SBI Clerks General English Model Test

Directions (Q.1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions below it. Certain words/ expressions are printed in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Child psychology is certainly not a strong point with most Indian schools. Why else would it inflict a double trauma on a student faring badly in the pre-boards by banning her from taking the exams often with fatal results as evidenced by reports of students suicides in the run-up to the board. Now the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has stepped in and put the brakes on. This is good news for parents and students, many of whom have had to live with the threat of the performance – linked department. While schools’ logic is that in order to attract talented students, they
need to maintain their performance records at high levels, the assumption that a student faring poorly in the pre-boards will replicate this at the board is faulty.

Chances are that the student will be spurred to work doubly hard. On the other hand, the threat of the department will almost certainly impact her performance adversely. Of course, linking pre-boards to the boards is only one of the problems with our system.

1. Which is good news for parents according to the passage?
1) Schools will take the responsibility of preparing students for the board.
2) Schools will provide study facilities to the poor students.
3) Schools will enforce discipline to ensure higher attendance of the students
4) No student can be barred from the boards without prior clearance from the CBSE.
5) Teachers will be able to handle students well if they know child psychology.

2. What is the ruling of the CBSE?
1) Students must pass the pre-board exam before appearing for the board exam.
2) Schools should follow the practice of performance – linked department.
3) Schools should maintain performance record of students of high level.
4) Schools must motivate students to work hard.
5) Before barring any student, the board schools must take prior permission of the CBSE.

3. What is the faulty assumption of schools according to the passage?
1) Students who do not do well at pre-boards will be motivated to work hard.
2) Pre-boards are generally easy and therefore students take them lightly.
3) Students who fare poorly at the pre-board will fail at the boards.
4) Learning by rote is a better method of learning.
5) Students perform better in languages than in science subjects.

4. Which of the following according to the passage, is the problem with our school system?
1) Providing study facilities to the students.
2) Linking pre-board performance of the students to the boards.
3) Teachers’ lack of knowledge of child psychology.
4) Attracting talented students.
5) Low percentage of students passing the board exam.

5. According to the passage parents had to live with the threat of
1) falling grades of their wards.
2) not getting their wards admitted in quality schools.
3) Schools not treating their wards with the attitude of counsellor.
4) Linking performance of their wards in preboards to boards.
5) Schools creating traumatic situation for their

6. Schools wanted to enforce performance – linked department in order to
1) get regular grant-in-aid from the education department.
2) improve their public image as a social institution.
3) attract better quality students.
4) make students aware that they would aspire for their all – round development.
5) provide better study material to the students.

7. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the word ‘replicate’ as used in the passage.
1) enhance 2) repeat 3) perform 4) achieve 5) plunder

8. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the word ‘assumption’ as used in the passage.
1) estimation 2) interpretation 3) intimidation
4) introduction 5) induction

9. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘spur’
1) depress 2) enlarge 3) explicate 4) sustain 5) activate

10. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘fatal’
1) precious 2) safe 3) ponderous 4) perilious 5) harmonious

Directions (11-20): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Communicating in (51) is fascinating, some even say (52). There are none of the physical (53) that, for good or bad, provide us with (54) judgement and about the people we meet there. No clothes, no hair, no age, no body (55). No smile to (56) a potentially sarcastic (57) is just a bit of (58). No conspiratorial whisper. Just computer type – face. That’s why the (59) has given rise to a whole new set of
(60) called emotions.

11. 1) computer 2) telephone 3) cyberspace 4) space 5) spot
12. 1) enchanting 2) magical 3) attracting 4) pleasing 5) agonising
13. 1) solutions 2) nature 3) keys 4) symbols 5) clues
14. 1) instant 2) simultaneous 3) total 4) distinct 5) instance
15. 1) dialect 2) symbols 3) symptoms 4) language 5) shape
16. 1) signal 2) testify 3) indicate 4) evidence 5) judge
17. 1) friendship 2) remark 3) ignorance 4) game 5) smile
18. 1) observation 2) notice 3) kidding 4) mention 5) bonding
19. 1) language 2) medium 3) agency 4) computer 5) treatise
20. 1) figures 2) badge 3) letters 4) symbols 5) emotions

Directions (21-25): In each sentence below, four words / group of words which are labelled (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt. If all the four are appropriate and also correctly spelt, mark (5) ‘All correct’ as the answer.

21. No contry (1)/ can isolate (2)/ itself from international (3)/ politics (4)/ All correct (5).
22. The peculiar (1)/ dress he wear (2)/ gave him a comical (3)/ appearance (4) / All correct (5).
23. To strengthen (1)/ his arguments (2)/ the lawyer showed to the judge some of the experts (3)/ from a magazine (4)/ All are correct (5).
24. The committee (1)/ underestimates (2)/ the efforts involved (3) and hence falls short of suggesting majors to solve the problem.(4)/ All are correct (5).
25. Jems (1)/ and jewellery (2)/ have very low export (3) / value (4) / All are correct (5).

Directions (26-35): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5).

26. He was astonished to find, that (1)/ the gentry of the town (2)/ was not invited (3)/ to the party. (4)/ No error (5).

27. We told him that (1)/ being a fine day (2)/ we wanted to go on a picnic and (3)/ would come back before 6. P.M. (4) / No error (5).

28. It is quarter (1)/ to eight by my watch (2)/ though the clock (3)/ has struck eight.(4) / No error (5).

29. He is one of those (1) / cleverest boys that (2)/ has studied in this school (3) / and we still remember him. (4) / No error (5).

30. As he went through the forest (1)/ Ram marked the trees (2)/ to let the rest of the party knew (3)/ which way he had gone. (4)/ No error (5).

31. He took out his spare shirt (1)/ and was very disappointed (2)/ when he discovered that that (3)/ shirt is also torn. (4)/ No error (5).

32. Before the carpenter came (1)/ she covered the floor (2)/ with polythene sheeting (3)/ to protect the carpet. (4)/ No error (5).
33. If I would have realized (1)/ what a clumsy person you were (2)/ I would not have come (3)/ with you to this place. (4)/ No error (5).

34. While going to the office yesterday (1)/ he not only
found a gold watch (2)/ but also a thousand rupee note
(3)/ and was extremely delighted. (4)/ No error (5).

35. If I were in your position (1)/ I would have respected (2)/ the wishes my parents (3)/ and made them happy (4)/ No error (5).

Directions (Q.36-40): Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A) The purpose of this review is to offload public investments from certain low priority areas.
B) The government has decided in principle to throw open to the private sector industries reserved for the public sector.
C) Only those industries are proposed to be reserved for the public sector which fall in the high priority areas.
D) In addition, the government is also engaged in a review of the existing portfolio of public investment.
E) This will enable the government to abolish the monopoly of any sector in the field of manufacture except these priority sectors.

36. Which of the following should come second in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
37. Which sentence should come last in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
38. Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
39. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
40. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

Key : 1-4; 2-5; 3-3; 4-2; 5-4; 6-3; 7-2; 8-1; 9-1; 10-2; 11-3; 12-1; 13-5; 14-1; 15-4; 16-3; 17-2; 18-3; 19-2; 20-4; 21-1; 22-2; 23-3; 24-4; 25-1; 26-3; 27-2; 28-1; 29-3; 230-3; 31-4; 32-2; 33-1; 34-2; 35-1; 36-3; 37-1; 38-4; 39-2; 40-5.

SBI Clerks Reasoning Model Test

1. In a class of forty students, Samir’s rank from the top is twelfth. Alok is eight ranks below Samir. What is Alok’s rank from the bottom?
1) 20th 2) 21st 3) 22nd 4) 19th 5) None of these

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) Jowar 2) Paddy 3) Millet 4) Wheat 5) Sesame

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOLDEN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

4. In a certain code DAYLONG is written as ZBEKHOP. How is CORDIAL written in that code ?
1) SPDCMBJ 2) SPDEMBJ 3) DPSCMBJ 4) SPDCJBM 5)None of these

5. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, the seventh, the eighth and the tenth letters of the word PREDICAMENT, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
1) M 2) N 3) E 4) X 5) Y

6. If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth
from the right end after the replacement ?
1) N 2) Q 3) J 4) M 5) None of these

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) March 2) January 3) July 4) June 5) May

8. M is older than R. Q is younger than R and N. N is not as old as M. Who among M, N, R and Q is the oldest?
1) M 2) R 3) M or R 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

9. The positions of how many digits in the number 7354612 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order from left to right?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

10. If ‘M’ means ‘÷’, ‘R’ means ‘+’, ‘T’ means ‘−’ and ‘K’ means ‘×’, then 20 R 16 K 5 M 10 T 8 = ?
1) 36 2) 20 3) 36.5 4) 12 5) None of these

11. In a certain code ROBE is written as ‘5136’ and BIND is written as ‘3792’. How is RIDE written in that code?
1) 5276 2) 5726 3) 5376 4) 5326 5) None of these

12. Pravin walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres, again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. How far was he from the starting point?
1) 30 metres 2) 80 metres 3) 50 metres 4) 20 meters 5) None of these

13. In a certain code ‘good and bad’ is written as ‘725’; ‘one and all’ is written as ‘9 3 2’ and ‘this is good’ is written as ‘1 5 4’. How is ‘one’ written in that code?
1) 9 2) 3 3) 2 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

14. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ENAL using each letter only once in each word?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four

15. Which of the following will be the middle digit of the second lowest number among the five numbers given below?
317 528 439 254 861
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 5 5) 6

16. ‘BEAN’ is related to ‘NEAB’ and ‘SAID’ is related to ‘DAIS’ in the same way as ‘LIME’ is related to……
1) MLEI 2) ELMI 3) EIML 4) EILM 5) None of these

Directions (Q.17-23): In each of these questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) If only Conclusion I follows.
2) If only Conclusion II follows.
3) If either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows.
4) If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.
5) If both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follows.

17. Statements:
All poles are lights.
All lights are bulbs.
All bulbs are tubes.
Conclusions:
I.All tubes are poles. II.Some bulbs are poles.

18. Statements:
All tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are desks.
All desks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some plates are wheels. II. Some plates are tyres.

19. Statements:
Some Kites are threads.
Some threads are sticks.
All sticks are umbrellas.
Conclusions:
I. Some Kites are umbrellas. II. Some umbrellas are threads.

20. Statements:
Some flowers are trees.
No tree is room.
Some rooms are hotels.
Conclusions:
I. Some hotels are flowers. II. Some rooms are flowers.

21. Statements:
All jackets are shirts.
All shirts are trousers.
No trouser is bag.
Conclusions:
I. No jacket is bag. II. No bag is shirt.

22. Statements:
Some blades are knives.
Some knives are tables.
All books are tables.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are knives. II. Some books are blades.

23. Statements:
All windows are houses.
All roads are houses.
Some houses are hills.
Conclusions:
I. Some hills are windows. II. No hill is window.

Directions (Q.24-30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer these questions.
R 4 E J 5 T 1 A M Q 3 8 N
I K 7 W F 6 D 9 U 2 Y V

24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) J54 2) 38M 3) 7WI 4) 2Y9 5) 8IQ

25. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed
by a consonant?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

26. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four

27. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between A and D in the above arrangement?
1) I 2) N 3) K 4) 8 5) None of these

28. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the ninth to the left of D?
1) T 2) A 3) V 4) J 5) None of these

29. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the eleventh from the left end of the above arrangement?
1) M 2) 9 3) W 4) 5 5) None of these

30. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right end of the above arrangement?
1) 8 2) D 3) I 4) T 5) None of these

Key : 1-2; 2-5; 3-3; 4-1; 5-5; 6-3; 7-4; 8-1; 9-4; 10-2; 11-2; 12-4; 13-4; 14-3; 15-1; 16-3; 17-2; 18-1; 19-2; 20-4; 21-5; 22-4; 23-3; 24-5; 25-3; 26-3; 27-1; 28-1; 29-4; 30-2.

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