Uncategorized – Page 148

NEET examination is one of the toughest exams in the country. NEET is aimed at selecting candidates for medical courses across the country. The exam consists of 180 questions for 720 marks. Each question carries 4 marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark. Duration of the exam is 180 minutes.

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. For monatomic gases, C_p/C_vis equal to...

A. 1.67

B. R

C. 1.67 R

D. 1.5 R

Question 1 of 180

2. Of the following the one that is a vector is...

A. electric charge

B. electric field

C. electric energy

D. potential difference

Question 2 of 180

3. If the velocity v of a particle moving along a straight line decreases linearly with its displacement ‘S’ from 20ms-1 to a value approaching zero at S=30m. Then acceleration of the particle at S=15m is

1) 2/3 ms-2

2) -2/3 ms-2

3) 20/3 ms-2

4) -20/3 ms-2

Question 3 of 180

4. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1:4 produce an interference pattern the fringe visibility will be

1) 1

2) 0.8

3)0.4

4) 0.6

Question 4 of 180

5. Fermi is a unit of...

A. length

B. mass

C. time

D. electric flux

Question 5 of 180

6. The given graph represents V – I characteristic for a semiconductor device

Which of the following statement is correct

1) It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

2) It is for a LED and points A and B represents open circuit voltage and short circuit current respectively

3) It is V – I characteristic for solar cell where point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current

4) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

Question 6 of 180

7. A solid sphere of mass ’M’ ; radius ‘R’ and having moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass is ‘I’. It recast into a disc of thickness ‘t’. Whose moment of inertia about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane remains ‘I’ then radius of the disc will be

1) 2R/√15

2) R/√2/15

3) 4R/√15

4) R/4

Question 7 of 180

8. Diamagnetic materials are substances that...

A. create a strong magnetic field

B. are attracted by a magnetic field

C. are repelled by a magnetic field

D. have double magnetism

Question 8 of 180

9. Magnetic moment and angular moment of revolving electron in a hydrogen atom ‘M’ and ‘L’ respectively then

1) (M/L) = (e/2m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

2) (M/L) = (e/2m);M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

3) (M/L) = (2e/m); M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

4) (M/L) = (4e/m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

Question 9 of 180

10. The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is half of its initial velocity ‘u’. Its range on the horizontal plane is

1) 2u2/3g

2) √3u2/2g

3) u2/3g

4) u2/2g

Question 10 of 180

11. Pick out the wrong statement from the following.

1) Viscosity depends upon the nature of the liquids

2) Generally viscosity of liquids is more than that of gases

3) In case of gases, viscosity decreases with increase in temperature

4) In case of liquids, viscosity decreases with increase in temperature

Question 11 of 180

12. For a projectile, its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are equal, maximum height reached by it is (‘u’ is initial velocity of the projectile)

1) u²/2g

2) 3u²/4g

3) 16u²/17g

4) 8u²/17g

Question 12 of 180

13. The intermolecular potential is dependent on...

A. the shape of the molecules only

B. the molecular separation only

C. both the shape and the molecular separation

D. none of the above

Question 13 of 180

14. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

1) Temperature on ideal gas scale

2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale

3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale

4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

Question 14 of 180

15. The only atom which has no neutron in the nucleus is...

A. hydrogen

B. helium

C. oxygen

D. polonium

Question 15 of 180

16. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

A. interference

B. diffraction

C. resolving power

D. polarization

Question 16 of 180

17. In a large building there are 15 bulbs of ‘40w’ 5 bulbs of ‘100w’. 5 fans of ‘80w’ and 1 heater of ‘1kw’ . The voltage of electric mains is ‘220 volts’.The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building will be

1) 8.5 amp

2) 10 amp

3) 11.3 amp

4) 14 amp

Question 17 of 180

18. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L.C.R series circuit used for communication

1) R = 15ΩL = 3.5H.C = 30μF

2) R = 25ΩL = 1.5H.C = 45μF

3) R = 20ΩL = 1.5H.C = 35μF

4) R = 25ΩL = 2.5H.C = 45μF

Question 18 of 180

19. A wave represented by the given equation y = a cos(kx - ωt) is superposed with another wave to form a stationary wave such that the point x=0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is

1) y = a sin(kx + ωt)

2) y = -a cos(kx + ωt)

3) y = -a cos(kx - ωt)

4) y = -a sin(kx - ωt)

Question 19 of 180

20. A Student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it

1) A meter scale

2) A vernier callipers where the ‘10’ divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in ‘1 cm’

3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as ‘1mm’

Question 20 of 180

21. In natural α -decay process occurring in different types of nuclei at rest. Which of the following
is correct?

1) The kinetic energy of α-particle is zero

2) The kinetic energy of daughter nucleus is always less than kinetic energy of α-particle

3) The magnitude of linear momentum of α-particle and daughter nucleus are not equal

4) The daughter nucleus is always stable

Question 21 of 180

22. Two parallel wires carry current in the same direction,...

A. they attract each other

B. they repel each other

C. they neither attract nor repel

D. they attract or repel depending on current type

Question 22 of 180

23. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through origin. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process will be

1) 4R

2) 2.5R

3) 3R

4)4R/3

Question 23 of 180

24. An electric cell of e.m.f ‘E’ is connected across a copper wire of diameter ‘d’ and length 'l' the drift velocity of electron in the wire is 'v_d' If the length and diameter of the wire are doubled the new drift velocity of electron is

1) v_d

2) 2v_d

3) v_d/2

3) v_d/4

Question 24 of 180

25. A block of mass 10kg moving in X-direction with a constant speed of 10 msec^-1, is subjected to a retarding force F = (x/10) (Joule/meter) during its travel from x=10m to x=20m its final kenetic energy will be (in Joule)

1) 475

2) 450

3) 485

4) 515

Question 25 of 180

26. In a uniform segment of a circuit the current is proportional to the...

A. density of the segment

B. resistance of the segment

C. volume of the segment

D. potential difference at its ends

Question 26 of 180

27. A thin ring has mass M and radius R. Its moment of inertia about the axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is...

A. MR²

B. M²R

C. M/R²

D. M²/R

Question 27 of 180

28. Gas at a pressure ‘P₀’ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their r.m.s speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure will be equal to

1) 4P₀

2) 2P₀

3) P₀

4) P₀/2

Question 28 of 180

29. A diatomic ideal gas is used in carnot engine as the working substance if during the adiabatic part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from ‘V’ to ‘32V’. The efficiency of the engine is

1) 0.25

2) 0.5

3) 0.75

4) 0.99

Question 29 of 180

30. A single slit of width ‘0.1mm’ is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wave length and diffraction bands are observed on a screen ‘0.5m’ from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is

1) 9mm

2) 3mm

3)4.5mm

4)1.5mm

Question 30 of 180

31. A balloon of mass ‘m’ is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6. The amount of water should be put inside the balloon so that it accelerates down at rate of g/6. (Assume buoyancy force remains the same)

1) m/5

2) 2m/5

3) 3m/5

4) 4m/5

Question 31 of 180

32. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetization of 8 A/m when placed in an external magnetic field of 0.6 T at a temperature of 4 K. When the same sample is placed in an external magnetic field of 0.2 T at a temperature of 16 K, the magnetization will be

1) 32/3 A/m

2) 2/3 A/m

3) 6 A/m

4) 2.4 A/m

Question 32 of 180

33. A square coil of side ‘25cm’ having 1000 turns is rotated with a uniform speed in a magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the direction of the field. At an instant ‘t’ the ‘e.m.f’ induced in the coil is E= 200 sin100πt. The strength of the magnetic field is (in Tesla)

1) 5/125π

2) 2/125π

3) 1/125π

4) 4/125π

Question 33 of 180

34. Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of mass 88000 kg. The inner and outer radii of each column are 30cm and 40cm respectively. Assuming load distribution is uniform. The compressional strain of each column is (Y = 2×10¹¹ N/m² )

1) 20×10^-6

2) 1.25×1010^-6

3) 5×10^-6

4) 10×10^-6

Question 34 of 180

35. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 35 of 180

36. A thin circular loop of radius ‘R’ rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ‘ ’. A small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω ≤ √(g/R) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = √(2g/R) (Neglect the friction)

1) 300

2) 600

3) 450

4) 1200

Question 36 of 180

37. The maximum value of ‘F’ for which both the blocks move together is

1) 95N

2) 100 N

3) 105 N

4) 110 N

Question 37 of 180

38. To charge a secondary cell, what is needed is...

A. a d.c. current

B. an a.c. current

C. fresh electrolyte

D. heating

Question 38 of 180

39. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of emf ‘e’ is balanced at a length l/5 from the positive end of the wire. Assuming there is no contribution in resistance from any part of the circuit except the potentiometer wire, the balancing length for the same cell if length of the wire is increased by l/2 is

1) 2l/15

2) 3 l /15

3) 3 l /10

4) 4 l /10

Question 39 of 180

40. An object moving with a speed of 6.25 m/sec, is decelerated at a rate given by (dy/dt) = -2.5√v . Where ‘v’ is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object to come to rest, would be

1) 1 sec

2) 2 sec

3) 4 sec

4) 8 sec

Question 40 of 180

41. A sonometer wire resonate with a given tuning fork forming standing wave with five antinode between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of M is

1) 25 kg

2) 5kg

3) 12.5kg

4) (1/25) kg

Question 41 of 180

42. When the velocity of a moving object is doubled...

A. its acceleration is doubled

B. its momentum is doubled

C. its kinetic energy is doubled

D. its potential energy is doubled

Question 42 of 180

43. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of the page. A metallic wire has the shape of a square frame and is placed in the field as shown. While the shape of the wire is steadily transformed into a circle in the same plane, the current in the frame

1) is directed clockwise

2) does not appear

3) is directed counterclockwise

4) is alternating

Question 43 of 180

44. Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 10³ kg/m³ with the same uniform speed. The material density of sphere ‘1 and 2’ are 8 × 10³ kg/m³ and 11 × 10³ kg/m³ The ratio of their radii is

1) 11/8

2) √(11/8)

3) 3/2

4) √(3/2)

Question 44 of 180

45. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents ‘SHM’

a) Y = sinωt - cosωt

b) Y = Sin³ ωt

c) Y = 5 cos[(3π/4) - 3ωt]

d) Y = 1 + ωt + ω²t²

1) only ‘a’ and ‘b’

2) only ‘a’

3) only ‘a’ and ‘d’

4) only ‘a’ and ‘c’

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. Find out mismatch

1) Mg – Macromineral element

2) Mn – Micromineral element

3) B – Macromineral element

4) Ni – Recently discovered trace element

Question 46 of 180

47. Which of the following is true w.r.t. grafting

1) Very commonly practiced in monocot plants

2) In air layering i.e. one typed grafting uses auxin to induce rooting

3) Stock is shoot piece which is used in grafting

4) New plant produced after grafting produces fruits similar to scion source

Question 47 of 180

48. Which of the following is a correct match

1) Zn++ - an activator of alcohol dehydrogenase

2) Mn++ and Mo-an activator of PEP case

3) Fe+++ - activator of succinate dehydrogenase

4) Cu – part of cyta and cyta3

Question 48 of 180

49. Select the correct statement

1) During early-M-phase cells may have more than 2C content of DNA

2) During early S-phase cells have 4C content of DNA

3) Replication continues in G2-phase

4) In plant cells G0-phase is absent

Question 49 of 180

50. Among the following the no. of asexual reproductive structures is/are Gemmae of Marchantia, Epiphyllous buds of Bryophyllum, Bulbils of Agave Rhizome of zinger, Tuberous stem of potato, Offsets of Pistia, Zoospores of Chlamydomonas, Hormogonia of Nostoc

1) 2 only

2) 4 only

3) 6 only

4) All eight

Question 50 of 180

51. Krebs cycle starts with the formation of six carbon compound by a reaction between

1) Succinic acid and pyruvic acid

2) Malic acid and Acetyl CO-A

3) Fumaric acid and pyruvic acid

4) OAA and Acetyl CO-A

Question 51 of 180

52. How many of the following statements are correct

A. Yellow mosaic resistance mung bean was developed by hybridisation

B. Yellow mosaic resistant bhindi was produced by mutation breeding

C. White rust resistant mustard was developed by hybridisation

D. Pomato was developed by somatic hybridisation E. Golden rice variety was produced by trans genies

1) Four

2) Three

3) Two

4) One

Question 52 of 180

53. ‘Vascular cryptogams’ are not the first group to exhibit

1) Heterospory

2) Root system

3) Complex tissues

4) Homospory

Question 53 of 180

54. Anticodon is a base triplet present on

1) mRNA complementary to base sequence on rRNA

2) mRNA, complementary to base sequence on tRNA

3) tRNA, complementary to base sequence on rRNA

4) tRNA, complementary to base sequence on mRN

Question 54 of 180

55. A family not delimited by the type of inflorescence is

1) Asteraceae

2) Poaceae

3) Liliaceae

4) Euphorbiaceae

Question 55 of 180

56. Which site of a tRNA molecule forms hydrogen bonds with particular codon of mRNA molecule?

1) DHU loop

2) Anticodon end

3) Accessory arm

4)3' end of the t-RNA molecule

Question 56 of 180

57. Which one among the following represents the correct method of replication of DNA

Question 57 of 180

58. An abnormality in humans called ‘Sickle cell anemia’ is resulted due to point mutation leading to the change of

1) Glutamate in to valine

2) Valine into glutamate

3)Alamine into Senine

4) Glycine into valine

Question 58 of 180

59. Resistance to shoot and fruit borer is observed in a bhindi variety namely

1) Pusa Swarnim

2) Pusa Sawani

3) Pusa Gaurav

4) Pusa Sem-2 & 3

Question 59 of 180

60. Select the correct statement regarding activated sludge formed during secondary sewage treatment

1) A small part of it is rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank

2) It absorbs pathogenic bacteria present in waster water while sinking to the bottom of the settling tank

3) A major part of it is anaerobically digested

4) Both (a) and (c)

Question 60 of 180

61. Which one of the following statements regarding enzymes is wrong

1) Most enzymes are non-proteins but some are ribozymes

2) Enzymes require optimum temperature for maximum activity

3) Majority of the enzymes function well at neutral pH

4) Enzymes are active in minute concentration also

Question 61 of 180

62. A pure pea plant having yellow pods and yellow cotyledons is crossed with another pure pea plant having green pods and green cotyledons. What will be the ratio of recombinants and non-recombinants in F2 generation?

1) 5 : 3

2) 9 : 7

3) 9 : 4 : 3

4) 3 : 5

Question 62 of 180

63. The minerals involved in water-splitting reaction during light phase of photosynthesis is/are

1) Calcium, Magnesium and Chlorine

2) Calcium, Potassium and Manganese

3) Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine

4) Calcium, Molydenum and Manganese

Question 63 of 180

64. How many chromosomes will be found in a cell at anaphase –II having 2n = 50 ?

1) 50

2) 40

3) 100

4) 25

Question 64 of 180

65. Select the correct combination of the statements (i-iv) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms

i) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas

ii) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen

iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesise cellulose from glucose

iv) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.

1) (ii) and (iii)

2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

3)(ii), (iii) and (iv)

4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 65 of 180

66. Which of the following cannot freely interbreed in nature

A. Winter and spring varieties of wheat

B. LDP and SDP varieties of Tobacco

C. Tall and Dwarf varieties of Pea

D. Red and white flowered varieties of Dog flower

1) C and D

2) A and C

3) B and D

3) B and D 4) A and B

Question 66 of 180

67. Which of the following kinds of plants fix carbon dioxide by Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM) pathway

1) Sorghum

2) Cactii

3) Grass

4) Chlorella

Question 67 of 180

68. How many of the following statements are true

i) Volvox and Fucus show oogamy

ii) Agar is commercially obtained from Gelidium and Gracillaria

iii) Gametophyte is parasite on sporophyte in Sphagnum

iv) Funaria is monoecious and Marchantia is dioecious

v) Source of SCP are Spirullina and Chlorella

1) 4

2) 3

3) 5

4) 2

Question 68 of 180

69. Which of the following is a heterosporus fern

1) Salvinia

2) Selaginella

3) Dryopteris

4) Lycopodium

Question 69 of 180

70. Consider the following statements and select the number of correct statements

1. Replication of DNA is carried out by semi-conservative method in prokaryotes only

2. Hershey and chase conducted transformation experiments to confirm the genetic nature of DNA

3. Three types of RNA polymerases or formed in the
nucleus of eukaryotes

4. After transcription also gene regulation is possible in eukaryotes

1) One

2) Four

3) Three

4) Two

Question 70 of 180

71. 1/4 TT : 1/2 Tt : 1/4 tt is the binomial expansion of

1) [(1/2)T + (1/2)t]²

2) [(1/4)T + (1/4)t]²

3) [(1/4)T + (1/2)t]²

4) [(1/2)T + (1/4)t]²

Question 71 of 180

72. Read carefully the table and fill up the blanks;

A,B,C and D in the above table refer to

1) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Starch and Laminarin; C-Cellulose; D-2-10 equal apical

2) A-chlorophyll-a and c; B-Mannitol and starch; C-Cellulose & algin, D-2-8 equal lateral

3) A-chlorophyll-a and b; B-Floridean starch; C-Cellulose & algin; D-Not present

4) A-chlorophyll-a and d; B-Mannitol and floridean; C-Cellulose; starch; D-Not present

Question 72 of 180

73. The assemblage of all the population of different species that function as an integrated unit through coevolved metabolic transformation in a specific area is called

1) biome

2) biotic community

3) population

4) ecosystem

Question 73 of 180

74. A,B,C and D lies on same chromosome with given distances between them, as

AD=60 morgan, AB-38 morgan, DB=22 morgan and

AC=18 morgan. Find the sequence of four genes on the chromosome

1) A,C,B and D

2) C,A,B and D

3) D,B,A and C

4) any of these

Question 74 of 180

75. How many plants among the following have opposite phyllotaxy. China rose, Sun flower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium?

1) Two

2) Three

3) Four

4) Five

Question 75 of 180

76. Pioneers of xerarch succession are

1) Vascular archegoniates

2) Archegoniate spermatophytes

3) Non- archegoniate spermatophytes

4) Composite plants having thalloid body with light harvesting pigments and thalloid bodywith chitinous cellwalls

Question 76 of 180

77. Go through the diagram given below and indentify the option having correct set of answers

1) A – Long shoot, B- Dwarf shoot, C- Seeds of Ginko plant

2) A – Long shoot, B- Dwarf shoot, C- Seeds of Sequoia plant

3) A – Dwarf shoot, B- Long shoot, C- Seeds of Ginko plant

4) A – Dwarf shoot, B- Long shoot, C- Seeds of Pinus plant

Question 77 of 180

78. In dicot roots, the pericycle gives rise to

1) Lateral roots and a part of vascular cambium

2) Cortex and pith

3) Xylem and Phloem

4) Epidermis and vascular bundles

Question 78 of 180

79. Eight bacteria kept in cup divide repeatedly and produce 64 bacteria in 2 hours. Find the time consumed in binary fission.

1) 15 minutes

2) 20 minutes

3) 40 minutes

4) 30 minutes

Question 79 of 180

80. Colchicine is an alkaloid used to double the number of chromosomes (Polyplody). It is obtained from

1) Rhizome of colchicum autumnale

2) Corms of C. autumnale

3) Bulbs of C. autumnale

4) Root tubers of C. autumnale

Question 80 of 180

81. Study the following diagrams and identify the option containing correct set answers

1) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Cladophora

2) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Fucus

3) A- Female gamete, B-Male gamete of Homo sapiens

4) A- Male gamete, B-Female gamete of Fucus

Question 81 of 180

82. Choose correct option for A,B,C and D of a dicot embryo

1) A-Hypocotyl; B-Cotyledons; C-Root cap; D-Radicle

2) A- Cotyledons; B- Hypocotyl; C- Root cap; D-Radicle

3) A- Cotyledons ;B- Hypocotyl;C- Radicle ;D- Root cap

4) A- Cotyledons; B- Radicle; C- Hypocotyl; D- Root cap

Question 82 of 180

83. Which of the following transforms more amount of radiant energy into chemical energy

1) P700 chl a

2) P680 chl a

3) Lycopene

4) Phycoerythrin

Question 83 of 180

84. Find the correct match
I) Aspergillus niger — fungus — citric acid
II) Streptococcus — bacterium — streptokinase
III) Trichoderma polysporum — fungus — cyclosporin A
IV) Monascus purpureus — yeast — statins
The correct answer is

1) I, II, IV only

2) I, II, III only

3) II, III, IV only

4) I, II, III, IV

Question 84 of 180

85. Read the following character given with respect to short distance transport and identify correct combination
Property Simple diffusion Facilitated diffusion Activetransport
I) Requires special Yes No Yes
membrane proteins
II) Requires ATP energy No No Yes
III) Highly selective Yes Yes No
IV) Uphill transport No No Yes

1) I and II

2) II and III

3) II and IV

4) III and IV

Question 85 of 180

86. A leafy vegetable ‘bathua’ produced by IARI is rich in

1) Vitamin A, proteins, calcium

2) Calcium, iron and vitamin C

3) Vitamin D, lysine and tryptophan

4) Iron, vitamin B and carotene

Question 86 of 180

87. Meiosis involves

1. One nuclear, one chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

2. Two nuclear, one chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, one cycle of DNA replication

3. One nuclear, two chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

4. Two nuclear, two chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, two cycles of DNA replication

Question 87 of 180

88. Identify the set of plants without archegonia

1) Chara, Cladophora, Capsicum and Colchicum

2) Marchantia, Marselia, Cycas and Pinus

3) Riccia, Pteris, Polytrichum, Cycas

4) Sphagnum, Adiantum, Salvinia, Ginkgo

Question 88 of 180

89. Root nodules (tubercles) are found on

1) primary root only

2) branchlets only

3) secondary roots only

4) primary and secondary roots

Question 89 of 180

90. After initial growth maize stem elongates by the activity of

1) Intercalary meristem

2) Intrafascicular cambium

3) Interfascicular cambium

4) Secondary cortical cambium

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. All of the following are functions of catecholamines, except

1) Pupilary dilation

2) Piloerection

3) Tachycardia

4) Lipogenesis

Question 91 of 180

92. ‘Penicillin rich medium proves detrimental to bacteria but not beneficial to Penicillium which releases it’. This association can be symbolized as

1) + +

2) - 0

3) - -

4) + 0

Question 92 of 180

93. Given below are four statements A-D w.r.t. mechanism of muscle contraction. Choose from the option stating them as true (T) and false (F)

A. The action potential in the sarcolemma is generated by release of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm

B. The globular head of meromyosin possesses ATPase enzyme activity which causes hydrolysis of ATP and the energy derived make myosin head bind to exposed active sites on actin.

C. Cross bridge formation is followed by pulling the attached myosin filaments towards the centre of ‘I’ band.

D. The breaking of cross bridge requires binding of new ATP at the myosin head.

A B C D

1) T T F T

2) F T F F

3) F T F T

4) T F F T

Question 93 of 180

94. Bone can be distinguished from cartilage with

1) The haversian system

2) High vascular nature

3) Calcified matrix

4) All the above

Question 94 of 180

95. Human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle they are

1) Snail and Frog

2) Snake and Fish

3) Snail and Fish

4) Snake and Frog

Question 95 of 180

96. Arrange the following habitats related to Bio diversity conservation in India in descending order

M)Biosphere reserves N)National Parks

O) Bio diversity hot spots P) Sanctuaries

1 )M-P-O-N

2) O-M-N-P

3) P-N-M-O

4) M-N-O-P

Question 96 of 180

97. Making two varieties of a cattle breed like Red Dane which have no common ancestors on either sides of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations is an example for

1) inbreeding

2) cross breeding

3) out crossing

4) interspecific hybridization

Question 97 of 180

98. Which of the following statements are correct related to human

A. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase.

B. Lipases are absent in secretion of gastric glands

C. Bile helps in emulsification of fats and also activates lipases.

D. Nucleases in the succus entericus acts on nucleic acids to form nucleotides and nucleosides

1) A, B, C

2) A, C

3) C, D

4) A, C, D

Question 98 of 180

99. Match the following and select the correct answer.
Column I Column II
A. Choanocytes 1. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts 2. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells 3. Porifera
D. Nephridia 4. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates 5. Annelid

1) a – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 5, E – 3

2) a – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 3

3) a – 5, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2, E – 4

4) a – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2

Question 99 of 180

100. Complete the following Analogy

Seminal Vesicle: Cockroach: : --------: human

1) Spermatheca

2) rete-testis

3) Epididymis

4) Oothecal chamber

Question 100 of 180

101. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 101 of 180

102. The enzyme which catalysis the following Biochemical reaction is released from which cells

Trypsinogen → Trypsin

1) Gastric Epithelium

2) Intestinal Mucosa (SI)

3) Hepatic lobules

4) Serous cells of Parotid glands

Question 102 of 180

103. Find out the correct labelling of bones A, B, C and D in the given figure

1) A-Clavicle B-Humerus C-Ulna D-Radius

2) A-Clavicle B-Humerus C-Radius D-Ulna

3) A-Scapula B-Humerus C-Ulna D-Ulna

4) A-Clavicle B-Femur C-Radius D-Ulna

Question 103 of 180

104. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is

1) FSH, progesterone, oestrogen

2) oestrogen, FSH, progesterone

3) FSH, oestrogen, progesterone

4) progesterone, oestrogen, FSH

Question 104 of 180

105. How many of the given statements are wrong?

A. The rate of diffusion of gas at the respiratory membrane depends upon its solubility as well as on the thickness of membrane

B. The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference if partial pressure is much higher when compared to that of O2

C. Oxygen can bind with haemoglobin in an irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin

D. The factors responsible for formation of oxyhaemoglobin include high pO2, low pCO2, high H+ concentration and low temperature.

1) One

2) Two

2) Three

4) Four

Question 105 of 180

106. Read the following (A-D)

A) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in mouth.

B) Chylomicrons are protein coated fat globules transported from intestine into circulatory fluid with all formed elements.

C) In stomach,oxynctic cells secrete proenzyme pepsinogen

D) Unlike marasmus, some fat is still left under skin in kwashiorkor

How many of the above statements are correct

1) Four

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

Question 106 of 180

107. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

1) The population of its predators increases enormously

2) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect

3) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.

4) Its population growth curve is of J-type

Question 107 of 180

108. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

1) lower levels of adrenalin/noradrenalin in its blood

2) higher levels of thyroxin

3) higher levels of cortisone

4) lower levels of blood testosterone

Question 108 of 180

109. Hyperdactyly (the possession of more than 12 fingers) is determined by the dominant allele (H) and normal condition by recessive allele (h).

The diagram shown a family tree in which some members of the family are hyperdactylus
Find out the genotype of A, B and C

1) A-Hh, B-Hh, C-hh

2) A-HH, B-Hh, C-hh

3) A-Hh, B-HH, C-hh

4) A-HH, B-HH, C-hh

Question 109 of 180

110. Which is correctly labeled with respect to the given diagram?

1) B : Logistic curve

2) C: Carrying capacity

3) C: Exponential curve

4) A : Carrying capacity

Question 110 of 180

111. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart are partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

1) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.

2) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.

3) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.

4) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.

Question 111 of 180

112. Choose the combination of conditions in a tissue that would influence the most rapid dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 112 of 180

113. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, select the option that correctly fills the blanks A,B and C

A B C

(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin

(2) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone

(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin

(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin

Question 113 of 180

114. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 114 of 180

115. According to 2001 census report, the population growth rate of India was

1) 17/1000/year

2) 25/1000/year

3) 33/1000/year

4) 8/1000/year

Question 115 of 180

116. According to Forestry Commission Report 1997 the total forest cover of India:

1) 11%

2) 19.5%

3) 17%

4) 18.7%

Question 116 of 180

117. Satellite DNA is useful tool in

1) organ transplantation

2) sex determination

3) forensic science

4) genetic engineering

Question 117 of 180

118. A 26 years old female has 2 offsprings(NOTE:not twins). If menses start at the age of 12 years then the number of ova formed are

1) 270

2) 2

3) 288

4) 8

Question 118 of 180

119. When Glomerular filtrate is passing through PCT which of the following Biomolecule’s selective reabsorption is 100% into PTC

B1)Creatinine B2) Glucose

B3) Amino Acids B4) Potassium

1)B2-B3

2)B1

3) B2-B3-B1

4) All except B2

Question 119 of 180

120. The four structure listed are part of the human excretory system.
I. Bladder II. Kidney III. Ureter IV. Urethra
In which order does a molecule of urea pass through these structures?

1) 1-I,1-II, 1-III, 1-IV

2) 2-I, 2-IV, 2-III, 2-II,

3) 3-II, 3-I, 3-III, 3-IV,

4) 4-II, 4-III, 4-I, 4-IV,

Question 120 of 180

121. Which of the following statements about blood transfusion is correct

1) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-B.

2) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B and receive from group-AB

3) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-O and receive from group-B

4) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-AB

Question 121 of 180

122. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
1) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
2) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
3) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
4) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 122 of 180

123. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?
Examples Type of immunity
1) Polymorphonuclear

leucocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers
2) anti-tetanus and anti-snake

bite injections Active immunity
3) Saliva in mouth and

tears in eyes Physical barriers
4) mucous coating of epithelium lining Physiological barriers
the urinogenital tract and the HCl in stomach

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

Question 123 of 180

124. The correct match for structures of cockroach is
Column-I Column-II
A. Ommatidia I. Articulates with thorax
B. Trochanter II. For vision
C. Coxa III. Forming exoskeleton
D. Sclerites IV. Fused with large and stout femur

1) A-II B-IV C-I D-III

2) B-II D-IV A-I C-III

3) C-II D-IV B-I A-III

4) D-II A-IV C-I B-III

Question 124 of 180

125. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?

1) Ventral heart→Scorpion

2) Post-anal tail→Octopus

3) Ventral central nervous system→Leech

4) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo→Chamaeleon

Question 125 of 180

126. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

1) A-1000, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

2) A-1400, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

3) A-1000, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

4) A-1400, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

Question 126 of 180

127. Find the incorrect match

1) Colostrum – IgA antibodies

2) Recombinant DNA – Hepatitis Bvaccine technology produced fromyeast

3) Allergy – Release of chemicals likehistamine and serotonin from themast cells

4) Autoimmune – Adrenaline disease

Question 127 of 180

128. The diagram shows an antibody molecule. Identify A to F.

1) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

2) A-Antigen binding site; B-Constant region (of L-Chain); C-Variable region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain(L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Disulfide (bond)

3) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Heavy polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Light polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

4) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region (of L-Chain); C-Constant region (of L-Chain); D-Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F-Hydrogen (bond)

Question 128 of 180

129. In a population of 60,000 individuals if the frequency of dominant allele is 60%. Then extrapolate the % of Dominant individuals

1) 16%

2) 84%

3) 36%

4) 48%

Question 129 of 180

130. Select the correct statement from the following

1) Mutations are random and directional

2) Darwinian variations are small and directionless

3) Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution

4) Darwin believed that it is mutation which causes evolution

Question 130 of 180

131. Find out the correctly matching set

1) Gamitocytes – Infective stages of plasmodium to man

2) IgE anti body – Rich in colostrums

3) Metagenesis – Malignant tumor

4) SCID – Somatic line gene therapy

Question 131 of 180

132. The area where wild populations, traditional life styles and genetic resources are protected is

1) Core zone

2) Buffer zone

3) Biosphere reserve

4) Manipulation zone

Question 132 of 180

133. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

1) Predation on one another

2) Mutualism

3) Intra-specific competition

4) Inter-specific competition

Question 133 of 180

134. Select the synovial joint which is exclusive to Axial skeleton

1) Tibiofemoral joint

2) Atlanto-Axial joint

3) Inter tarsal joint

4) Humero scapular joint

Question 134 of 180

135. Which of the following is correct match w.r.t. human ancestor, its cranial capacity and certain feature?

1) Australopithecus 500 CC: Hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit

2) Homo habilis 650-800 CC: First human like being the hominid. They probably ate meat

3) Homo erectus 900 CC: Probably did not ate meat

4) More than one option is correct

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. The correct order of E⁰_M⁺²_/Mvalues with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr,Mn,Fe and Co is

1) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co

2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co

3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co

4) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co

Question 136 of 180

137. Select species which is planar at nitrogen

1) (CH3)3N

2) (SiH3)3N

3) XeF2

4) SF₄

Question 137 of 180

138. Find correct statement

1) KMnO₄ is coloured due to d-d transition

2) K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is low spin complex

3) Zn and Cd are transition metal

4) All lanthanoids are radioactive

Question 138 of 180

139. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption.

Question 139 of 180

140.

Question 140 of 180

141. 20g of naphthoic acid (C₁₁H₈O₂) is dissolved in 50g of benzene, then freezing point depression of 2K is observed for solution. The vant hoff factor will be ( K_f for benzene=1.72 Kg Mol^-1)

1) 0.75

2) 2

3) 0.5

4) 3

Question 141 of 180

142. Which of the following compound react faster through SN²mechanism

1) CH3- CH2Br

2) CH3- O - CH₂Br

3) C₆H5- CO - CH2Br

4) CH₃ - C (CH₃ )2- CH2Br

Question 142 of 180

143. Which of the following is incorrect for the indicated property

1) Beo < Mgo (Basic strength)

2) SO2> SeO2> TeO2 (Acidic strength)

3) Nacl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl (Melting point)

4) BaSO4> SrSO4> CaSO4>MgSO4> BeSO4 (Solubility)

Question 143 of 180

144. Which of the following is used as “morning after pill”?

1) Ethynyl estradiol

2) Mifepristone

3) Norethindrone

4) Promethazine

Question 144 of 180

145. The correct statement among the following is:
i) NaBH₄produce BH₆on reaction with I₂

ii) Reaction between B₂H₆and NMe₃is an acid base reaction

iii) BH₆is produced on industrial scale by reaction with BF₃, NaH

iv) Boranes on hydrolysis produce
B₂H₆and H₂gas

1) All are correct

2) Only i & ii are correct

3) Only iv is correct

4) Only i, ii, iii are correct

Question 145 of 180

146. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C₆H₅CO NH₂ II) Pyridine
III) C₆H₅-N=N-C₆H₅

1) I,III

2) II,III

3) III,IV

4) I,II

Question 146 of 180

147. An acid-base indicator has a In K_ln of 3 ×10^-5. The acid form of indicator is red and the basic form is blue.
Then

1) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 50%blue.

2) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75%red.

3) pH is 5.00 when indicator is 75%red

4) pH is 4.05 when indicator is 75%blue.

Question 147 of 180

148. Which property is common in diamond and graphite

1) Electrical conductivity

2) Crystal structure

3) Relative atomic mass

4) Density

Question 148 of 180

149. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form ‘A’ . ‘A’ is dissolved in water to give ‘Y’. The basicity of ‘Y’ is

1) 1

2) 2

3) 0

4) 3

Question 149 of 180

150. Assertion: Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
Reason: ΔH_f⁰ of graphite is taken as zero

1) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2) Both assertion and reason are correct reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion.

3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.

4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

Question 150 of 180

151. The standard reduction potential for Cu⁺²/ Cu  is +0.34V.Calculate the reduction potential at pH=14
for the above couple. ^K_s_pof Cu(OH)₂= 1.0×10^-19

1) +0.2205V

2) +0.386V

3) -0.2205V

4) -0.386V

Question 151 of 180

152. What would be the product formed when 1-bromo-3 chloro cyclo butane reacts with two equivalents of metallic sodium in ether

Question 152 of 180

153. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

1) Teflon –Additional polymer

2) Gun cotton –synthetic polymer

3) Protein – natural polymer

4) Nylon-6, 6 – condensation polymer

Question 153 of 180

154. The half life of a reaction is 46 minutes when the initial concentration of the reactant is 4 mol/L and 92 minutes when the initial concentration is 0.2mol/L. The order of the reaction is

1) Zero

2) 0.5

3) 2

4) 1

Question 154 of 180

155. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except

1) sodium

2) NaOH / I₂

3) Neutral FeCl3

4) Br₂ / H₂O

Question 155 of 180

156.

Number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain

1) 7

2) 4

3)6

4)5

Question 156 of 180

157. In Kjeldahl ‘s method, the nitrogen gas evolved from 1.325 g sample of a fertilizer is passed into 50.0 mL of 0.2030 N H₂SO₄mL of 0.1980 N NaOH are required for the titration of unused acid. The percentage of nitrogen in fertilizer is

1) 10.86%

2) 21.72 %

3) 5.43 %

4) 2.75 %

Question 157 of 180

158. If lone pair of electron occupy axial position then, incorrect about is :

1) It is a planar molecule

2) It has T-shape

3) All bond lengths are equal

4) repulsion will be minimum

Question 158 of 180

159.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

1) formation of Y is a syn addition

2)during the formation of X, the intermediate is a carbocation

3) X is a positional isomer of Y

4) formation of Y follows markonikov's rule

Question 159 of 180

160. Which one of the following oxyacids of chlorine is the least
oxidising in nature

1) HOCl

2) HClO₂

3) HClO₄

4) HClO₃

Question 160 of 180

161. A possitive carbylamine test is given by

1) N,N – dimethyl aniline

2) Isopropyl amine

3) diethyl amine

4) trimethyl amine

Question 161 of 180

162. Which of the following vitamin contains ionone ring and
hydrocarbon chain.

1) Calciferol

2) Thiamin

3) Retinol

4) Riboflavin

Question 162 of 180

163. The conductivity of saturated solution of BaSO₄is 3.06×10^-6 mho cm^-1and its equivalent conductance is 1.53 mho cm^-2 eq^-1. Then K_sp for BaSO₄ will be

1) 4×10^-12M

2) 1×10⁶M

3) 4×10⁶M²

4) 1×10^-6M²

Question 163 of 180

164. A solution ‘X’ contains 30 mole percent of A and is in equilibrium with its vapour that contains 40 mole percent of ‘B’. The ratio of vapor pressure of pure A and B will be:

1) 2 : 1

2) 7 : 2

3) 3 : 4

4) 4 : 3

Question 164 of 180

165. The correct statement/s about H₂ S₂ O₇ is/are

1) It is called peroxydisulphuric acid

2) It is contains one O-O bond in its molecule

3) It is obtained by dissolution of SO3 in conc. H₂ SO₄

4) Both (2) & (3)

Question 165 of 180

166. The most volatile alkane is

1) n – pentane

2) isopentane

3) neopentane

4) n–hexane

Question 166 of 180

167. Most basic and acidic oxides are formed by the following 3rd period elements.

1) Cs, Cl

2) Na, Cl

3) Na, F

4) Cs, S

Question 167 of 180

168. Benzene reacts with cholorine in the presence of U.V. light and gives

1) Chloro Benzene

2) 1, 2-dichloro Benzene

3) Hexachloro cyclohexane

4) Benzyl chloride

Question 168 of 180

169. 75% completion of a first order reaction takes 2.38 hours. How much time will it take for 99.9% completion?

1) 1.39 h

2) 7.14h

3) 11.9 h

4) 15.85 h

Question 169 of 180

170. At Boyles temperature, compressibility factor Z for a real gas is

1) Z = 1

2) Z = 0

3) Z > 1

4) Z >> 1

Question 170 of 180

171. Which of the following amines form N-nitroso derivative when treated with NaNO₂and HCl

1) CH3NH2

2) C₆H₅ - NH₂

3) C₆H₅ - NH - R

Question 171 of 180

172. Find the correct order of acidity of the following compounds

1) III> II> I> IV

2) III> I> II> IV

3)III> II> IV> I

4) IV> I> II> III

Question 172 of 180

173. The weight of H₂O₂present in 80 ml of 10V H₂O₂ solution is

1) 3.2 gr

2) 4.2 gr

3) 2.4 gr

4) 3.6 gr

Question 173 of 180

174. Which of the following C – H bond has the least bond dissociation energy

Question 174 of 180

175. The hybridisation of Beryllium in Beryllate ion formed when Beryllium hydroxide dissolves in excess of alkali?

1) sp

2) sp_²

3) sp³

4) dsp²

Question 175 of 180

176. The plots of 1/ X_AVs 1/Y_A( where X_A and Y_Aare the mole fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercepts respectively

Question 176 of 180

177. DNA & RNA are chiral molecules due to the presence of

1) Chiral bases

2) Phosphate ester unit

3) D- sugar component

4) L – sugar component

Question 177 of 180

178. For the given complex ,[CoCl₂(en)(NH₃)]⁺the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

1) 2,2 and 4

2) 2,0 and 2

3) 2,2 and 3

4) 0,2 and 2

Question 178 of 180

179. In Na₂O having antifluorite structure

1) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupy all the octahedral voids.

2) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupyall the eight tetrahedral voids

3) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangement and O2-
occupy all tetrahedral voids.

4) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangementand O2- occupy all octahedral voids

Question 179 of 180

180. A and B are compounds of sodium. ‘A’ is thermally stable. On passing CO₂through aq. solution
‘A’, ‘B’ is formed. ‘B’ on heating gives ‘A’. Phenolpthalein is added to aqueous solutions of A, B.
The colours are

1) colourless, colourless

2) pink, pink

3) colourless, pink

4) pink, colourless

Question 180 of 180

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