,...

A. they attract each other

B. they repel each other

C. they neither attract nor repel

D. they attract or repel depending on current type

Question 6 of 180

7. Diamagnetic materials are substances that...

A. create a strong magnetic field

B. are attracted by a magnetic field

C. are repelled by a magnetic field

D. have double magnetism

Question 7 of 180

8. If for the planets in solar system, r is the radius of the orbit and T is the periodic time, then the ratio r³ /T² is...

A. 1

B. same for all planets

C. more for farther planets

D. less for farther planets

Question 8 of 180

9. A thin ring has mass M and radius R. Its moment of inertia about the axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is...

A. MR²

B. M²R

C. M/R²

D. M²/R

Question 9 of 180

10. In a large building there are 15 bulbs of ‘40w’ 5 bulbs of ‘100w’. 5 fans of ‘80w’ and 1 heater of ‘1kw’ . The voltage of electric mains is ‘220 volts’.The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building will be

1) 8.5 amp

2) 10 amp

3) 11.3 amp

4) 14 amp

Question 10 of 180

11. The aperture of the objective lens of a telescope is made large so as to

1) Increase the magnifying power of the telescope

2) Increase the resolving power of the telescope

3) Focus on distant objects

4) Ease of Manufacture

Question 11 of 180

12. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 12 of 180

13. Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of mass 88000 kg. The inner and outer radii of each column are 30cm and 40cm respectively. Assuming load distribution is uniform. The compressional strain of each column is (Y = 2×10¹¹ N/m² )

1) 20×10^-6

2) 1.25×1010^-6

3) 5×10^-6

4) 10×10^-6

Question 13 of 180

14. The horizontal component of a force of 10 N inclined at 30° to the vertical is...

A. 5 N

B. 5√ 3 N

C. 3 N

D. 10/√ 3 N

Question 14 of 180

15. At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at 20 °C

A. 40 °C

B. 80 °C

C. 313 °C

D. 586 °C

Question 15 of 180

16. A rocket of initial mass 'm₀' moving with velocity ‘v’ discharges a jet of gases of mean density ‘ρ’ and effective area ‘A’ the minimum value of ‘v’ of fuel gas, which enables the rocket to rise vertically above is nearly

1) √(ρg)/(m₀A)

2) √(ρgA)/m₀

3) √(m₀g)/(ρA)

4) √(2m₀gA)/ρ

Question 16 of 180

17. Two identical containers each of volume V joined by a normal pipe contains gas at a
temperature T. If one of the containers is now maintained at the same temperature T while the other is maintained at 2T, the number of moles of gas in the container having temperature 2T will be

1) PV/2RT

2) PV/RT

3) 2PV/3RT

4) PV/3RT

Question 17 of 180

18. A block of mass 10kg moving in X-direction with a constant speed of 10 msec^-1, is subjected to a retarding force F = (x/10) (Joule/meter) during its travel from x=10m to x=20m its final kenetic energy will be (in Joule)

1) 475

2) 450

3) 485

4) 515

Question 18 of 180

19. In the figure shown a source of sound of frequency 510 Hz move with constant velocity V_s=20 m/ s in the direction shown. The wind is blowing at a constant velocity V_w=20 m/S towards an observer who is at rest at point B. Corresponding to the sound emitted by the source in initial position A, the frequency detected by the observer is equal to (speed of sound relative to air = 330 m/s)

1) 510 Hz

2) 500 Hz

3) 525 Hz

4) 550 Hz

Question 19 of 180

20. Gas at a pressure ‘P₀’ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their r.m.s speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

1) 4P₀

2) 2P₀

3) P₀

4) P₀/2

Question 20 of 180

21. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 21 of 180

22. A ‘2Mev’ proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of ‘2.5 Tesla’. The force on the proton is (mass of proton = 1.6 × 10^-27 kg)

1) 3×10^-10 N

2) 8× 10^-11 N

3) 3×10^-11N

4) 8×10^-12N

Question 22 of 180

23. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

1) A meter scale

2) A vernier callipers where the ‘10’ divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in ‘1 cm’

3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

Question 23 of 180

24. Magnetic moment and angular moment of revolving electron in a hydrogen atom ‘M’ and ‘L’ respectively then

1) (M/L) = (e/2m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

2) (M/L) = (e/2m);M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

3) (M/L) = (2e/m); M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

4) (M/L) = (4e/m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

Question 24 of 180

25. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry and the solid sphere about its diameter axis. After ‘t’ sec their angular velocities are . Choose the correct answer (initial angular speed of each is 'ω₀'

1) ω₁ = ω₂

2) ω₁ < ω₂

3) ω₁ > ω₂

4) Both 2 & 3

Question 25 of 180

26. Of the following the one that is a vector is...

A. electric charge

B. electric field

C. electric energy

D. potential difference

Question 26 of 180

27. Two equal masses ‘A and B’ moving along the same straight line with velocities 3i m/sec and '-5i m/sec respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively

1) 4i m/sec for both

2) -3i m/sec and 5i m/sec

3) -4i m/sec and 4i m/sec

4) -5i m/sec and 3i m/sec

Question 27 of 180

28. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through origin. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process will be

1) 4R

2) 2.5R

3) 3R

4)4R/3

Question 28 of 180

29. A particle moves along X –axis in such a way that coordinate X varies with time t according to the equation . x = ( 2-5t+6t²)m The initial velocity of the particle is

1) -5m/s

2) 6m/s

3) -3m/s

4) 3m/s

Question 29 of 180

30. A source and Listner both moving towards each other each with speed .frequency of the note emitted by the source is ‘600Hz’ Apparent wave length of sound wave received by the observer is ( V = 330 m/ sec)

1) 0.5m

2) 0.45m

3)0.1m

4) 0.6m

Question 30 of 180

31. The power of a lens having refractive index 1.25 is +3 diopters. When placed in a liquid its power is -2 diopters. The refractive index of the liquid is

1) 1.2

2) 1.4

3) 1.5

4) 1.6

Question 31 of 180

32. To charge a secondary cell, what is needed is...

A. a d.c. current

B. an a.c. current

C. fresh electrolyte

D. heating

Question 32 of 180

33. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 'λ₁'and 'λ₂' respectively are placed at a distance ‘R’. The force per unit length on either wire will be (k = (1/4πε₀))

1) K [2λ₁λ₂/R²]

2) K [2λ₁λ₂/R]

3) K[λ₁λ₂/R²]

4) K[λ₁λ₂/R]

Question 33 of 180

34. The maximum value of ‘F’ for which both the blocks move together is

1) 95N

2) 100 N

3) 105 N

4) 110 N

Question 34 of 180

35. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10^-4m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

A. 1.2 W

B. 1.4 W

C. 1.7 W

D. 12 W

Question 35 of 180

36. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1:4 produce an interference pattern the fringe visibility will be

1) 1

2) 0.8

3)0.4

4) 0.6

Question 36 of 180

37. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 600, the angle of refraction ‘A’, angle of deviation ‘δ ’ and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is

1) 1.73

2) 1.15

3) 1.5

4) 1.33

Question 37 of 180

38. The de-Broglie wave length of an electron in first Bohr orbit is

1) Equal to one fourth the circumference of the first orbit

2) Equal to half the circumference of the first orbit

3) Equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit

4) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit

Question 38 of 180

39. The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is ‘4.5 joule’. The charge on the sphere is '4μc' its radius will be [(1/4πε₀)=9×10⁹ N - m²c^-2]

1) 4mm

2) 8 mm

3) 2mm

4) 16 mm

Question 39 of 180

40. The primary effect when the source is moving is a change in...

A. frequency

B. amplitude

C. wavelength

D. both frequency and amplitude

Question 40 of 180

41. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L.C.R series circuit used for communication

1) R = 15ΩL = 3.5H.C = 30μF

2) R = 25ΩL = 1.5H.C = 45μF

3) R = 20ΩL = 1.5H.C = 35μF

4) R = 25ΩL = 2.5H.C = 45μF

Question 41 of 180

42. The given graph represents V – I characteristic for a semiconductor device

Which of the following statement is correct

1) It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

2) It is for a LED and points A and B represents open circuit voltage and short circuit current respectively

3) It is V – I characteristic for solar cell where point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current

4) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

Question 42 of 180

43. If the maximum value of the induced e.m.f. is V_mand maximum r.m.s. current is √ 2 ampere for an a.c. circuit with resistance R, then the value of V_min volt is equal to...

A. 2R

B. R

C. 1/R

D. √ 2/R

Question 43 of 180

44. A single slit of width ‘0.1mm’ is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wave length and diffraction bands are observed on a screen ‘0.5m’ from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is

1) 9mm

2) 3mm

3)4.5mm

4)1.5mm

Question 44 of 180

45. An electric cell of e.m.f ‘E’ is connected across a copper wire of diameter ‘d’ and length 'l' the drift velocity of electron in the wire is 'v_d' If the length and diameter of the wire are doubled the new drift velocity of electron is

1) v_d

2) 2v_d

3) v_d/2

3) v_d/4

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. In dicot roots, the pericycle gives rise to

1) Lateral roots and a part of vascular cambium

2) Cortex and pith

3) Xylem and Phloem

4) Epidermis and vascular bundles

Question 46 of 180

47. The assemblage of all the population of different species that function as an integrated unit through coevolved metabolic transformation in a specific area is called

1) biome

2) biotic community

3) population

4) ecosystem

Question 47 of 180

48. ‘Vascular cryptogams’ are not the first group to exhibit

1) Heterospory

2) Root system

3) Complex tissues

4) Homospory

Question 48 of 180

49. An abnormality in humans called ‘Sickle cell anemia’ is resulted due to point mutation leading to the change of

1) Glutamate in to valine

2) Valine into glutamate

3)Alamine into Senine

4) Glycine into valine

Question 49 of 180

50. Different types of plastids (chloroplast, chromoplast and leucoplast) are quite related as:

1) These all store lipids and starch

2) These are restricted to the green parts of a plant

3) These al perform almost same function

4) These are interconvertible depending upon the requirement of an organ

Question 50 of 180

51. Find the correct match w.r.t annual rings

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 51 of 180

52. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

1) 5n, 4n, 7n

2) 7n, 5n, 4n

3) 4n, 5n, 7n

4) 5n, 7n, 4n

Question 52 of 180

53. Select the nutritive tissue in the structure of anther

1) –S

2) –R

3) –Q

4) P

Question 53 of 180

54. Primary succession results in formation of communities on area

1) After afforestation

2) Of abandoned crop field

3) With no record of earlier vegetation

4) After heavy floods spoiled agricultural field

Question 54 of 180

55. Structures observed both in prokaryotic and eukaryotc cells are

1) 70s ribosomes, cytoplasm, plasma membrane

2) 80s ribosomes, plastids, cytoplasm, mesomes

3) 80s ribosomes, mitochondria, vacuoles

4) 70s ribosomes, ER, dictyosomes

Question 55 of 180

56. Consider the following statements and select the number of correct statements

1. Replication of DNA is carried out by semi-conservative method in prokaryotes only

2. Hershey and chase conducted transformation experiments to confirm the genetic nature of DNA

3. Three types of RNA polymerases or formed in the
nucleus of eukaryotes

4. After transcription also gene regulation is possible in eukaryotes

1) One

2) Four

3) Three

4) Two

Question 56 of 180

57. The probabilities of homozygous tall, heterozygous tall, and homozygous dwarf plants in F2 generation of a monohybrid cross respectively, is

1) 1/4, 1/2, 1/4

2) 1/2, 1/4, 1/2

3) 1/2, 1/4, 1/4

4) 1/4, 1/4, 1/2

Question 57 of 180

58. Who of the following scientists is not concerned with O2 release from water in photosynthesis?

1) Julius von Sachs

2) Van Neil

3) Robert Hill

4) T.W. Engelman

Question 58 of 180

59. Ψ_wand Ψ_pare zero respectively for

1) Pure water and Flaccid cell

2) Flaccid cell and Turgid cell

3) Pure water and Turgid cell

4) Flaccid cell and Pure water

Question 59 of 180

60. Read the following and identify the correct statement

1) The price of earth’s fundamental ecosystem services is – US $18 trillion

2) Among the all ecosystem services soil formation alone accounts for about 50%.

3) Bees are alone responsible for 30-45% of food production in US by bringing cross pollination in crops

4) The lungs of the word are cows, buffaloes, goats and sheep

Question 60 of 180

61. DNA with one strand labeled with radioactive thymidine. Allowed to replicate in normal nutrient medium for three generations. Then proportion of DNA molecules showing radioactivity is

1) 12.5% only

2) 25%

3) 6.25%

4) 50%

Question 61 of 180

62. A family not delimited by the type of inflorescence is

1) Asteraceae

2) Poaceae

3) Liliaceae

4) Euphorbiaceae

Question 62 of 180

63. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

1) Independent sporophyte

2) Presence of archegonia

3) Well developed vascular tissues

4) Independent gametophyte

Question 63 of 180

64. Identify P,Q,R and S in the given diagram

1) P-Bundle sheath cell, Q-Regeneration R-Decarboxylation, S-Carboxylation

2) P-Bundle sheath cell, Q-Regeneration R-Decarboxylation, S-Fixation

3) P-mesophyll cell, Q-Regeneration R-Decarboxylation, S-Carboxylation

4) P-Bundle sheath cell, Q-Regeneration R-Carboxylation, S-Fixation

Question 64 of 180

65. Which is incorrect about coenzyme

1) Every enzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is a coenzyme

2) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is not a coenzyme

3) Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides and are composed of vitamins

4) Coenzymes are the active constituents of enzymes.

Question 65 of 180

66. Which of the following instruments are correctly matched, except?

i) Potometer – Transpiration rate

ii) Atmometer – Demonstrate transpiration pull

iii) Auxanometer – Growth measurement

iv) Ganog’s light screen – Measure light intensity

v) Manometer – Demonstreate toot pressure

1) (iv)

2) (ii)

3) (iii)

Question 66 of 180

67. 1/4 TT : 1/2 Tt : 1/4 tt is the binomial expansion of

1) [(1/2)T + (1/2)t]²

2) [(1/4)T + (1/4)t]²

3) [(1/4)T + (1/2)t]²

4) [(1/2)T + (1/4)t]²

Question 67 of 180

68. In garden pea, round shape of seeds is dominant over wrinkled shape. A pea plant heterozygous for round shape of seed is selfed and 1600 seeds produced during the cross are subsequently germinatied. How many seedlings will have the parental phenotype?

1) 400

2) 1600

3) 1200

4) 800

Question 68 of 180

69. Select the correct statement regarding activated sludge formed during secondary sewage treatment

1) A small part of it is rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank

2) It absorbs pathogenic bacteria present in waster water while sinking to the bottom of the settling tank

3) A major part of it is anaerobically digested

4) Both (a) and (c)

Question 69 of 180

70. The phytohormone/s which play(s) an important role in development, maturation and dormancy of seeds is
I. GA3 II. ABA III. IAA IV. Kinetin

1) I and III

2) II and III

3) II alone

4) III and IV

Question 70 of 180

71. Which of the following four phases, in the post emergence life of an angiospermic plant, begins just after germination of seed and ends when the plant develops the capacity to reproduce ?

1) Death

2) Maturity

3) Ageing

4) Juvenility

Question 71 of 180

72. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground tissue system of roots, is characterised by

1) Casparian bands

2) Starch grains

3) Complementary cells

4) Intercellular spaces

Question 72 of 180

73. S-I : Virus resistant plants can be recovered from virus infected plants in Potato and Banana by shoot apex culture

S-II : Pollen culture involving colchicine treatment always results in the production of male homozygous diploid plants only.

1) S-I is true and S-II is false

2) S-I is false and S-II is true

3) S-I and S-II are false

4) S-I and S-II are true

Question 73 of 180

74. Meiosis involves

1. One nuclear, one chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

2. Two nuclear, one chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, one cycle of DNA replication

3. One nuclear, two chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

4. Two nuclear, two chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, two cycles of DNA replication

Question 74 of 180

75. Identify the non-suberised loosely arranged cells for gaseous exchange in the given diagram

1) C

2) B

3) A

4) D

Question 75 of 180

76. The following set of cell organs are included in endomembrane system

1) Lysosomes, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

2) Dictyosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

3) Glyoxysome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

4) ER, Golgicomplex, Suicidal bags, Vacuoles

Question 76 of 180

77. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M-phase, what will be the content of DNA at G1 phase chromosome and S - phase chromosome of mitosis?

1) 2C & 4C

2) 4C & 4C

3) 4C & 2C

4) 2C & 3C

Question 77 of 180

78. Processes which can never occur in the structure called “Cell brain” are

A. Polymerisation of ribonucleotides

B. Synthesis of ‘energy currency of cell’

C. Polymerisation of deoxyribonucleotides

D. Polymerisation of amino acids

1) A and B

2) C and D

3) A and C

4) B and D

Question 78 of 180

79. Study of arrangement of perianth parts in bud condition, is not possible in

1) Calotropis

2) Glycirrhiza

3) Euphorbia

4) Allium

Question 79 of 180

80. Root nodules (tubercles) are found on

1) primary root only

2) branchlets only

3) secondary roots only

4) primary and secondary roots

Question 80 of 180

81. The correct sequence of electron acceptors in respiratory electron transport is

1) Cyt a, a3, c

2) cyt b, c, a, a3

3) cyt c, b, a, a3

4) Cyt a3, c, b, a

Question 81 of 180

82. Which of the following transforms more amount of radiant energy into chemical energy

1) P700 chl a

2) P680 chl a

3) Lycopene

4) Phycoerythrin

Question 82 of 180

83. Anticodon is a base triplet present on

1) mRNA complementary to base sequence on rRNA

2) mRNA, complementary to base sequence on tRNA

3) tRNA, complementary to base sequence on rRNA

4) tRNA, complementary to base sequence on mRN

Question 83 of 180

84. How many of the following statements are correct

A. Yellow mosaic resistance mung bean was developed by hybridisation

B. Yellow mosaic resistant bhindi was produced by mutation breeding

C. White rust resistant mustard was developed by hybridisation

D. Pomato was developed by somatic hybridisation E. Golden rice variety was produced by trans genies

1) Four

2) Three

3) Two

4) One

Question 84 of 180

85. Main function of centromere is

1) Chromosome splitting

2) to help in migration of chromosomes to the poles

3) Crossing over

4) Cytokinesis

Question 85 of 180

86. Regarding ATP synthesis in aerobic respiration select the correct match

A B C D

1) III IV I V

2) IV III II I

3) IV III V I

4) III I IV V

Question 86 of 180

87. S-I : Linked genes get separated due to crossing over

S-II : The closer the genes on a chromosome the more is the probability of recombinations

1) S-I and S-II are false e

2) S-I is false and S-II is true

3) S-I is true and S-II is false

4) S-I and S-II are true

Question 87 of 180

88. How many of the following statements are true

i) Volvox and Fucus show oogamy

ii) Agar is commercially obtained from Gelidium and Gracillaria

iii) Gametophyte is parasite on sporophyte in Sphagnum

iv) Funaria is monoecious and Marchantia is dioecious

v) Source of SCP are Spirullina and Chlorella

1) 4

2) 3

3) 5

4) 2

Question 88 of 180

89. Study the following diagrams & choose the correct option.

1) It is a dioecious pteridophyte producing antheridiophore and archegoniophore

2) It is a dioecious alga producing antheridiophore and archegoniophore

3) a- Male plant of Marchantia, b-Female plant of Marchantia

4) a- Female plant of Marchantia, b-Male plant of Marchantia

Question 89 of 180

90. Eight bacteria kept in cup divide repeatedly and produce 64 bacteria in 2 hours. Find the time consumed in binary fission.

1) 15 minutes

2) 20 minutes

3) 40 minutes

4) 30 minutes

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. The concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels in a food chain, through

1) Anthropogenic Eutrophication

2) Biomagnification

3)Cultural Eutrophication

4) Ecological Succession

Question 91 of 180

92. The four structure listed are part of the human excretory system.
I. Bladder II. Kidney III. Ureter IV. Urethra
In which order does a molecule of urea pass through these structures?

1) 1-I,1-II, 1-III, 1-IV

2) 2-I, 2-IV, 2-III, 2-II,

3) 3-II, 3-I, 3-III, 3-IV,

4) 4-II, 4-III, 4-I, 4-IV,

Question 92 of 180

93. A sensitized Rh --ve woman gives birth dizygotic twins with different Rh phenotypes then

1) Type II hyper sensitivity reaction is seen in both the off springs

2) IgG after transplacental migration cause HDNB in both

3) Erythroblastosis foetalis is in off spring with dominant allele

4) Both off springs remain unaffected

Question 93 of 180

94. Alienate the number of incorrect statement(s)

S1: Laccifer lacks circulatory system.

S2: Neries have nephridia but no nephrons

S3: Silver fish is Non-operculate marine fish

S4: Neophron has both neurons and nephrons

1) Two

2) Three

3) One

4) Four

Question 94 of 180

95. According to 2001 census report, the population growth rate of India was

1) 17/1000/year

2) 25/1000/year

3) 33/1000/year

4) 8/1000/year

Question 95 of 180

96. Ligament consists of

1) Yellow fibres + Elastic fibres

2) Yellow fibres + Collagen (white)fibres

3) Yellow fibres + Muscle fibres

4) White fibres + Muscle fibres

Question 96 of 180

97. Consider the following diagrammatic representation of the sectional view of cochlea with certain labeled parts A,B,C and D. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t labeled part and its identification/description.

1) A – Scala media-Contains endolymph

2) B- Tectorial membrane – Vibrates and sends Sensory impulses to auditory area of brain

3) C- Scala vestibuli – Contains perilymph

4) D-Basilar membrane-Organ of Corti rest upon it

Question 97 of 180

98. Which of the following is responsible for rejection of graft ?

1) Cell mediated immunity

2) Antibody mediated immunity

3) Cytokine barrier

4) Inflammation

Question 98 of 180

99. Epididymis is

1) network of sinuses between seminiferous tubules and vasa efferentia

2) intermediate structure between rete testis and vasa efferentia

3) a long coiled tube between vasa efferentia and vasa deferens

4) connection between vas deferens and seminal vesicle

Question 99 of 180

100. Which one of the following hormone is derived from an Amino acid which the human beings are incapable of synthesizing

1) Glutamic acid

2) Dopamine

3) Adrenaline

4) Melatonin

Question 100 of 180

101. Complete the following Analogy

Seminal Vesicle: Cockroach: : --------: human

1) Spermatheca

2) rete-testis

3) Epididymis

4) Oothecal chamber

Question 101 of 180

102. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

1) The population of its predators increases enormously

2) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect

3) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.

4) Its population growth curve is of J-type

Question 102 of 180

103. Find out the correctly matching set

1) Gamitocytes – Infective stages of plasmodium to man

2) IgE anti body – Rich in colostrums

3) Metagenesis – Malignant tumor

4) SCID – Somatic line gene therapy

Question 103 of 180

104. Which of the following structures are found in female cockroach ?

1) Caudal styles

2) Phallomeres

3) Spermathecae

4) Seminal vesicles

Question 104 of 180

105. According to Darwin

I) Inter specific competition is a potent force in organic evolution

II) Evolution was gradual and variations are small and directional

III) Branching decent and Natural selection are two key concepts of evolution

Which of the following statements are correct

1) I

2) II

3) II and III

4) I,II and III

Question 105 of 180

106. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 106 of 180

107. In Anaphylaxis, IgE interacts with which one of the following biocyte to promote release of inflammatory mediators.

Question 107 of 180

108. The state of heart when it does not pump blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body is

1) Heart attack

2) Angina pectoris

3) Cardiac arrest

4) Heart failure

Question 108 of 180

109. Find the incorrect match

1) Colostrum – IgA antibodies

2) Recombinant DNA – Hepatitis Bvaccine technology produced fromyeast

3) Allergy – Release of chemicals likehistamine and serotonin from themast cells

4) Autoimmune – Adrenaline disease

Question 109 of 180

110. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

1)Lemur

2)Tasmanian wolf

3) Numbat

4)Bobcat

Question 110 of 180

111. A tumour in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the hormones in that region. Which of the following you might expect to find in a patient with such a tumour?

1) Increased blood sodium levels

2) Increased blood glucose levels

3) Decreased blood calcium levels

4) Increased dehydration

Question 111 of 180

112. Which of the following statements correctly defines the phenomenon of genetic drift?
I. Random change in gene allele frequency
II. Occur by chance
III. It is directional
IV. Causes elimination of certain alleles
V. Causes fixation of alleles
The correct combination is

1) I, II and III

2) III, IV and V

3) I, III and V

4) I, II, IV and V

Question 112 of 180

113. Who was awarded the three prizes widely regarded as the triple crown of biology

1) Linnaeus

2) Darwin

3) Ernst Mayr

4) Mendel

Question 113 of 180

114. Bone can be distinguished from cartilage with

1) The haversian system

2) High vascular nature

3) Calcified matrix

4) All the above

Question 114 of 180

115. Select the synovial joint which is exclusive to Axial skeleton

1) Tibiofemoral joint

2) Atlanto-Axial joint

3) Inter tarsal joint

4) Humero scapular joint

Question 115 of 180

116. Read the following statements

A : A considerable amount of NPP is utilised by plants in respiration

B: The annual NPP of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons of organic matter

1) Both A and B are correct

2) Only A is correct

3) Only B is correct

4) Both A and B are incorrect

Question 116 of 180

117. When Glomerular filtrate is passing through PCT which of the following Biomolecule’s selective reabsorption is 100% into PTC

B1)Creatinine B2) Glucose

B3) Amino Acids B4) Potassium

1)B2-B3

2)B1

3) B2-B3-B1

4) All except B2

Question 117 of 180

118. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is

1) corona radiate, zona pellucid and vitelline membrane

2) zona pellucid, corona radiate and vitelline membrane

3) vitelline membrane, zona pellucid and corona radiate

4) zona pellucid, vitelline membrane and corona radiate

Question 118 of 180

119. In the resting muscle fiber, tropomyosin partially covers

1) calcium binding sites on troponin

2) actin binding sites on myosin

3) myosin binding sites on actin

4) calcium binding sites on actin

Question 119 of 180

120. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates 5. Annelid

1) a – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 5, E – 3

2) a – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 3

3) a – 5, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2, E – 4

4) a – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2

Question 120 of 180

121. Which of the following statements are false/true?
I. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium level
II. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth.
III. Grave’s disease is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal cortex
IV. ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine output.

1) I and III are true; II and IV are false

2) I and II are true; III and IV are false

3) II and III are true; I and IV are false

4) I, II and III are true; IV only false

Question 121 of 180

122. How many of the following statements are wrong w.r.t. STDs?

A. AIDs is the most dangerous STD.

B. Hepatitis B, genital herpes and HIV infection are not curable

C. Ectopic pregnancy and cancer are not included under the complications of STDs

D. The incidence of STDs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 yearsx

1) One

2) Two

3) Three

4) Four

Question 122 of 180

123. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A) Thomas Malthus I) Branching descent
B) Hugo de Vries II) Studies on populations
C) Charles Darwin III) Use disuse principle
D) Lamarck IV) Saltation

1) A-IV B-I C-III D-II

2) A-II B-IV C-I D-III

3) A-II B-IV C-III D-I

4) A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Question 123 of 180

124. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

1) A-1000, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

2) A-1400, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

3) A-1000, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

4) A-1400, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

Question 124 of 180

125. In kidneys, renal papillae are part of

1) renal columns

2) columns of Bertini

3) renal pelvis

4) medullary pyramids

Question 125 of 180

126. All of the following are functions of catecholamines, except

1) Pupilary dilation

2) Piloerection

3) Tachycardia

4) Lipogenesis

Question 126 of 180

127. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?
Examples Type of immunity
1) Polymorphonuclear

leucocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers
2) anti-tetanus and anti-snake

bite injections Active immunity
3) Saliva in mouth and

tears in eyes Physical barriers
4) mucous coating of epithelium lining Physiological barriers
the urinogenital tract and the HCl in stomach

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

Question 127 of 180

128. The Epithelium given below is not found in

1) moist surface of Pharynx

2) Lining of Pancreatic duct

3) Largest endocrine gland

4) Ducts of salivary glands

Question 128 of 180

129. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the outer side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

1) First positive, then negative and again back to positive

2) First negative, then positive and again back to negative

3) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative

4) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive

Question 129 of 180

130. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

1) Temperate deciduous forest

2) Tropical rain forest

3) Tropical deciduous forest

4) Temperate evergreen forest

Question 130 of 180

131. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

1) Calciferol – Pellagra

2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

4) Cobalamin – Beriberi

Question 131 of 180

132. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates 5. Annelid

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 132 of 180

133. A 26 years old female has 2 offsprings(NOTE:not twins). If menses start at the age of 12 years then the number of ova formed are

1) 270

2) 2

3) 288

4) 8

Question 133 of 180

134. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

1) lower levels of adrenalin/noradrenalin in its blood

2) higher levels of thyroxin

3) higher levels of cortisone

4) lower levels of blood testosterone

Question 134 of 180

135. The correct match for structures of cockroach is
Column-I Column-II
A. Ommatidia I. Articulates with thorax
B. Trochanter II. For vision
C. Coxa III. Forming exoskeleton
D. Sclerites IV. Fused with large and stout femur

1) A-II B-IV C-I D-III

2) B-II D-IV A-I C-III

3) C-II D-IV B-I A-III

4) D-II A-IV C-I B-III

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

1) Aspartame

2) Saccharin

3) Sucralose

4) Alitame

Question 136 of 180

137. Which of the following C – H bond has the least bond dissociation energy

Question 137 of 180

138. When the value of azimuthal quantum number is 3, the maximum and the minimum values of the spin multiplicities are

1) 4,3

2) 8,1

3) 1,3

4) 8,2

Question 138 of 180

139. Which of the following organ metallic compound is σ and π
bonded?

1) [ Fe(η⁵-C₂H5)₂]

2) [ PtCl3 (η2 -C2H₄ ) ]

3) [ Co(Co)5 NH₃ ]⁺²

4) All the above

Question 139 of 180

140. Assertion: Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
Reason: ΔH_f⁰ of graphite is taken as zero

1) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2) Both assertion and reason are correct reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion.

3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.

4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

Question 140 of 180

141. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

1) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]

2) [ Acid ] × 10⁵ = [conjugatebase]

3) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]× 10⁵

4) [ Acid ] = 2[conjugatebase]

Question 141 of 180

142. The equivalent weight of HCl in the given reaction is
KCr₂O₇ +14 HCl -->2KCl + 2CrCl₃ +3Cl₂ +H₂O

1) 16.25

2) 36.5

3) 73

4) 85.1

Question 142 of 180

143. The impure 7g of NaCl is dissolved in water and then treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The weight of precipitate of silver chloride is found to be 14g. The % purity of NaCl solution would be (M. Wt of AgCl = 143.5, NaCl = 58.5)

1) 81.5%

2) 63%

3) 93%

4) 77%

Question 143 of 180

144. 20g of naphthoic acid (C₁₁H₈O₂) is dissolved in 50g of benzene, then freezing point depression of 2K is observed for solution. The vant hoff factor will be ( K_f for benzene=1.72 Kg Mol^-1)

1) 0.75

2) 2

3) 0.5

4) 3

Question 144 of 180

145. To form osazone, mumber of moles of phenyl hydrazine required by one mole of glucose is

1) 4

2) 3

3) 2

4) 1

Question 145 of 180

146. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?

1) Pyrolusite

2) Magnetite

3)Malachite

4) Cassiterite

Question 146 of 180

147. 51. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zn dust and water gives compound ‘E’. Compound ‘E’ on further treatment with aqu.KOH yields compound ‘F’. Compound ‘F’ is

Question 147 of 180

148. I_2(aq)+ I^-(aq) --> I^-_3(aq)+We started with 1 mole of I^₂and 0.5 mole of I^- in one litre flask. After equilibrium is reached excess of AgNO₃ gave 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate. Then
Equilibrium constant is

1) 1.33

2) 2.66

3) 2.0

4) 3.0

Question 148 of 180

149. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M-O-H and M¹-O-H have been prepared in two different
beakers. If the electronegativity of M=3.5, M¹=0.9, O=3.5 and H=2.1, then the solutions respectively are

1) acidic, acidic

2) acidic, basic

3) basic, basic

4) basic, acidic

Question 149 of 180

150. For the given complex ,[CoCl₂(en)(NH₃)]⁺the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

1) 2,2 and 4

2) 2,0 and 2

3) 2,2 and 3

4) 0,2 and 2

Question 150 of 180

151. The molecule which is having maximum number of lone pair

1) SiF₄

2) BrF₃

3) XeF₂

4) SF₄

Question 151 of 180

152. The values of electro negativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage ionic character of A-B bond is

1) 50%

2) 72.24%

3) 55.3%

4) 43%

Question 152 of 180

153. Xe has max. EN in:-

1) XeF₂

2) XeF₄

3) XeO₄

4) XeOF₂

Question 153 of 180

154.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

1) formation of Y is a syn addition

2)during the formation of X, the intermediate is a carbocation

3) X is a positional isomer of Y

4) formation of Y follows markonikov's rule

Question 154 of 180

155. The correct statement among the following is:
i) NaBH₄produce BH₆on reaction with I₂

ii) Reaction between B₂H₆and NMe₃is an acid base reaction

iii) BH₆is produced on industrial scale by reaction with BF₃, NaH

iv) Boranes on hydrolysis produce
B₂H₆and H₂gas

1) All are correct

2) Only i & ii are correct

3) Only iv is correct

4) Only i, ii, iii are correct

Question 155 of 180

156. Which property is common in diamond and graphite

1) Electrical conductivity

2) Crystal structure

3) Relative atomic mass

4) Density

Question 156 of 180

157. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

1) (CH3)3N

2) (SiH3)3N

3) XeF2

4) SF₄

Question 157 of 180

158. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solution will record the highest p^H?

1) BaCl2

2) MgCl2

3) CaCl2

4) SrCl2

Question 158 of 180

159. If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ions discharged at cathode are

1) H⁺

2) Na⁺

3) OH^-

4) Cl^-

Question 159 of 180

160.

Question 160 of 180

161. The correct statement/s about H₂ S₂ O₇ is/are

1) It is called peroxydisulphuric acid

2) It is contains one O-O bond in its molecule

3) It is obtained by dissolution of SO3 in conc. H₂ SO₄

4) Both (2) & (3)

Question 161 of 180

162. The weight of H₂O₂present in 80 ml of 10V H₂O₂ solution is

1) 3.2 gr

2) 4.2 gr

3) 2.4 gr

4) 3.6 gr

Question 162 of 180

163. The half life of a reaction is 46 minutes when the initial concentration of the reactant is 4 mol/L and 92 minutes when the initial concentration is 0.2mol/L. The order of the reaction is

1) Zero

2) 0.5

3) 2

4) 1

Question 163 of 180

164. An oxide of Nitrogen which form reddish brown fumes in air is

1) N₂O

2) NO₂

3) NO

4) N₂O₃

Question 164 of 180

165. 100ml of O ₂on partial ozonisation, O₂and O₃are obtained in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 what % of O₂is converted into ozone

1) 60%

2) 50%

3) 40%

4) 57%

Question 165 of 180

166. For decolourization of one mole of KMnO₄ the required litre of 30 volume H₂O₂ in acidified medium is

1) 0.94

2) 9.4

3) 0.094

4) 3.01

Question 166 of 180

167. Which of the following will have highest negative enthalpy of formation?

1) RbF

2) KF

3) CsF

4) NaF

Question 167 of 180

168. When H₂S is passed through acidified KMnO₄ we get

1) K₂ SO₃

2) MnO₂

3) KHSO₃

4) Sulphur

Question 168 of 180

169.

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

1) 4 : 5

2) 5 : 4

3) 1 : 1

4) 2 : 3

Question 169 of 180

170. The standard reduction potential for Cu⁺²/ Cu  is +0.34V.Calculate the reduction potential at pH=14
for the above couple. ^K_s_pof Cu(OH)₂= 1.0×10^-19

1) +0.2205V

2) +0.386V

3) -0.2205V

4) -0.386V

Question 170 of 180

171. Most basic and acidic oxides are formed by the following 3rd period elements.

1) Cs, Cl

2) Na, Cl

3) Na, F

4) Cs, S

Question 171 of 180

172. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl₃solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

1) peptisation

2) dialysis

3) osmosis

4) coagulation

Question 172 of 180

173. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 ×10^-2
mol L^-1 min^-1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reactant. The
half life of the reaction is

1) 23.1 min

2) 8.73 min

3) 7.53 min

4) 0.383 min

Question 173 of 180

174. A possitive carbylamine test is given by

1) N,N – dimethyl aniline

2) Isopropyl amine

3) diethyl amine

4) trimethyl amine

Question 174 of 180

175. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except

1) sodium

2) NaOH / I₂

3) Neutral FeCl3

4) Br₂ / H₂O

Question 175 of 180

176. Number of stereoisomers of the given compound

1) 2

2)3

3)4

4)6

Question 176 of 180

177. Incorrect statement among the following is

1) Pure CO is prepared bydehydration of formic acid with conc. H₂S4

2) Commercially CO is prepared byassing steam over red hot coke

3) CO is a powerful reducing agentand reduces almost all metal oxidesother than IA, IIA group elements,Al etc...

4) CO is a Lewis acid

Question 177 of 180

178. The correct order of increasing acidic strength of the compounds
A) CH₃CO₂H
B) MeOCH₂CO₂H
C) CF₃CO₂H

1) D < A < B < C

2) A < D < B < C

3) B < D < A < C

4) D < A < C < B

Question 178 of 180

179. For one mole of a vanderwaal’s gaswhen b=0 and T=300K, the PV vs1/V plot is shown below. The value of vander waal’s constant ‘a’ in atm.lit² mole^-2is (graph not to scale)

1) 1.0

2)4.5

3) 1.5

4) 3.0

Question 179 of 180

180.

Number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain

1) 7

2) 4

3)6

4)5

Question 180 of 180

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