SBI Clerks General Awareness Practice Questions with Key

1. The largest bank in India is ……….?
1) ICICI bank 2) Syndicate Bank
3) Union bank of India 4) Bank of India
5) State Bank of India

2. State bank of India head office is in ……….?
1) New Delhi 2) Kolkata 3) Chennai 4) Mumbai 5) Hyderabad

3. Mumbai has the head offices of many Financial Institutes. Which of the following bank/ institute/ PSU do not have the head office in Mumbai?
1) SEBI 2) RBI 3) Bank of Baroda 4) Bank of India 5) IDBI

4. Bank of Baroda, Andhra Bank and L&G(U.K) established ‘M/S India Invest’. M/S India Invest is a ……….?
1) Real Estate Company 2) Insurance Company
3) Foreign Exchange Office 4) Stock Exchange
5) Savings Plan

5. Insurance Company ‘Met Life’ has headquarters in ……….?
1) Canada 2) Japan 3) England 4) U.S.A 5) Australia

6. Australia based IAG (Insurance Australia Group) and ………. had tie up to do General Insurance business?
1) SBI 2) LIC 3) UTI 4) Reliance Industries 5) Rcom

7. SBI is the largest public sector bank. Which is the second largest public sector bank crossed having of 5,000 branches?
1) Bank of India 2) Bank of Baroda
3) ICICI 4) Punjab National Bank 5) Union Bank of India

8. Punjab National Bank and ………. had tie up together to have Core Banking Solutions (CBS) linking of its Regional Rural Banks
(RRB)?
1) NABARD 2) SBI 3) IDBI 4) UTI 5) SBI DHFI

9. NABARD ( National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) established JLG to extract the productive capability from rural
population?
1) Junior Link Group 2) Join Life Group
3) Joint Line Gauge 4) Joint Liability Group
5) None

10. Joint Liability Groups replicate the ……….?
1) Sole Help Group 2) Sole Help Grain
3) Stone Help Group 4) Second Help Group
5) Self Help Group

11. Self Help Groups will be provided with 7 % rate of interest on par with ………. as decided
by central government recently?
1) Vehicle Loan 2) Business Loan
3) Home Loan 4) Agriculture Loan
5) All of above

12. Agriculture Loans are called Regulated Loans. Which Deposit is Regulated Deposit other than NRI account?
1) Savings Account 2) Fixed Deposit
3) Current Account 4) Recurring Account
5) Joint Account

13. Savings Deposits cannot be opened/operated by ……….?
1) Public Sector Banks 2) Co-operative Banks
3) Foreign Banks 4) Non-Banking Finance Companies
5) Private Sector Banks

14. Non-Banking Companies list given. Pick up wrong one?
1) Sri Ram Finance 2) Mutthoot Finance
3) Manappuram Finance 4) ICICI Bank
5) Margadarsi Finance

15. ICICI is the ……….private bank in India?
1) Second largest 2) Third largest
3) Sixth largest 4) Largest
5) Tenth largest

16. Largest borrower in India is ……….?
1) Reserve Bank of India 2) Government of India
3) State bank of India 4) Uttar Pradesh 5) None

17. Government of India declares Minimum Support Price (MSP) for many goods/products every year. Which of the following
commodities do not cover MSP in principle?
1) Paddy 2) Bank Products
3) Wheat 4) Gram 5) Millets

18. Bank products do not cover ……….?
1) Deposit 2) Judicial Stamps
3) Loans 4) Credit Cards 5) All of above

19. Judicial Stamps and Postal Stamps are printed in Indian Security press Nasik. Nasik is in ……….?
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) West Bengal
3) Odisha 4) Tamilnadu 5) Maharastra

20. Maharastra based bank, Bank of Maharastra celebrated ………. celebrations in 2010. Its head office is in Pune?
1) Silver 2) Gold 3) Platinum
4) Centenary 5) Diamond

21. Platinum Celebrations of ………. celebrated. On that eve, One rupee coin minted?
1) Reserve Bank of India
2) State Bank of India
3) Central Bank of India
4) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
5) None

22. Reserve Bank of India established Credit Guarantee Corporation of India ( CGCI) in 1971 to encourage more flow of banks credit to ……….?
1) Big industries 2) Self Help Groups
3) Small business firms 4) Co-operative banks
5) Software industries

23. Small business and poor families approach ……….to take small amounts of loans?
1) Foreign banks 2) Public Sector banks
3) Private Sector banks 4) Micro-Finance Companies
5) Rating Agencies

24. Micro-Finance companies Bill passed by ……….to control nuisance of micro-finance companies?
1) Karnataka 2) Maharastra
3) Andhra Pradesh 4) West Bengal
5) Odisha

25. Andhra Pradesh head office bank is ……….?
1) State bank of Hyderabad
2) Syndicate bank
3) Union bank of India
4) HDFC
5) United Bank of India

26. The term not related to banking is ……….?
1) Crossing 2) NPA
3) Priority Sector Lending
4) On Line banking 5) Call option

27. Term not related to Stock Market is ……….?
1) DEMAT 2) Bad Delivery
3) Badala 4) Bid and Offer 5) Basel

28. Term not related to Economics?
1) Diminishing Marginal Utility
2) Demand and Supply
3) National Income
4) Consumer Surplus
5) Law of Motion

29. Which term not related to Banking Technology?
1) NEFT 2) RTGS 3) BOUNCE 4) SWIFT 5) ATM

30. Which is not a currency of any country in the world?
1) Dolla 2) Lira 3) Brussels 4) Pound 5) Yuan

31. Which is not a subsidiary/Associate/agency of any bank in India?
1) SBH 2) ICICI Lombard 3) NABARD 4) SBI Life 5) All of above

32. 113th Constitutional amendment related to ……….?
1) Change the state name of Orissa to Odisha
2) Right to Education
3) Voter’s eligibility age reduced from 21 years to 18 years
4) Establishment of GST council
5) Making Election commission as multiple body

33. Coal India recently got the status of ……….?
1) Navarathna 2) Mini-Ratna 3) Maharatna 4) Veerratna 5) None

34. As per the 2011 census, the lowest population state is ……….?
1) Sikkim 2) Goa 3) Manipur 4) Meghalaya 5) Assom

35. First time Lokpal Bill introduced in parliament in ……….?
1)1968 2)1971 3)1951 4) 2001 5) 2011

36. New war ship ‘Trikhand’ introduced in Indian Navy. It is manufactured and imported from ……….?
1) USA 2) France 3) Australia 4) Russia 5) Japan

37. ‘Scotia Prince’ is the boat run between ……….after 30 years?
1) India and China
2) India and Australia
3) India and Myanmar
4) India and Sri Lanka
5) India and Russia

38. Expand PURA?
1) Urban Areas in Rural Areas
2) Universal Amenities in Rural Areas
3) Urban Amenities in Roll Areas
4) Urban Areians in Rural Areas
5) Urban Amenities in Rural Areas

39. Co-ordinated Boarder Management plan is the agreement between India and……….?
1) Pakistan 2) Bhutan 3) Bangladesh 4) Nepal 5) Sri Lanka

40. Which city celebrated 372 years entry on 22nd August 2011?
1) Hyderabad 2) Mumbai 3) Chennai 4) Bengaluru 5) Mumbai

41. West Bengal name changed to ……….?
1) Purva Banga 2) Uttama Banga
3) Pachima Banga 4) Eleve Banga 5) Tagore Banga

42. 99th Science congress summit will be held in ……….?
1) Tamilnadu 2) Delhi 3) Rajasthan 4) Odisha 5) Goa
43. In BRICS summit, ‘S’ stands for……….?
1) Somalia 2) South Korea
3) Sri Lanka 4) South Africa
5) Swaziland

44. 2012 Pravasa Bharatiya Summit venue is ……….?
1) Jodhpur 2) Jaipur 3) Lucknow 4) Chennai 5) Bellary

45. Which IPS officer crossed palk strait on 25 march 2011?
1) Aruna Bahuguna 2) Rajiv Verma
3) Rajiv Trivedi 4) Madam Straint
4) None of above

46. ………. was appointed as chief of Change Management Team by UNO?
1) Anitha Kapur 2) Jeevan Reddy 3) Atul Khare 4) Y.V.Reddy
5) H S Puri

47. Coasta First Naval Award 2010 got by ……….?
1) Red Cross Society 2) Asha Bhonsle
3) Kiswar Desai 4) Manoj Pandey
5) Diwakar Prem

Key : 1)5 2)4 3)3 4)2 5)4 6)1 7)4 8)1 9)4 10)5 11)4 12)1 13)4 14)4 15)4 16)2 17)2 18)2 19)5 20)3 21)1 22)3 23)4 24)3 25)1 26)5 27)5 28)5 29)3 30)3 31)3 32)1 33)3 34)1 35)1 36)4 37)4 38)5 39)3 40)3
41)3 42)4 43)4 44)2 45)3 46)3 47)3.

SBI Clerks Resoning Important Study Material

Directions (Q.1-5): In these questions, symbols @, #, $, % and © are used with different meanings as follows.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than Q’
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than or equal to Q’
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below
is/are definitely true?
Give answer 1): if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer 2): if Conclusion II is true.
Give answer 3): if either Conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer 4): if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true.
Give answer 5): if both Conclusion I and II are true.

1. Statements: M @ R, R © F F # L
Conclusions: I. M @ L II. R @ L
2. Statements: T $ J, J @V, V # W
Conclusions: I. T © W II. T @ W
3. Statements: J @ D, D $ L, L # N
Conclusions: I. J # L II. J $ L
4. Statements: R $ M, M%H, H $ F
Conclusions: I. R % F II. M $ F
5. Statements: K $ H, H%I, I © F
Conclusions: I. K $ I II. H % F

Directions (Q.6-10): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and …..
Give answer 1) : if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 2): if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 3): if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 4): if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
Give answer 5): if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

6. What is the code for TAIL, in the a code language?
I. in the code language DELAY is written as 57382
II. in the code language TIDE is written as 6457.

7. Village ‘P’ is in which direction with respect to Village ‘Q’?
I. Village H is to the East of Village P and to the South of Village Q
II. Village F is to the North of Village P and to the West of village Q.

8. How many students are there in the class?
I. In the class, Nisha ranks tenth from the top and twenty-third
from the bottom.
II. Nandita is ten ranks above Shama who is eighteenth form the top

9. How many sons does ‘X’ have?
I. D is brother of A who is son of X.
II. D’s sister is M’s wife.

10. Among P, T, J, L and F each having different height, who is the tallest one?
I. P is taller than J and F only
II. T is not the tallest.

11. ‘Teacher’ is related to ‘school’ in the same way as ‘cook’ is related to ………
1) Food 2) Kitchen 3) Hostel 4) House 5) Market

12. Atul walks 20 metres towards South. Turning to the left he walks 30 metres, then turning right he walks 10 metres, then turning right he walks 40 metres, then turning right he walks 30 metres and stops.
In what direction is he with respect to his starting point?
1) South – West 2) West 3) North – West
4) He is at starting point 5) None of these

13. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series? TG HU VI JW?
1) KY 2) KX 3) YK 4) XK 5) None of these

14. Satish is 15 marks above Sushi who ranks 28th in a class of 50. What is Satish’s rank from the bottom.
1) 39 2) 37 3) 38 4) 35 5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence
form a group . Which one does not belong to the group?
1) Year 2) Month 3) Day 4) Week 5) Time

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence
form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
1) Pencil 2) Chalk 3) Notebook 4) Pen 5) Crayon

17. In a row of boys facing North, Amit is 5th to the left of Ashok, Alok is 3rd to the right of Amit. Vilas is 3rd to the left of Ashok. Which of the following describes the position of Vilas.
1) To the immediate right of Amit
2) To the immediate left of Alok
3) To the immediate right of Alok
4) 3rd to the right of Amit.
5) None of these

18. It is Thursday on 25th of September. What day will it be on the 25th of October in the same year?
1) Monday 2) Sunday 3) Friday 4) Saturday 5) None of these

19. If ‘A’ is called ‘2’ , ‘B’ is called ‘3’, ‘C’ is called ‘5’, ‘D’ is called ‘Q’ and so on, then what will be the numerical value of ‘F’?
1) 18 2) 16 3) 17 4) 20 5) None of these

20. A, B, C, D, E & F are sitting in a row facing North. A is neighbour of B and D, E is neighbour of C and F. D is neighbour of C.
How many members are there between A and E?
1) Two 2) One 3) Three 4) Four 5) None of these

21. If in a clock, 12 is replaced by 1, 11 by 2, 10 by 3 and so on, then what will be the time in that clock corresponding to ‘twenty minutes past eleven?
1) Twenty minutes past three in the usual clock?
2) Forty minutes past ten
3) Forty minutes past eleven
4) Twenty minutes past ten
5) None of these

22. If all the numbers divisible by 5 and also those having one of the digits as 5 are removed from the numbers 1 to 50, how many numbers will remain?
1) 38 2) 41 3) 39 4) 42 5) None of these

23. If ‘A’ is written as ‘B’ and ‘B’ as ‘A’, ‘C’ as ‘F’ and ‘F’ as ‘E’ and so on, how will the word ‘BRIG’ be written?
1) AQJH 2) ASJH 3) AQHF 4) AQJF 5) None of these

24. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PRISON’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet.
1) Two 2) One 3) Four 4) Three 5) More than four

error: Content is protected !!