10th Model Papers

SSC Public Examinations – Andhra Pradesh

General Science Model Paper – Paper – I 

Physical Sciences

Time: 2.45 Minutes. Parts A & B Max. Marks: 40
Instructions:
i) In the time duration of 2 hours 45 minutes, 15 minutes of time is allotted to read and understand the question paper.
ii) Answer the questions under Part ‘A’ on a separate answer book.
iii) Write the answers to the questions under part ‘B’ on the question paper itself and attach it to the answer book of part ‘A’.

Part – A
SECTION – I

Note: 1. Answer all the questions.
2. Each question carries ONE mark.
3. Answer each question in 1 or 2 sentences. (4 × 1 = 4 M)

Also Read: 10th Biology Model Paper
1. How does eye lens change its focal length?
2. Find the absolute refractive index of water, if its critical angle is 48.5° (sin 48.5° = 0.75)
3. How do you appreciate the role of esters in everyday life?
4. Write the names of any two compounds which have ionic bond.

SECTION – II

Note: 1. Answer all the questions.
2. Answer each question in 4 or 5 sentences.
3. Each question carries TWO marks. (5 × 2 = 10 M)

5. i) CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
ii) 2 AgBr (s) → 2 Ag (s) + Br2 (g)
Mention the types of reactions to which the above equations belong. Also mention
which of them is a photo chemical reaction.
6. Between a neutral atom and its cation which has bigger size? Why?
7. Why Dobereiner, Newlands and Mandeleeff were not 100% succesful in the classification of elements? Why the modern table is relatively a better classification? Predict the reason.
8. Draw the diagram that explains the formation of an image by a plane mirror.
9. What is the value of 1 KWH in Joules?

Also Read: 10th Physical Bit Bank – Important Questions

SECTION – III

Note: 1. Answer all the questions.
2. Each question carries FOUR marks.
3. Answer each question in 8 to 10 sentences.
4. There is internal choice for each question. Only one option from each question is to be attempted. (4 × 4 = 16 M)

10. Revathi said that presence of air and water are essential for corrosion. Suggest an experiment to prove Revathi’s statement. (Or)
Mention different types of chemical decomposition reactions. Which method is suitable for the decomposition of water? Draw a neat diagram of it.
11. How do you verify experimentally that the focal length of convex lens is increased when it is kept in water?
(Or)
Gowri observed that petrol kept in a vessel disappears after sometime. Rani heated water in a beaker and turned into water vapour. How would you distinguish between these two processes?
12. Explain the formation of double bond and triple bond according to Lewis theory.
(Or)
How do you explain the process of artificial ripening of fruits by ethylene?
13. The resistance of 5 Ω, 15 Ω, 20 Ω, and 10 Ω are connected as shown in the figure. Find the resultant resistance of the circuit.

a) State right hand rule with a labelled diagram.
b) A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What happens, if a bar magnet is

i) pushed into the coil

ii) withdrawn from inside the coil
iii) held stationary inside the coil.

PART – B

Time: 30 Minutes.  Max. Marks: 10

Instructions:
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 1/2 mark.
iii) Answers are to be written question paper only.
iv) Marks will not be awarded in any case of over writing, rewritten or erased answers.
v) Write the CAPITAL LETTER (A, B, C, D) showing the correct answer for the following question in the brackets provided against them.

14. When a ray is incident perpendicular to the plane surface, the angle of reflection is.. ( )
A) 90° B) 180° C) 0° D) 120°

15. Specific heat of a substance depends….( )
i) Nature of the substance
ii) Mass of the substance
iii) Heat given to the substance
A) i is correct
B) i and ii are correct
C) i, ii and iii are correct
D) i, ii and iii are wrong

16. Principal quantum number is related to…( )
A) Size of the orbit
B) Spin angular momentum
C) Orbital angular momentum
D) Orientation of orbital in space

17. 2 C3H8 + X.O2 → 6 CO2 + Y.H2O in this equation X and Y values are…. ( )
A) X = 4, Y = 8 B) X = 10, Y = 4
C) X = 10, Y = 8 D) X = 2, Y = 9

18. Arrange the following in a systematic order… ( )
i) Modern periodic table ii) Law of Octaves
iii) Periodic table iv) Law of Triads
A) i, ii, iii, iv B) ii, i, iv, iii
C) iv, ii, iii, i D) iii, ii, iv, i

20. In integrated circuits ………. are used instead copper to connect the components
together. ( )
A) Graphite B) C60 C) Nanotube D) PVC

21. Match the following: ( )
1) Bauxite P) Lead
2) Galena Q) Calcium
3) Gypsum R) Aluminium
A) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R B) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R
C) 1-R, 2-Q, 3-P D) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q

22. Planets do not twinkle because….. ( )
X) They are much closer to the earth
Y) They are seen as extended sources of light
A) X and Y are true
B) X and Y are false
C) X is false and Y is true
D) X is true and Y is false

23. Sidwick and Powell proposed VSPERT theory. Valence bond theory was suggested by ( )
A) Linus Pauling B) Lewis C) Kossel D) Pauli

24. This current passing through our body causes spasms ( )

A) P B) S C) Q D) R

25. A few drops of ethonoic acid are added to solid sodium carbonate. The possible results of the reaction are ….. (  )
A) A hissing sound is evolved
B) Brown fumes are evolved
C) Brisk effervescence occurred
D) A pungent smelling gas is evolved

26. A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid ….. ( )
A) increases B) remains constant C) decreases D) becomes zero

27. Arrange the following in the descending order of their pH value. ( )
i) Coffee ii) Milk iii) Orange juice iv) Blood
A) i, ii, iii, iv B) iv, ii, iii, i C) ii, iii, iv, i D) iv, ii, i, iii

28. A convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown in the figure. The
number of images formed by it for an object is ……… ( )

A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4

29. Substance having highest specific heat is …….. ( )
i) Water ii) Ice iii) Sea water iv) Kerosene
A) i B) i and ii C) iii D) ii and iv

30. During electrolysis of sodium chloride ….. gas is liberated at the anode ( )
A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Chlorine D) Hydrogen

31. A conductor is moving with a speed of 10 m/s in the direction perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field of induction 0.8 T. If it induces an e.m.f of 8 V  between the ends of the conductor, then the length of the conductor is ……… ( )
A) 2 m B) 4 m C) 1 m D) 0.5 m

32. Which of the following compounds will not give addition reaction? ( )
A) Ethene B) Ethyne C) Propane D) Methane

33. A neutralisation is an example for ….. reaction. ( )
A) Decomposition B) Combination C) Displacement D) Double decomposition

Answers : PART – B

14-C
15-C
16-A
17-C
18-C
19-A
20-C
21-D
22-A
23-A
24-B
25-B
26-A
27-D
28-A
29-A
30-C
31-C
32-D
33-D.

Following is the model question paper of General Science Paper – 2 for Andhra Pradesh students.   Paper 2 is Biology subject. The model paper is based on the CCE pattern of AP. Students can practice the question paper and test themselves. The questions may also be useful for Telangana board exams also for the p

GENERAL SCIENCE    PAPER – II
Time: 2 hours 45 min.             Max. Marks: 40

Instructions:
(i) This Question Paper contains Part- A and Part – B.
(ii) Part – A answers should be written in answer booklet and Part-B answers should be answered in the bit paper itself and attach it to the answer booklet of Part-A.
(iii) There is no overall choice. However there is internal choice to the Questions under Section- III.
(iv) All Questions are compulsory.
(v) In the time duration of 2 hrs. 45 minutes, 15 minutes of time is exclusively allotted to read and understand the Question Paper.

Also Read:  10th Biology Imp Multiple Choice Questions

PART – A
SECTION – I
Note:
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries ONE mark.
iii) Answer each question in 1 to 2 sentences. (4 × 1 = 4 M)

1. What is the role of Acid in stomach?
2. What is edema?
3. Write any two uses of Tannins.
4. Observe and write phenotype and genotype ratios from the following matrix.

SECTION – II
Note: i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries TWO marks.
iii) Answer each question in 4 to 5 sentences. (5 × 2 = 10 M)

5. ‘When we find a dip or hole on the road we slow down the vehicle’. Draw a flow chart of this Reflex arc.
6. Imagine what happens if diaphragm is not there in the body?
7. Suggest any three programmes on prevention of soil pollution in view of avoiding pesticides?
8. If you visit a doctor what doubts would you like to get clarified about pancreas?
9. Write any two food chains from the following food relations.

SECTION – III
Note:
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries FOUR marks.
iii) There is internal choice for each question. Only one option from each question is to be attempted.
iv) Answer each question in 8 to 10 sentences. (4 × 4 = 16 M)

10. The below experiment might have been conducted in your school. By recollecting this experiment answer the following questions:

a) Why was this plant kept in the dark room for week days before conducting experiment?
b) How KOH was kept in the wide mouthed bottle?
c) Write any one of the precaution to be taken during this experiment.
d) What are the raw materials required for the process of photosynthesis?
(OR)
What do you understand about cardiac cycle? Explain.
11. Write differences between Aerobic respiration and Anaerobic respiration..
(OR)
Why dialysis is applied to some persons?
Which principle is involved in dialysis?
12. How can you justify the enteric nervous system as the second brain of the gut?
(OR)
Who will be responsible for sex determination in human? How do you justify? Explain with the help of a flow chart.
13. Write about the plant growth hormones and their uses.
(OR)
What principles would you suggest to save environment?

Must Read: 10th Physics Important Questions and Answers

PART – B
Max.Marks:10   Time: 30 minutes
Note: (i) Answer all the questions.
(ii) Each question has FOUR choices. Choose the correct answer for each question and write the relevant alphabet [A, B, C, D] against the question number in your answer booklet.
(iii) Each question carries 1 / 2 mark. (20 × 1 / 2 = 10 M)

14. The golden yellow coloured fluid left after the blood clotting ( )
A) Plasma B) Serum C) Lipid D) Lymph
15. The animal with trachea? ( )
A) Earthworm B) Bony fish C) Butterfly D) Salamander
16. Gas that causes global warming ( )
A) Oxygen B) Hydrogen C) CO2 D) Nitrogen
17. Reverse Peristalsis occurs in the following ( )
A) Tiger B) Squirrel C) Cow D) Cat
18. Substance which is used as medicine for snake bite ( )
A) Reserpine B) Quinine C) Morphine D) Cobalamin
19. Example for Biofuel ( )
A) Coal B) Petroleum C) Jatropa D) Kerosene
20. The pH condition of saliva ( )
A) Alkaline B) Acidic C) Neutral D) All above
21. The concept of Ecological Pyramid was first proposed by ( )
A) Charles Elton B) Lamarck C) Lindeman D) Steel
22. In Latin ‘lymph’ means ( )
A) Blood B) Water C) Urine D) Plasma
23. The fusion of a sperm cell with an egg cell is ( )
A) Fragmentation B) Fermentation C) Fertilization D) Fusion
24. Brain is protected by ( )
A) Cranium B) Meninges C) A and B D) Cartilaginous Bone
25. Paleontologists deal with ( )
A) Embryological evidences B) Fossil Evidences
C) Vestigial Evidences D) All
26. First kidney transplantation was performed by ( )
A) Charles Hufnagel B) Charles Elton
C) Charles Darwin D) Mendel
27. Natural selection means ( )
A) Nature selects desirable characters B) Nature rejects undesirable characters
C) Nature does not involve in selection D) A and B

28. Sustainable development means ( )
A) Prevention of wastage B) Stable growth
C) High yielding in less time D) Development without damaging
29. The part in male reproductive system which produce sperm cells ( )
A) Vas deference B) Testes
C) Urinary bladder D) Scrotum
30. Aphids extract food material by penetrating their proboscis into ( )
A) Xylem B) Phloem C) Medulla D) Cambium
31. Mangrove trees respire with their ( )
A) Lungs B) Stomata C) Aerial roots D) Leaves
32. Major component of waste in urine is ( )
A) Urea B) Sodium C) Water D) Creatine
33. Thyroxin is responsible for ( )
A) Stimulates testes B) Metabolic activity
C) Growth of bone D) None of them

Part – B Answers:

14-B
15-C
16-C
17-C
18-A
19-C
20-A
21-A
22-B
23-C
24-C
25-D
26-A
27-D
28-D
29-B
30-B
31-C
32-A
33-B.