SBI Clerks Banking Terminology Model Questions with Answers

Banking sector is associated with different terminology such as base rate, RTGS, term deposit etc. Candidates those preparing for Bank recruitment examinations must be aware of these terminology. The question on Banking terminology will be asked in SBI Associate Banks Clerks recruitment exam along with several other Bank recruitments. Here are a few model / practice questions on Banking Terminology. Answers / key is also provided at the end of the questions:

1. Which of the following is known as Plastic Money?
A) Demand Draft B) Credit Card C) Debit Card
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C
4) Both B and C 5) All A, B and C

2. KYC guidelines followed by banks have been framed on the recommendations of the ………..
1) Ministry of Home Affairs 2) Ministry of Information Technology and Human Resource Development
3) Indian Banks Association 4) Ministry of Finance 5) Reserve Bank of India

3. Business Correspondents in banking are for:
1) Providing services for the Platinum Customers
2) Providing services for children
3) Serving the educational institutions
4) Serving the weaker sections of society
5) None of these

4. What is the full form of FDI?
1) Foreign Development Investment 2) Fiscal Development Investment
3) Foreign Direct Investment 4) Fiscal Direct Investment 5) None of these

5. CMD of a public sector bank is appointed by:
1) Reserve Bank of India 2) Indian Banks Association
3) Central Government
4) Respective Bank’s Board of Directors 5) None of these

6. What is the current Statutory Liquidity Ratio?
1) 23 % 2) 24 % 3) 20% 4) 4.5% 5) None of these

7. Expand CTS.
1) Cheque Truncation System 2) Cash Transaction System 3) Current Transaction System
4) Credit Truncation System 5) None of the above

8. Micro finance development equity fund is managed by:
1) RBI 2) NABARD 3) Indian Banks Association
4) Asian Development Bank 5) None of these

9. What is the full form of LIBOR?
1) London Inter – Bank Offer Rate 2) Liquidity Inter – Bank Offer Rate
3) Liquidity International Bank Offer Rate 4) London International Bank Rate
5) None of these

10. Which of the following does not come under core sector?
1) Crude Oil 2) Natural Gas 3) Coal 4) Electricity 5) Automobile

11. When banks borrow fund for overnight, it is called:
1) Borrowing Money 2) Lending Money 3) Push Money 4) Call Money 5) None of these

12. What is ASBA with respect to banking?
1) Application Supported by Blocked Amount 2) Application Supported by Black Amount
3) Application Sign by Blocked Amount 4) Application Supported by Blocked Array
5) None of these

13. Electronic Cheque means :
1) Cheque which automatically comes from a machine. 2) Cheque issued online
3) Cheque which does not need a signature in it. 4) Cheque signed digitally
5) None of these

14. What is the minimum amount for NEFT transaction?
1) Rs.100000 2) Rs. 200000 3) Rs. 50000 4) There is No minimum limit 5) None of these

15. Expand SHG.
1) Self Help Grameen 2) Self Help Group 3) Self Help Grill 4) Solve Help Groups 5) None of these

16. Which of the following committees has given its recommendations on ‘Financial Inclusion’
1) Vaghul Committee 2) Rangarajan Committee
3) Rakesh Mohan Committee 4) Kelkar Committee 5) None of these

17. Rise in Stock Market is usually referred to as:
1) Bear 2) Bull 3) Tiger 4) Cat 5) None of these

18. The term ‘insider trading’ is associated with:
1) Stock Markets 2) Defence Services 3) Parliamentary Procedures 4) Book Publishing Business 5) Sports

19. Which of the following is implemented in India in all the districts of the country for providing employment?
1) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana 2) Bharath Nirman
3) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 4) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
5) None of these

20. Which of the following is the purpose of introducing ‘Know Your Customer’ and AML norms by the banks?
1) To bring more and more people under the banking net
2) Identifying people who do not pay income tax
3) To Identify the customer and identifying the source of funds deposited in banks
4) To ensure whether the money deposited in the bank is of an Indian or a foreign national
5) None of these

21. Which of the following organisations has been established mainly to promote micro, small and medium industrial sector in India?
1) NABARD 2) SIDBI 3) IDBI Bank 4) EXIM Bank 5) All of these

22. Which of the following is not one of the major functions of the National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD)?
1) Acting as regulator for cooperative banks and RRBs
2) Extending assistance to the government and others in matters related to rural development
3) Providing refinance to lending institutions in rural areas.
4) Acting as a coordinator in the operations of rural credit institutions
5) Review of monetary and credit policy

23. Banks in India are required to maintain a portion of their demand and time liabilities with the Reserve Bank of
India. This portion is called:
1) Statutory Liquidity Ratio 2) Cash Reserve Ratio 3) Bank Deposit
4) Reverse Repo 5) Government Securities

24. Which of the following organisations / agencies has specifically been set up to boost overall rural development in India?
1) RBI 2) SIDBI 3) NABARD 4) SEBI 5) EXIM

25. Banks in India are regulated under:
1) Companies Act, 1956 2) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
3) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 4) Special powers conferred on the RBI
5) None of these

26. A savings bank account opened with a commercial bank with zero or very minimal
balance is known as:
1) Savings Bank Ordinary Account 2) Student Savings Bank Account
3) No Frill Account 4) Current Account 5) Call Deposit

27. Banks in their daily business face various kinds of risks. Which of the following is one
such major risk?
1) Customer Risk 2) Reputation 3) Goodwill Risk 4) Protection Risk 5) Operational Risk

28. Which of the following schemes was launched by the RBI in 2004, under which Govt of India stated that Securities/ Treasury Bills could be issued to absorb surplus/ durable liquidity?
1) RTGS 2) External Commercial Borrowing 3) Market Stabilisation Scheme
4) High Value Clearing Scheme 5) Prepaid payment instrument facility

29. ‘Base Rate’ in banks is:
1) The rate of interest payable on demand deposits
2) The rate of interest payable on fixed deposits
3) The rate of interest charged by the RBI on long – term borrowing of public sector banks
4) The minimum lending rate decided by the RBI which shall be adopted by all public sector banks
5) The minimum interest rate fixed by individual banks below which they cannot lend funds, except cases like government- sponsored schemes.

30. Banking sector falls under ………
1) Agricultural Sector 2) Service Sector 3) Manufacturing Sector 4) Industrial Sector 5) Small Scale Sector

31. Which of the following is NOT a credit rating agency?
1) Credit Analysis & Research Ltd (CARE) 2) Lintas India Pvt Ltd
3) Moody’s Investors Service 4) Standard and Poor 5) Fitch Ratings

32. Which of the following is a payment and settlement system used by the banks in India?
1) Liquidity Adjustment Facility 2) Real Time Gross Settlement
3) Forward Rate Agreements 4) Central Depository Service 5) Negotiated Dealing System

Key / Answers: 1-4; 2-5; 3-4; 4-3; 5-3; 6-1; 7-1; 8-2; 9-1; 10-5; 11-4; 12-1; 13-4; 14-4; 15-2; 16-2; 17-2; 18-1; 19-3; 20-3; 21-2; 22-5; 23-2; 24-3; 25-2; 26-3; 27-5; 28-3; 29-5; 30-2; 31-2; 32-2.

SBI Clerks Quantitative Aptitude Model Questions with Answers

Quantitative Aptitude is the most important and a bit difficult part of the SBI Associate Banks written examination for the posts of Clerks. Following are model questions with answers for Quantitative Aptitude section of the examination. The model may questions may also useful for the IBPS Clerical examination.

Directions (Q. 1-15): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
1. 1136.38 + 47.69 +1363.37 = ?
A) 2639.37 B) 2618.59 C) 2647.29 D) 2547.44 E) None of these

2. 36% of 630 = 42% of ?
A) 460 B) 680 C) 540 D) 620 E) None of these

3. 5655 ÷ 39 + 35 = ?
A) 180 B) 326 C) 164 D) 185 E) 165

5. ? ÷ 34 × 27 = 3618
A) 4136 B) 4794 C) 4542 D) 4556 E) None of these

6. 3456 ÷ 36 ÷ 8 = ?
A) 12 B) 768 C) 15552 D) 16 E) 712

8. 15% of 340 + 120% of 65 = ?
A) 78 B) 129 C) 273 D) 51 E) None of these

12. 54% of ? = 2084.4
A) 3460 B) 3250 C) 3860 D) 3720 E) None of these

15. (1649 % of 26) ÷ 104 = ?
A) 4.36 B) 4.12 C) 4.27 D) 4.83 E) None of these

16. A train running at speed of 72 km/hour crosses a platform equal its length in 23 seconds. What is the length of the platform in metres?
A) 460 B) 240 C) 230 D) Can’t be determined E) None of these

17. If 35 men can complete a piece of work in 26 days, in how many days can 14 men complete that work?
A) 16 days B) 65 days C) 38 days D) 48 days E) None of these

18. One-seventh of a number is 384. What will be 42% of that number?
A) 1163.62 B) 1142.61 C) 1128.96 D) 1132.24 E) None of these

19. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.5680 at the end of 5 years is Rs.1704. What is the rate of interest?
A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) 4 E) None of these

20. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
5 7.5 15 37.5 112.5 393.75 ?
A) 765 B) 1575 C) 1295 D) 1495 E) None of these

21. 36 percent of first number is 42 percent of the second number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to the second number?
A) 5 : 4 B) 7 : 6 C) 2 : 3 D) Can not be determined E) None of these

22. The present age of a man is 4 times of his son. He will be three times of his son after 4 years. What is the present age of the man?
A) 36 B) 32 C) 48 D) 38 E) None

23. In how many different number of ways can a committee of 3 persons be selected from 8 men and 4 women?
A) 110 B) 440 C) 1320 D) 220 E) None of these

24. The average age of six employees in an office is 31 years. If the age of their officer is added, the average increased by 1 year. What is the age of officer?
A) 32 years B) 41 years C) 38 years D) 42 years E) None of these

25. A class starts at 10 a.m. and lasts till 1.27 p.m. Four periods are held during this interval. After every period, 5 minutes are given free to the students. The exact duration of each period (in minutes) is:
A) 42 B) 48 C) 51 D) 53 E) None of these

26. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
49.996 + 12.002 × 7.021 = ?
A) 140 B) 136 C) 131 D) 134 E) 137

27. A solid metallic spherical ball of radius 6 cm is melted and recast into small metallic cones of 3 cm radius and 4 cm height. Find the number of cones that can be made.
A) 12 B) 21 C) 24 D) 18 E) None

28. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 124 marks and is declared failed by 36 marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
A) 440 B) 600 C) 800 D) Can’t be determined E) None

29. A man sells an article for Rs. 1100.80 at a loss of 14%. Find for how much did he buy the article?
A) Rs.1320 B) Rs.1420 C) Rs.1280 D) Rs.1360 E) None of these

30. In how many different number of ways can the letters of the word ‘SWALLOW’ be arranged?
A) 1260 B) 5040 C) 2520 D) 1440 E) None of these

31. At an election contested by two, a candidate who gets 42% of the total votes is defeated by a majority of 480 votes. Find the total number of votes recorded.
A) 2000 B) 3000 C) 5000 D) 4000 E) None of these

32. Three persons A, B and C start running around a circular track and they complete full round in 24, 30 and 45 minutes respectively. If they start from the same point and in the same direction, after what time they will again meet together?
A) 3 hours B) 4 hours C) 6 hours D) 12 hours E) None of these

Key: 1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B; 5-D; 6-A; 7-E; 8-B; 9-C; 10-D; 11-A; 12-C; 13-B; 14-D; 15-B; 16-C; 17-B; 18-C; 19-A; 20-B; 21-B; 22-B; 23-D; 24-C; 25-B; 26-D; 27-C; 28-E; 29-C; 30-A; 31-B; 32-E.

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