EAMCET Botany Important Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following layer of anther wall is characterised by the presence of hygroscopic fibrous thickenings
1. Epidermis 2. Endothecium 3. Middle layers 4. Tapetum.

2. The chemical substance present in endosporium of pollen grain is
1. Cellulose 2. Sporopollenin 3. Pecto-cellulose 4. Ligno-suberin

3. Microspore mother cells are formed from one of the following tissue.
1. Nucellus 2. Connective tissue
3. Megasporangium 4. Sporogenous tissue

4. The first cell of the Sporophytic plant body is
1. Gamete 2. Microspore mother cell 3. Female Gemetophyte 4. Zygote

5. The diploid nutritive tissue of the integumented – megasporangia of phanerogams is called
1. Nucellus 2. Endothecium 3. Tapetum 4. Endosperm

6. In anatropous ovule, the funicules extend beyond the hilum region is called.
1. Chalaza 2. Raphe 3. Synergids 4. Antipodals

7. The monosporic type of embryosac is common in angiosperms, and it is –
1. Eight nucleated and eight celled
2. Seven nucleated and seven celled
3. Eight nucleated and seven celled
4. Seven nucleated and eight celled

8. Choose the correct statement from the following.
1. The posterior part of the ovule is called micropylar end
2. Synergids are present in central cell of the embryo sac
3. The antipodals are regarded as the vegetative cells of the embryo sac.
4. The two polar nuclei fuse to form a primary endosperm nucleus.

9. The point of attachment of the body of the ovule to its stalk is called.
1. Raphe 2. Caruncle 3. Micropyle 4. Hilum

10. The largest cell of the embryo sac is
1. Aril 2. Synergids 3. Central Cell 4. Antipodals

11. In which of the following genera embryosac develops from two megaspores.
1. Opuntia 2. Polygonum 3. Plumbago 4. Allium

12. Ategmic ovules are found in one of the following pair.
1. Ranunculus and Primula
2. Opuntia and Plumbago
3. Loranthus and Balenophora
4. Primula and plumbago

13. Which of the following structure help in absorption and conduction of food materials from nucellues into the embryosac.
1. Antipodals 2. Filiform aparatus 3. Micropyle 4. Raphe

14. The ‘Polygonum type’ embryo sac development was first studied by
1. Strasberger 2. Treub 3. Nawaschin 4. P.Maheswari

15. Assertion (A): Monosporic embryosac development is seen in
Polygonum
Reason (R): Monosporic type of embryo sac develops from all 4 haploid nuclei of a megaspore mother cell.
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true.

16. The edible part of Coffee Seed is
1. Tapetum 2. Perisperm 3. Mace 4. Caruncle

17. Assertion (A): In gymnosperms endosperm is in haploid (n) condition
Reason (R): In gymnosperms the female gametophyte which is formed before fertilization acts as endosperm.
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explonation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

18. The large, single, shield shaped Cotyledon of cereals is called
1. Tegellum 2. Scutellum 3. Aril 4. Caruncle

19. Study the following lists
List-1 List-2
A. Orthrotropous ovule I. Cucurbita
B. Caruncle II. Ottelia
C. Porogamy III. Ricinus Communis
D. Epigeal germination IV. Polygonum V. Myristica
The correct match is:
1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-V
2. A-V, B-I, C-II, D-III
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. A-II, B-I, C-V, D-III

20. Study the following Lists.
List-1 List-2
A. Circinotropous Ovule I. Casuarina
B. Aril II. Rhizophora
C. Chalazogamy III. Pithecalobium
D. Vivipary IV. Opuntia V. Primula
The Correct match is:
1. A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV
2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3. A-I, B-IV, C-V, D-III
4. A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-I

KEY : 1.2 2.3 3.4 4.4 5.1 6.2 7.3 8.3 9.4 10.3 11.4 12.3 13.2 14.1 15.3 16.2 17.1 18.2 19.3 20.2

EAMCET Chemistry Model Questions with Key

1) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is 0.4 for a solution containing 1 mole of NaCl in 3 mole H2O. The percentage ionization of NaCl is –
1) 60% 2) 50% 3) 100% 4) 40%

2) The number of conjugate acid-base pairs present in aqueous solution of NH3
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

3) The volume of water that must be added to a mixture of 250 ml of 6 M HCl and 750 ml of 2M HCl to obtain 2.5 M solution is – 250 ml 6M HCl vüΔ´ùç, 750 ml 2 M HCl
1) 75 ml 2) 150 ml 3) 100 ml 4) 200 ml

4) A Solution is prepared by dissoliving 3.5g of solute in 100 gm of solvent. At a certain temperature dry air is sent into the solution and solvent containers. The loss in weights of containers containing solution and solvent are 0.975 g and 0.025g respectively. The molecular weight of solvent is 75, then the
molarmass of solute?
1) 10.5 g 2) 105 g 3) 120 g 4) 1050g

5) Wrong statements of the following are
I) All Bronsted bases are Lewis bases
II) All Lewis acids are Bronsted acids
III) In acid-base reactions, the charge takes place in the direction of formation of stronger acid and stronger base.
IV) H2PO2 – acts as both Bronsted acid and Bronsted base
1) I, II 2) I, II, III 3) I, III, IV 4) II, III, IV

6) In electron alloy solute is
1) Mg 2) Zn 3) Al 4) Cu

7) 0.05 Moles of (NH4)2 SO4 is mixed with 500 ml of 0.2 M NH4 OH solution. Pkb of NH4OH is 4.76. The pH of the solution is-?
1) 9.24 2) 8.94 3) 9.54 4) 9.76

8) An acid buffer solution contains HX and NaX. A small amount of HCl is added to the buffer. The following reaction is responsible
to keep the pH constant.
1) Hx ←→ H++X- 2) Nax ←→ X- + Na+
3) Hx + OH- ←→ H2O+X- 4) X-+H+ ←→ HX

9) The following ion is not pricipitated from its solution on passing H2S in presence of HCl-
1) Co+2 2) Hg+2 3) Zn+2 4) Bi+3

10) The conjugate base of H2
1) H+ 2) H 3) H- 4) H2+
11) Which of the following is a buffer
1) 100 ml, 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 ml, 0.1M NaOH
2) 125 ml, 0.2 M HCOOH + 250 ml, 0.1 M KOH
3) 125 ml, 0.1 M NH4OH + 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl
4) 25 ml, 0.1 M NH4OH + 50 ml, 0.1 M HCl

12) Volume of 0.02 M KMNO4 solution required for the oxidation of 50 ml of 0.05 M Oxalic acid solution in acidic medium is —-
1) 25 ml 2) 50 ml 3) 75 ml 4) 100 ml

13) Which concentration can be calculated if the mole fraction and density of an aqueous solution of HCl are known
I) Molality II) Molarity III) Percent by mass
1) I only 2) I, II only 3) II, III only 4) I, II, III

14) A: HSO4- is a Bronsted acid as well as Bronsted base
R: H2SO4 is a dibasic acid
1) Both A & R are true and R explains ‘A’
2) Both A & R are true and R doesn’t explain ‘A’
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false but R is true

15) A: Vapour pressure of liquid increases with increase of surface area of the liquid at a given temperature
R: Rate of evaporation of liquid increases with increase of surface area of the liquid at a given temperature.
1) Both A & R are true, and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A & R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true.

16) The Ka of CH3COOH is 2 × 10-5. The pH of 0.2 M CH3COOH solution is
1) 0.699 2) 1.699 3) 2.301 4) 2.699

17) The pH of a solution is 5.5. Then the number of moles of H+ ions present in 1000 ml of that solution (anti log of 0.5 = 3.125)
1) 3.125 × 10-3 2) 3.125 × 10-4
3) 3.125 × 10-5 4) 3.125 × 10-6

18) Rast’s method is generally used for the solutions of
1) Solid in liquid 2) Liquid in Solid
3) Solid in Solid 4) Solid in gas

19) Boiling point of an aqueous solution is 101.04oC. The freezing point of the same solutin is (Kb and Kf of water are 0.52 & 1.86 K.Kg. Mol-1 respectively)
1) -3.72oc 2) -1.86oc 3) -0.372oc 4) -0.186oc

KEY : 1)1 2)2 3)4 4)2 5)4 6)1 7)2 8)4 9)4 10)3 11)3 12)2 13)4 14)2 15)4 16)4 17)3 18)3 19)1

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