Uncategorized – Page 148

NEET examination is one of the toughest exams in the country. NEET is aimed at selecting candidates for medical courses across the country. The exam consists of 180 questions for 720 marks. Each question carries 4 marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark. Duration of the exam is 180 minutes.

Physics

Botany

Zoology

Chemistry

Physics

1. A projectile is thrown in the direction making an angle θ with the horizontal. The projectile attains maximum height for θ equal to...

A. 0

B. π/4

C. π/2

D. π

Question 1 of 180

2. A certain person's heart beats 1.2 times per second and pumps 1.0 x10^-4m³ of blood per beat against an average pressure of 14 kPa. The power output of the heart is...

A. 1.2 W

B. 1.4 W

C. 1.7 W

D. 12 W

Question 2 of 180

3. A cart of mass ‘M’ is tied by one end of a massless rope of length ‘10m’. The other end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass ‘M’. The entire system is on a smooth horizontal surface. The man is at ‘x=o’ and the cart at ‘x=10m’ of the man pulls the cart by the rope , the man and the cart will meet at the point

1) X=0

2) x= 5 m

3) x = 10m

4) x=1.5m

Question 3 of 180

4. The image a camera forms on the film is...

A. always real

B. always virtual

C. always erect

D. sometimes inverted

Question 4 of 180

5. The radius of the planet is ‘R’ A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius ‘r’ with an angular velocity ‘ω’. The acceleration due to the gravity onthe planet surface is

1) r³ω/R

2) r³ω³/R

3) r³ω²/R

4) r³ω²/R²

Question 5 of 180

6. Magnetic moment and angular moment of revolving electron in a hydrogen atom ‘M’ and ‘L’ respectively then

1) (M/L) = (e/2m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

2) (M/L) = (e/2m);M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

3) (M/L) = (2e/m); M and ‘L’ are in the same direction

4) (M/L) = (4e/m);M is opposite in direction to ‘L’

Question 6 of 180

7. The horizontal component of a force of 10 N inclined at 30° to the vertical is...

A. 5 N

B. 5√ 3 N

C. 3 N

D. 10/√ 3 N

Question 7 of 180

8. Fermi is a unit of...

A. length

B. mass

C. time

D. electric flux

Question 8 of 180

9. An object moving with a speed of 6.25 m/sec, is decelerated at a rate given by (dy/dt) = -2.5√v . Where ‘v’ is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object to come to rest, would be

1) 1 sec

2) 2 sec

3) 4 sec

4) 8 sec

Question 9 of 180

10. A variable frequency A.C. source is connected to a capacitor. How will the displacement current change with decrease in frequency?

1) Increases

2) Decreases

3) Remains same

4) Becomes zero

Question 10 of 180

11. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s² . Compared with her mass and weight on the earth, an astronaut on Mars has...

A. less mass and less weight

B. more mass and more weight

C. the same mass and less weight

D. the same mass and more weight

Question 11 of 180

12. A thin circular loop of radius ‘R’ rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ‘ ’. A small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω ≤ √(g/R) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = √(2g/R) (Neglect the friction)

1) 300

2) 600

3) 450

4) 1200

Question 12 of 180

13. Of the following the one that is a vector is...

A. electric charge

B. electric field

C. electric energy

D. potential difference

Question 13 of 180

14. A cable stretches by amount 'a' under a certain load. If it is replaced by a cable of the same material but half as long and half the diameter, the same load will stretch it by...

A. a/4

B. a/2

C. a

D. 2a

Question 14 of 180

15. A rocket of initial mass 'm₀' moving with velocity ‘v’ discharges a jet of gases of mean density ‘ρ’ and effective area ‘A’ the minimum value of ‘v’ of fuel gas, which enables the rocket to rise vertically above is nearly

1) √(ρg)/(m₀A)

2) √(ρgA)/m₀

3) √(m₀g)/(ρA)

4) √(2m₀gA)/ρ

Question 15 of 180

16. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetization of 8 A/m when placed in an external magnetic field of 0.6 T at a temperature of 4 K. When the same sample is placed in an external magnetic field of 0.2 T at a temperature of 16 K, the magnetization will be

1) 32/3 A/m

2) 2/3 A/m

3) 6 A/m

4) 2.4 A/m

Question 16 of 180

17. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through origin. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process will be

1) 4R

2) 2.5R

3) 3R

4)4R/3

Question 17 of 180

18. The value of the stopping potential depends on...

A. the intensity of light

B. the frequency of light

C. the metal surface area

D. the charge on the electron

Question 18 of 180

19. Two bodies ‘A and B’ of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid partition. Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. A force of 200N is applied horizontally at ‘A’ action reaction force between A and B is (g = 10 m/sec²)

1) 170 N

2) 200 N

3) 190 N

4) 210 N

Question 19 of 180

20. Mark out the incorrect statement regarding transverse standing waves on a string

1) Within a loop, the total energy of the wave remains constant.

2) When the particles are at the maximum displacements, the entire energy within the loopappears as potential energy

3) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy is equally divided aspotential energy and kinetic energy.

4) When the particles are crossing the mean position, the entire energy appears as kineticenergy

Question 20 of 180

21. A source and Listner both moving towards each other each with speed .frequency of the note emitted by the source is ‘600Hz’ Apparent wave length of sound wave received by the observer is ( V = 330 m/ sec)

1) 0.5m

2) 0.45m

3)0.1m

4) 0.6m

Question 21 of 180

22. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 600, the angle of refraction ‘A’, angle of deviation ‘δ ’ and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is

1) 1.73

2) 1.15

3) 1.5

4) 1.33

Question 22 of 180

23. Two identical containers each of volume V joined by a normal pipe contains gas at a
temperature T. If one of the containers is now maintained at the same temperature T while the other is maintained at 2T, the number of moles of gas in the container having temperature 2T will be

1) PV/2RT

2) PV/RT

3) 2PV/3RT

4) PV/3RT

Question 23 of 180

24. The maximum value of ‘F’ for which both the blocks move together is

1) 95N

2) 100 N

3) 105 N

4) 110 N

Question 24 of 180

25. Calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to raise temperature of 1g of water by 1⁰C and it is defined under which of the following conditions

1) From 14.50C to 15.50C at 760 mm of Hg

2) From 98.50C to 99.50C at 760 mm of Hg

3) From 13.50C to 14.50C at 76 mm of Hg

4) From 3.50C to 4.50C at 76 mm of Hg

Question 25 of 180

26. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is (C is the Velocity of light )

1) E/C

2) 2E/C

3) EC

4) E/C²

Question 26 of 180

27. The aperture of the objective lens of a telescope is made large so as to

1) Increase the magnifying power of the telescope

2) Increase the resolving power of the telescope

3) Focus on distant objects

4) Ease of Manufacture

Question 27 of 180

28. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 'λ₁'and 'λ₂' respectively are placed at a distance ‘R’. The force per unit length on either wire will be (k = (1/4πε₀))

1) K [2λ₁λ₂/R²]

2) K [2λ₁λ₂/R]

3) K[λ₁λ₂/R²]

4) K[λ₁λ₂/R]

Question 28 of 180

29. A wave represented by the given equation y = a cos(kx - ωt) is superposed with another wave to form a stationary wave such that the point x=0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is

1) y = a sin(kx + ωt)

2) y = -a cos(kx + ωt)

3) y = -a cos(kx - ωt)

4) y = -a sin(kx - ωt)

Question 29 of 180

30. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates

1) OR

2) NAND

3)AND

4) NOR

Question 30 of 180

31. Two equal masses ‘A and B’ moving along the same straight line with velocities 3i m/sec and '-5i m/sec respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively

1) 4i m/sec for both

2) -3i m/sec and 5i m/sec

3) -4i m/sec and 4i m/sec

4) -5i m/sec and 3i m/sec

Question 31 of 180

32. The de-Broglie wave length of an electron in first Bohr orbit is

1) Equal to one fourth the circumference of the first orbit

2) Equal to half the circumference of the first orbit

3) Equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit

4) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit

Question 32 of 180

33. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1:4 produce an interference pattern the fringe visibility will be

1) 1

2) 0.8

3)0.4

4) 0.6

Question 33 of 180

34. The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

1) Temperature on ideal gas scale

2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale

3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale

4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

Question 34 of 180

35. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry and the solid sphere about its diameter axis. After ‘t’ sec their angular velocities are . Choose the correct answer (initial angular speed of each is 'ω₀'

1) ω₁ = ω₂

2) ω₁ < ω₂

3) ω₁ > ω₂

4) Both 2 & 3

Question 35 of 180

36. To keep a vehicle moving at the speed v requires a force F. The power needed is...

A. F.v

B. (1/2)F.v²

C. F/v

D. F/v²

Question 36 of 180

37. The energy stored in the electric field produced by a metal sphere is ‘4.5 joule’. The charge on the sphere is '4μc' its radius will be [(1/4πε₀)=9×10⁹ N - m²c^-2]

1) 4mm

2) 8 mm

3) 2mm

4) 16 mm

Question 37 of 180

38. If for the planets in solar system, r is the radius of the orbit and T is the periodic time, then the ratio r³ /T² is...

A. 1

B. same for all planets

C. more for farther planets

D. less for farther planets

Question 38 of 180

39. The distance between a node and the immediate next antinode is...

A. λ

B. λ/2

C. λ/3

D. λ/4

Question 39 of 180

40. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index

1) Lies between √2 and 1

2) Lies between 2and √2

3) Is less than 1

4) Is grater 2

Question 40 of 180

41. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents ‘SHM’

a) Y = sinωt - cosωt

b) Y = Sin³ ωt

c) Y = 5 cos[(3π/4) - 3ωt]

d) Y = 1 + ωt + ω²t²

1) only ‘a’ and ‘b’

2) only ‘a’

3) only ‘a’ and ‘d’

4) only ‘a’ and ‘c’

Question 41 of 180

42. The only atom which has no neutron in the nucleus is...

A. hydrogen

B. helium

C. oxygen

D. polonium

Question 42 of 180

43. Two satellites have periods P₁and P₂, respectively. Their heights above the surface of the earth are h₁ and h_2,respectively. If h₁ > h₂, then...

A. P₁ > P₂

B. P₁ = P₂

C. P₁< P₂

D. P₁² > P₂ ²

Question 43 of 180

44. The wavelength of light plays no role in...

A. interference

B. diffraction

C. resolving power

D. polarization

Question 44 of 180

45. A sonometer wire resonate with a given tuning fork forming standing wave with five antinode between the two bridges when a mass of 9kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of M is

1) 25 kg

2) 5kg

3) 12.5kg

4) (1/25) kg

Question 45 of 180

Botany

46. The following set of cell organs are included in endomembrane system

1) Lysosomes, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

2) Dictyosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

3) Glyoxysome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

4) ER, Golgicomplex, Suicidal bags, Vacuoles

Question 46 of 180

47. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

1) Breast cancer

2) ADA deficiency

3) Meningitis

4) Chicken Pox

Question 47 of 180

48. Find the correct match w.r.t annual rings

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 48 of 180

49. Regarding ATP synthesis in aerobic respiration select the correct match

A B C D

1) III IV I V

2) IV III II I

3) IV III V I

4) III I IV V

Question 49 of 180

50. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option

Column – I Column - II

Ascomycetes i) Ustilago
Phycomycetes ii) Saccharomyces
Basidionycetes iii) trichoderma
Deuteromycetes iv) Albugo

1) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

3) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

4) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)

Question 50 of 180

51. Which of the following taxonomical aids are used in identification of both plants and animals?

1) Herbarium only

2) Keys & Herbarium only

3) Museums only

4) Keys & Museums

Question 51 of 180

52. Which of the following statements about classification is true?

i) Members of a family are less similar than members of an included genus

ii) An order has more members than the number of members in as included genus

iii) Families have more members than phyla

iv) Members of a family share a common ancestor in the more distance past than members of an included genus

v) The number of species in a taxon depends on their relative degree of similiarity

1) i, ii, iii, and iv

2) i, ii, iv and v

3) ii, iii and v

4) All of these

Question 52 of 180

53. Which inflorescences are of similar type?

1) Corymb and hypanthodium

2) Cyathium and cymose

3) Verticillaster and spike

4) None

Question 53 of 180

54. The ploidy levels of embryo, perisperm and endosperm in the seeds resulted by crossing 4n female and 6n male plants of piper nigrum, respectively, are

1) 5n, 4n, 7n

2) 7n, 5n, 4n

3) 4n, 5n, 7n

4) 5n, 7n, 4n

Question 54 of 180

55. If 24 molecules of erythrose-4- phosphate are formed in Calvin cycle. What is the number of CO2 molecules fixed?

1) 48

2) 72

3) 52

4) 36

Question 55 of 180

56. Wall less protistans among the following are

1) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella

2) Paramoecium & Amoeba

3) Nostoc & Anabaena

4) Diatoms & Dinoflagellates

Question 56 of 180

57. Which site of a tRNA molecule forms hydrogen bonds with particular codon of mRNA molecule?

1) DHU loop

2) Anticodon end

3) Accessory arm

4)3' end of the t-RNA molecule

Question 57 of 180

58. Who of the following scientists is not concerned with O2 release from water in photosynthesis?

1) Julius von Sachs

2) Van Neil

3) Robert Hill

4) T.W. Engelman

Question 58 of 180

59. A leafy vegetable ‘bathua’ produced by IARI is rich in

1) Vitamin A, proteins, calcium

2) Calcium, iron and vitamin C

3) Vitamin D, lysine and tryptophan

4) Iron, vitamin B and carotene

Question 59 of 180

60. Which of the following statement is wrong?

1) Uracil is a pyrimidine

2) Sucrose is a disaccharide

3) Cellulose is a homopolysaccharide

4) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid

Question 60 of 180

61. Which of the following kinds of plants fix carbon dioxide by Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM) pathway

1) Sorghum

2) Cactii

3) Grass

4) Chlorella

Question 61 of 180

62. Number of genotypes present in yellow round, yellow wrinkled, green round and green wrinkled phenotypes of 2F generation progeny of Mendel’s dihybrid cross respectively is

1) 1, 2, 2, 4

2) 4, 1, 2, 2

3) 2, 1, 2, 4

4) 4, 2, 2, 1

Question 62 of 180

63. Select the wrong match for microbial products

1) Monascus penpureus – Statins

2) Trichoderma polysporium – Cephalosporin A

3) Streptococcus – Streptokinase

4) Penicillum notatum – Penicillin

Question 63 of 180

64. Read the following character given with respect to short distance transport and identify correct combination
Property Simple diffusion Facilitated diffusion Activetransport
I) Requires special Yes No Yes
membrane proteins
II) Requires ATP energy No No Yes
III) Highly selective Yes Yes No
IV) Uphill transport No No Yes

1) I and II

2) II and III

3) II and IV

4) III and IV

Question 64 of 180

65. Colchicine is an alkaloid used to double the number of chromosomes (Polyplody). It is obtained from

1) Rhizome of colchicum autumnale

2) Corms of C. autumnale

3) Bulbs of C. autumnale

4) Root tubers of C. autumnale

Question 65 of 180

66. An abnormality in humans called ‘Sickle cell anemia’ is resulted due to point mutation leading to the change of

1) Glutamate in to valine

2) Valine into glutamate

3)Alamine into Senine

4) Glycine into valine

Question 66 of 180

67. Different types of plastids (chloroplast, chromoplast and leucoplast) are quite related as:

1) These all store lipids and starch

2) These are restricted to the green parts of a plant

3) These al perform almost same function

4) These are interconvertible depending upon the requirement of an organ

Question 67 of 180

68. Find out the correctly matched one

1) PCR method - Gene insertion into a desired host cell

2) Spooling-Separation of DNA fragments in electric field

3) Elusion - Insertion of desired gene into a vector

4) Biolistic method - DNA transfer method into host cells

Question 68 of 180

69. Go through the diagram given below and indentify the option having correct set of answers

1) A – Long shoot, B- Dwarf shoot, C- Seeds of Ginko plant

2) A – Long shoot, B- Dwarf shoot, C- Seeds of Sequoia plant

3) A – Dwarf shoot, B- Long shoot, C- Seeds of Ginko plant

4) A – Dwarf shoot, B- Long shoot, C- Seeds of Pinus plant

Question 69 of 180

70. Select the incorrect statements

(i) Cell organelle within cell organelle is plasmosome

(ii) Factory of protein factories is ergosome

(iii) Membraneless non-cell organelle is centrosome

(iv) nucleosomes are ribonucleoprotein bodies

(v) A eukaryotic cell in a eukaryotic cell is vegetative cell

1) ii, iii and iv only

2) i, iv and v only

3) iii, iv and v only

4) i, ii, iii, iv and v only

Question 70 of 180

71. Meiosis involves

1. One nuclear, one chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

2. Two nuclear, one chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, one cycle of DNA replication

3. One nuclear, two chromosomal and one cytoplasmic division, one cycle of DNA replication

4. Two nuclear, two chromosomal and two cytoplasmic divisions, two cycles of DNA replication

Question 71 of 180

72. Which of the following is less general in characters compared to family

1) Domain

2) Phylum

3) Cohort

4) Genus

Question 72 of 180

73. Processes which can never occur in the structure called “Cell brain” are

A. Polymerisation of ribonucleotides

B. Synthesis of ‘energy currency of cell’

C. Polymerisation of deoxyribonucleotides

D. Polymerisation of amino acids

1) A and B

2) C and D

3) A and C

4) B and D

Question 73 of 180

74. In dicotyledonous stem, which of the following is the sequence of tissues from inside to outside?

1) Pith, phloem, cambium protoxylem, metaxylem, pericycle, parenchyma, collenchyma, endodermis and epidermis

2) Pith, cambium, phloem, protoxylem, metaxylem, pericycle, endodermis, parenchyma, collenchyma and epidermis

3)Pith, phloem, protoxylem, metaxylem, cambium, pericycle, endodermis, parenchyma, collenchyma and epidermis

4) Pithm protoxylem, metaxylem, cambium, phloem, pericycle,endodermis, parenchyma, collenchyma and epidermis

Question 74 of 180

75. How many plants among the following have opposite phyllotaxy. China rose, Sun flower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium?

1) Two

2) Three

3) Four

4) Five

Question 75 of 180

76. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo

1) Independent sporophyte

2) Presence of archegonia

3) Well developed vascular tissues

4) Independent gametophyte

Question 76 of 180

77. Ψ_wand Ψ_pare zero respectively for

1) Pure water and Flaccid cell

2) Flaccid cell and Turgid cell

3) Pure water and Turgid cell

4) Flaccid cell and Pure water

Question 77 of 180

78. Which of the following is a heterosporus fern

1) Salvinia

2) Selaginella

3) Dryopteris

4) Lycopodium

Question 78 of 180

79. Culture of the following SCP organism does not require any organic nutrients in the nutrient medium

1) Spirulina

2) Methylophilus

3)Candida

4) Brevibacterium

Question 79 of 180

80. Match the following
Column-I (Tissues) Column-II (Product of)
1) Julius Von Sachs A) Polynucleotide Phosphorylase
2) Hershy and Chase B) Chromosome maps
3) A. Sturtevant C) Hydrophonics
4) Severo Ochoa enzyme D) Genetic nature of DNA

1) C-1,A-2,B-3,D-4

2) A-1,C-2,B-3,D-4

3) D-1,C-2,A-3,B-4

4) C-1,D-2,B-3,A-4

Question 80 of 180

81. Which is incorrect about coenzyme

1) Every enzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is a coenzyme

2) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is not a coenzyme

3) Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides and are composed of vitamins

4) Coenzymes are the active constituents of enzymes.

Question 81 of 180

82. Which of the following is true statement

1) Pribnow box lies in mRNA in upstream stream sequence.

2) In clover leaf model of tRNA, amino acid is attached to 5’ by ester bond, if it is a charged one

3) Translation is initiated by factor, formed of -chain, of RNA polymerase enzyme

4) Sn RNA, 5S RNA and tRNA are transcribed with the help of RNA polymerase lll in eukaryotes

Question 82 of 180

83. Inner most layer of the extrastelar ground tissue system of roots, is characterised by

1) Casparian bands

2) Starch grains

3) Complementary cells

4) Intercellular spaces

Question 83 of 180

84. Agar - agar, an inert polysaccharide is extracted from

1) Polysiphonia and Porphyra, members of red algae

2) Gracilaria and Gelidium members of brown algae

3) Ectocarpus and Laminaria, members of brown algae

4) Gracilaria and Gelidium, members of red algae

Question 84 of 180

85. Which one of the following statements regarding enzymes is wrong

1) Most enzymes are non-proteins but some are ribozymes

2) Enzymes require optimum temperature for maximum activity

3) Majority of the enzymes function well at neutral pH

4) Enzymes are active in minute concentration also

Question 85 of 180

86. Bicollateral vascularbundles are present in which part of the Solanaceae and Cucurbitaceae members

1) Root

2) Leaves

3) Stem

4) All the above

Question 86 of 180

87. Read the following and identify the correct statement

1) The price of earth’s fundamental ecosystem services is – US $18 trillion

2) Among the all ecosystem services soil formation alone accounts for about 50%.

3) Bees are alone responsible for 30-45% of food production in US by bringing cross pollination in crops

4) The lungs of the word are cows, buffaloes, goats and sheep

Question 87 of 180

88. The number of Phosphodiester bonds and ester bonds Present in 13.6 nm length DNA

1) 158 and 178

2) 80 and 160

3) 98 and 118

4) 78 and 158

Question 88 of 180

89. The needle like cladodes of Asparagus are metamorphosed stem for

1) reducing transpiration

2) increasing photosynthesis

3) protecting plant from browsing

4) none of the above

Question 89 of 180

90. Fuel of photosynthetic carbon oxidation, is

1) Glycerate

2) Glycolate

3) Glyceride

4) Glyoxylate

Question 90 of 180

Zoology

91. Which of the following structures are found in female cockroach ?

1) Caudal styles

2) Phallomeres

3) Spermathecae

4) Seminal vesicles

Question 91 of 180

92. Based on observations made during a sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S. Beagle, Charles Darwin concluded that

1) Evolution of life forms had occurred driven by use and disuse of organs

2) Allelic frequencies in a population are stable and is constant from generation to generation

3) Mutation causes evolution as these are random and directionless

4) Existing life forms share similarities to varying degrees not only among themselves but also with life forms that existed millions of years ago

Question 92 of 180

93. A tumour in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the hormones in that region. Which of the following you might expect to find in a patient with such a tumour?

1) Increased blood sodium levels

2) Increased blood glucose levels

3) Decreased blood calcium levels

4) Increased dehydration

Question 93 of 180

94. Bundle of His is a network of:

1) Muscle fibres distributedthroughout the heart walls

2) Muscle fibres found only in theventricle wall

3) Nerve fibres distributed inventricles

4) Nerve fibres found throughoutheart

Question 94 of 180

95. Find out the correctly matching set

1) Gamitocytes – Infective stages of plasmodium to man

2) IgE anti body – Rich in colostrums

3) Metagenesis – Malignant tumor

4) SCID – Somatic line gene therapy

Question 95 of 180

96. In kidneys, renal papillae are part of

1) renal columns

2) columns of Bertini

3) renal pelvis

4) medullary pyramids

Question 96 of 180

97. If the light source in front of an eye becomes bright suddenly

1) Pupil dilates

2) retinal blood supply is cut

3) vitreous humour becomes fluid

4) pupil will contract

Question 97 of 180

98. Observe the relaxed myocyte’s myofibril

Which of the following muscles have those traits?

a) Lateral rectus muscle

b) Iris muscles

c) Ciliary muscles

d) Sartorius muscle

1) a and c

2) b only

3) a, b and d

4)a and d

Question 98 of 180

99. Which of the following technique has been shown in the given diagram

1) Agarose gel electrophoresis in which smallest DNA fragment moves farther

2) Identification and elimination of non-transformants

3) Agarose gel electrophoresis in which DNA fragments resolve according to their size

4) More than one option is correct

Question 99 of 180

100. The following depiction is the karyotype of “Cinderalla of genetics”

The sex of the Hexapod should beThe sex of the Hexapod should be

1) Inter sex

2) Meta male

3) Female

4) Meta Female

Question 100 of 180

101. Two adaptive radiations are shown in the figure below. Animal ‘B’ acquires the same adaptations as the Animal ‘Q’. This type of evolution is called as

1) Convergent evolution

2) Divergent evolution

3) Both Convergent and divergent

4) Retrogressive evolution

Question 101 of 180

102. When Glomerular filtrate is passing through PCT which of the following Biomolecule’s selective reabsorption is 100% into PTC

B1)Creatinine B2) Glucose

B3) Amino Acids B4) Potassium

1)B2-B3

2)B1

3) B2-B3-B1

4) All except B2

Question 102 of 180

103. The state of heart when it does not pump blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body is

1) Heart attack

2) Angina pectoris

3) Cardiac arrest

4) Heart failure

Question 103 of 180

104. Consider the following statements
I) The fertile top soil is removed by human activities like over – cultivation, unrestricted grazing, deforestation and poor irrigation practices
II) Desertification has become a major problem due to increased urbanization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1) Only I

2) Only II

3) Both I and II

4) None of these

Question 104 of 180

105. Human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle they are

1) Snail and Frog

2) Snake and Fish

3) Snail and Fish

4) Snake and Frog

Question 105 of 180

106. The four structure listed are part of the human excretory system.
I. Bladder II. Kidney III. Ureter IV. Urethra
In which order does a molecule of urea pass through these structures?

1) 1-I,1-II, 1-III, 1-IV

2) 2-I, 2-IV, 2-III, 2-II,

3) 3-II, 3-I, 3-III, 3-IV,

4) 4-II, 4-III, 4-I, 4-IV,

Question 106 of 180

107. What is safe sex period regarding birth control?

1) A week before and a week after menses

2) A week before menses

3) A week after menses

4) None of these

Question 107 of 180

108. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

1) Calciferol – Pellagra

2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia

4) Cobalamin – Beriberi

Question 108 of 180

109. Among the following placental mammals who will be the appropriate counterpart for spotted cuscus?

1)Lemur

2)Tasmanian wolf

3) Numbat

4)Bobcat

Question 109 of 180

110. All of the following are functions of catecholamines, except

1) Pupilary dilation

2) Piloerection

3) Tachycardia

4) Lipogenesis

Question 110 of 180

111. Observe the following

The above device is used to

1) Reduce Particulate pollution

2) Remove SO2

3) Reduce automobile emissions

4) limit noise pollution

Question 111 of 180

112. How many of the following statements are wrong w.r.t. STDs?

A. AIDs is the most dangerous STD.

B. Hepatitis B, genital herpes and HIV infection are not curable

C. Ectopic pregnancy and cancer are not included under the complications of STDs

D. The incidence of STDs are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 yearsx

1) One

2) Two

3) Three

4) Four

Question 112 of 180

113. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A. Dodo I) Rauwolfia
B. Reserpine II) Mauritius
C. Nile perch in lake Victoria III) Habitat destruction
D. Main cause for biodiversity loss IV) Alien species

1) A-II B-I C-III D-IV

2) A-II B-I C-IV D-III

3) A-II B-IV C-III D-I

4) A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Question 113 of 180

114. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
A) Thomas Malthus I) Branching descent
B) Hugo de Vries II) Studies on populations
C) Charles Darwin III) Use disuse principle
D) Lamarck IV) Saltation

1) A-IV B-I C-III D-II

2) A-II B-IV C-I D-III

3) A-II B-IV C-III D-I

4) A-III B-II C-I D-IV

Question 114 of 180

115. Arrange the periods of palaeozoic era in ascending order in a geological time scale

1) Silurian – Devonian – Carboniferous - Permian

2) Devonian – Silurian – Carboniferous – Permian

3) Permian -Devonian– Silurian – Carboniferous

4) Silurian – Carboniferous – Permian – Devonian

Question 115 of 180

116. In a population of 60,000 individuals if the frequency of dominant allele is 60%. Then extrapolate the % of Dominant individuals

1) 16%

2) 84%

3) 36%

4) 48%

Question 116 of 180

117. Implantation of the blastocyst occurs

1) just prior to conception

2) one week after fertilization

3) at one month’s gestation

4) just prior to birth

Question 117 of 180

118. Statement(1): (S1): After primary immune response, subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response

Statement(2): (S2): Anamnestic response is because our body develops memory after the first encounter.

1) S1 and S2 are correct

2) S1 and S2 are incorrect

3) S1 is correct; S2 is incorrect

4) S1 is incorrect; S2 is correct

Question 118 of 180

119. Which of the following statement is true for the structure marked ‘A’ in the given figure

1) It contains sensory areas, motor areas and association areas

2) It is referred to as the grey matter due to it’s greyish appearance

3) It is thrown into prominent folds

4) It constitutes the inner part of cerebral hemisphere

Question 119 of 180

120. In present times the origin of life is not possible from inorganic compounds due to

1) Raw material not available

2) High O2 in atmosphere

3) Decrease in temperature

4) Excess of pollution

Question 120 of 180

121. Complete the following Analogy

Seminal Vesicle: Cockroach: : --------: human

1) Spermatheca

2) rete-testis

3) Epididymis

4) Oothecal chamber

Question 121 of 180

122. Match the Columns and choose the Correct answer

Column I Column II

a.National aquatic (i) Endoskeleton fully

Animal ossified

b.National Heritage (ii) Seven cervical

Animal Vertebrae

c.National Bird (iii) Sheds scales as

Skin cast

d.National Reptile (iv) Longest gestation

Period

(v) Cormorant

1) a – ii, b – iii, c - i, d – v

2) a – ii, b – iv, c - i, d – iii

3) a – iii, b – v, c - i, d – ii

4) a – i, b – ii, c - iv, d – v

Question 122 of 180

123. Choose the wrong statement.

1) In grasshoppers, besides autosomes, males have only one X-chromosome, whereas femaleshave a pair of X-chromosomes.

2) In Xy type of sex determination, both males and females have same number ofchromosomes.

3) In Drosophila, males have one X and one y chromosome, whereas females have a pair of Xchromosomebesides autosomes.

4) In insects with XO type of sex determination, all sperms bear X-chromosome besidesautosomes.

Question 123 of 180

124. Find the incorrect match

1) Colostrum – IgA antibodies

2) Recombinant DNA – Hepatitis Bvaccine technology produced fromyeast

3) Allergy – Release of chemicals likehistamine and serotonin from themast cells

4) Autoimmune – Adrenaline disease

Question 124 of 180

125. The enzyme which catalysis the following Biochemical reaction is released from which cells

Trypsinogen → Trypsin

1) Gastric Epithelium

2) Intestinal Mucosa (SI)

3) Hepatic lobules

4) Serous cells of Parotid glands

Question 125 of 180

126. The Neanderthal man with a brain size ___A____ cc lived in near __B____ between ___C____ to ___D____
Years back

1) A-1000, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

2) A-1400, B-East and Central Asia, C-100000, D-40000

3) A-1000, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

4) A-1400, B-East and West Asia, C-100000, D-40000

Question 126 of 180

127. Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during spermatogenesis, some sperms carry both sex
chromosomes (22A + XY) and some sperms do not carry any sex chromosome (22A + O). If these sperms fertilise normal eggs (22A + X), what types of genetic disorders appear among the offsprings?

1) Klinefelter’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

2) Down’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome

3) Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome

4) Down’s syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome

Question 127 of 180

128. When light incidents on photoreceptor cells of the retina of eye ,their membrane is

1) hyperpolarized

2) depolarized

3) repolarized

4) none of the above.

Question 128 of 180

129. If a female having gene for haemophilia and colour blindness on its one chromosome marries a normal male, then what are the chances in their offspring

1) 50% son are diseased and 50%are normal

2) All normal offspring

3) 100% daughters are carrier

4) 100% son are diseased

Question 129 of 180

130. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart are partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

1) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.

2) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.

3) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.

4) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.

Question 130 of 180

131. Amniocentesis is a technique

1) by which the essential amino acids in the body can be estimated

2) by which any chromosomal anomalies in the foetus can be detected

3) in which the sex of the foetus can be reversed

4) that can be used for correcting genetic disorders of the foetus

Question 131 of 180

132. Which of the following statements about blood transfusion is correct

1) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-B.

2) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B and receive from group-AB

3) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-O and receive from group-B

4) Blood group-B can give blood to blood group-B, AB and receive from group-AB

Question 132 of 180

133. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, select the option that correctly fills the blanks A,B and C

A B C

(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin

(2) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone

(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin

(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin

Question 133 of 180

134. Alienate the number of incorrect statement(s)

S1: Laccifer lacks circulatory system.

S2: Neries have nephridia but no nephrons

S3: Silver fish is Non-operculate marine fish

S4: Neophron has both neurons and nephrons

1) Two

2) Three

3) One

4) Four

Question 134 of 180

135. Olfactory bulbs are extensions of

1) Lymphatic system

2) Limbic system

3) Diencephalon

4) Mesencephalon

Question 135 of 180

Chemistry

136. The impure 7g of NaCl is dissolved in water and then treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The weight of precipitate of silver chloride is found to be 14g. The % purity of NaCl solution would be (M. Wt of AgCl = 143.5, NaCl = 58.5)

1) 81.5%

2) 63%

3) 93%

4) 77%

Question 136 of 180

137. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom?

1) 127 pm

2) 157 pm

3) 181 pm

4) 108 pm

Question 137 of 180

138. The equivalent weight of HCl in the given reaction is
KCr₂O₇ +14 HCl -->2KCl + 2CrCl₃ +3Cl₂ +H₂O

1) 16.25

2) 36.5

3) 73

4) 85.1

Question 138 of 180

139. Which one of the following oxyacids of chlorine is the least
oxidising in nature

1) HOCl

2) HClO₂

3) HClO₄

4) HClO₃

Question 139 of 180

140. The pair of molecules having same geometry and same bond angles are

1) NH₄+,PCl3

2) NH4+ , CH4

3) H2O , SO2

4) NH3 , PH3

Question 140 of 180

141. The most volatile alkane is

1) n – pentane

2) isopentane

3) neopentane

4) n–hexane

Question 141 of 180

142. 75% completion of a first order reaction takes 2.38 hours. How much time will it take for 99.9% completion?

1) 1.39 h

2) 7.14h

3) 11.9 h

4) 15.85 h

Question 142 of 180

143. V1 ml of 3M HCl solution is mixed with V₂ml of 3M H₂SO₄to from a solution in which molarity of H+ ions is 5M, then the relation between V₁and V₂is

1) V₁= V₂

2) V₂=2V₁

3) 3V₁= V₂

4) 2V₂= V₁

Question 143 of 180

144. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemisorption.

Question 144 of 180

145.

The ratio of number of moles of Hydrogen atoms required to get 1 mole of azobenzene and 1 mole of hydrazobenzene is

1) 4 : 5

2) 5 : 4

3) 1 : 1

4) 2 : 3

Question 145 of 180

146. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?

1) Pyrolusite

2) Magnetite

3)Malachite

4) Cassiterite

Question 146 of 180

147. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M-O-H and M¹-O-H have been prepared in two different
beakers. If the electronegativity of M=3.5, M¹=0.9, O=3.5 and H=2.1, then the solutions respectively are

1) acidic, acidic

2) acidic, basic

3) basic, basic

4) basic, acidic

Question 147 of 180

148.

Incorrect statements about X and Y are

1) formation of Y is a syn addition

2)during the formation of X, the intermediate is a carbocation

3) X is a positional isomer of Y

4) formation of Y follows markonikov's rule

Question 148 of 180

149. The correct order of E⁰_M⁺²_/Mvalues with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr,Mn,Fe and Co is

1) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co

2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co

3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co

4) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co

Question 149 of 180

150. Which artificial sweetner contains chlorine

1) Aspartame

2) Saccharin

3) Sucralose

4) Alitame

Question 150 of 180

151. 51. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zn dust and water gives compound ‘E’. Compound ‘E’ on further treatment with aqu.KOH yields compound ‘F’. Compound ‘F’ is

Question 151 of 180

152. The values of electro negativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage ionic character of A-B bond is

1) 50%

2) 72.24%

3) 55.3%

4) 43%

Question 152 of 180

153. For decolourization of one mole of KMnO₄ the required litre of 30 volume H₂O₂ in acidified medium is

1) 0.94

2) 9.4

3) 0.094

4) 3.01

Question 153 of 180

154. Total number of coordination isomers shown by complex [Co(NH₃)₆] [Cr(Cl)₆] is:

1)4

2)5

3)6

4)0

Question 154 of 180

155. For the given complex ,[CoCl₂(en)(NH₃)]⁺the number of geometrical isomer’s, the number of optical isomers and the total number of isomers of all type
possible respectively are

1) 2,2 and 4

2) 2,0 and 2

3) 2,2 and 3

4) 0,2 and 2

Question 155 of 180

156. Assertion: Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon
Reason: ΔH_f⁰ of graphite is taken as zero

1) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2) Both assertion and reason are correct reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion.

3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.

4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

Question 156 of 180

157.

1) Glyptal

2) Dacron

3) Nylon-6,6

4) Nylon-6

Question 157 of 180

158. The correct statement among the following is:
i) NaBH₄produce BH₆on reaction with I₂

ii) Reaction between B₂H₆and NMe₃is an acid base reaction

iii) BH₆is produced on industrial scale by reaction with BF₃, NaH

iv) Boranes on hydrolysis produce
B₂H₆and H₂gas

1) All are correct

2) Only i & ii are correct

3) Only iv is correct

4) Only i, ii, iii are correct

Question 158 of 180

159. Incorrect statement among the following is

1) Pure CO is prepared bydehydration of formic acid with conc. H₂S4

2) Commercially CO is prepared byassing steam over red hot coke

3) CO is a powerful reducing agentand reduces almost all metal oxidesother than IA, IIA group elements,Al etc...

4) CO is a Lewis acid

Question 159 of 180

160. The correct order of increasing acidic strength of the compounds
A) CH₃CO₂H
B) MeOCH₂CO₂H
C) CF₃CO₂H

1) D < A < B < C

2) A < D < B < C

3) B < D < A < C

4) D < A < C < B

Question 160 of 180

161. Henderson equation pH - pKa = 5 will be applicable to an acidic buffer when:-

1) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]

2) [ Acid ] × 10⁵ = [conjugatebase]

3) [ Acid ] = [conjugatebase]× 10⁵

4) [ Acid ] = 2[conjugatebase]

Question 161 of 180

162. For one mole of a vanderwaal’s gaswhen b=0 and T=300K, the PV vs1/V plot is shown below. The value of vander waal’s constant ‘a’ in atm.lit² mole^-2is (graph not to scale)

1) 1.0

2)4.5

3) 1.5

4) 3.0

Question 162 of 180

163.

Number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain

1) 7

2) 4

3)6

4)5

Question 163 of 180

164. When H₂S is passed through acidified KMnO₄ we get

1) K₂ SO₃

2) MnO₂

3) KHSO₃

4) Sulphur

Question 164 of 180

165. If lone pair of electron occupy axial position then, incorrect about is :

1) It is a planar molecule

2) It has T-shape

3) All bond lengths are equal

4) repulsion will be minimum

Question 165 of 180

166. Find the correct order of acidity of the following compounds

1) III> II> I> IV

2) III> I> II> IV

3)III> II> IV> I

4) IV> I> II> III

Question 166 of 180

167. The pH of a solution of H₂O₂is 6.0. Some chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution. Which of
the following is correct?

1) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0

2) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant solution

3) The pH of resultant solution becomes less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated

4) Cl₂O is formed in the resultant solution

Question 167 of 180

168. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen in
I) C₆H₅CO NH₂ II) Pyridine
III) C₆H₅-N=N-C₆H₅

1) I,III

2) II,III

3) III,IV

4) I,II

Question 168 of 180

169. Addition of dilute HCl or FeCl₃solution to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as

1) peptisation

2) dialysis

3) osmosis

4) coagulation

Question 169 of 180

170. Which of the following ‘gem’ diols is stable?

Question 170 of 180

171. Which of the following has minimum flocculation value for positively charged sol ?

1) Cl^-

2) SO₄^2-

3) PO₄^3-

4) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-

Question 171 of 180

172. The plots of 1/ X_AVs 1/Y_A( where X_A and Y_Aare the mole fraction of liquid A in liquid and vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercepts respectively

Question 172 of 180

173. Which of the following organ metallic compound is σ and π
bonded?

1) [ Fe(η⁵-C₂H5)₂]

2) [ PtCl3 (η2 -C2H₄ ) ]

3) [ Co(Co)5 NH₃ ]⁺²

4) All the above

Question 173 of 180

174. When 0.1mole MnO₄^2- is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required in coulombs to completely oxidize MnO₄^2- to MnO₄^- is

1) 96500

2) 2×96500

3)9650

4) 96.50

Question 174 of 180

175. Method which is based on difference in solubility of impurities in molted metal and solid state
of metal is

1) Parke’s process

2) bessemerisation

3) zone refining

4) electrolytic refining

Question 175 of 180

176. A solution ‘X’ contains 30 mole percent of A and is in equilibrium with its vapour that contains 40 mole percent of ‘B’. The ratio of vapor pressure of pure A and B will be:

1) 2 : 1

2) 7 : 2

3) 3 : 4

4) 4 : 3

Question 176 of 180

177. The number of carbon atoms per unitcell of diamond unitcell is

1) 8

2) 6

3) 1

4) 4

Question 177 of 180

178. In Na₂O having antifluorite structure

1) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupy all the octahedral voids.

2) oxide ions have cubic closepacked arrangement and Na+
occupyall the eight tetrahedral voids

3) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangement and O2-
occupy all tetrahedral voids.

4) Na+ ions have c.c.p arrangementand O2- occupy all octahedral voids

Question 178 of 180

179. Which of the following will have highest negative enthalpy of formation?

1) RbF

2) KF

3) CsF

4) NaF

Question 179 of 180

180. When two moles of an ideal gas (C_pm=(5/2)R) heated from 300K to 600K at constant pressure. The change in entropy of gas (∆s ) is

1) (3/2)R ln2

2) (-3/2)R ln2

3) 5R ln2

4) (5/2)R ln2

Question 180 of 180

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