Following are important model questions / objective questions for practice for NEET – UG and other medical entrance examinations in the country. Students can practice these multiple choice questions prepared by the experts in subject concerned (Botany). Botany and Zoology questions consist of 50 percent m arks in NEET and state level entrance exams like EAMCET etc.
1. The living organisms that show most extensive metabolic diversity are
1) Animals 2) Plants 3) Bacteria 4) Viruses
2. Archebacteria can survive extreme conditions because
1) Their cell wall contains peptidoglycan
2) Their cell wall contains pseudomurein
3) Cell membrane contains branched chain lipids
4) All the above
3. The division spermatophyta includes
1) Gymnosperms and pteridophytes
2) Dicotyledons and monocotyledons
3) Pteridophytes and angiosperms
4) Bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
Also Read: NEET Physics Important Questions
4. Cyanobacteria are characterised by
(A) Peripheral pigmented chromoplasm
(B) Filaments surrounded by chitin sheath
(C) Specialized cells for nitrogen fixation
(D) Presence of flagella
(E) Asexual fragments called hormogonia
1) ABD 2) ACD 3) BDE 4) ACE
5. Find the wrongly matched among the following.
1) Actinomyces – mycolic acid – mycobacterium
2) Mycoplasma – cell wall absent – pleomorphic
3) Eubacteria – pseudomurein – heterotrophs
4) Archaebacteria – pseudomurein – methanogens
6. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Pteridophytes, anigosperms and gymnosperms are embryophytic
(B) Bryophytes and pteridophytes are nonvascular
(C) Gymnosperms and dicots are archegoniate
(D) Algae and angiosperms are nonarchegoniates
1) AB 2) BC 3) CD 4) AD
7. Match the following:
a. Volvox i. Diplohaplontic
b. Pteris ii. Diplobiontic
c. Polysiphonia iii. Haplodiplontic
d. Funaria iv. Haplontic
1) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 2) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
3) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 4) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
8. Preservation of genetic information is due to
1) Asexual reproduction 2) Sexual reproduction
3) Selection 4) Migration
9. Alternative selective markers are used in
1) Polymerase chain reaction 2) Insertional inactivation
3) Down stream processing 4) Ligation
10. Which of the enzymes are correctly matched to the process?
(A) Chimaeric DNA synthesis – ligase
(B) RNA removal – Ribonuclease
(C) Bacterial cell wall digestion – lysozyme
1) AB 2) AC 3) BC 4) ABC
Also Read: NEET – UG Model Papers
11. Biological pest control of Lepidopterans, coleopterans and dipterans is better achieved by using
1) Bacillus thuringiensis 2) Trichoderma
3) Agrobacterium 4) Aphids
12. The nucleic acid that silences specific mRNA of nematode Meloidegyne incognitia is
1) ss RNA 2) ds RNA
3) ss DNA 4) ds DNA
13. The most powerful tool /technique used to identify genetic disorders is
1) Polymerase chain reaction 2) ELISA
3) DNA fingerprinting 4) RNA interference
14. Which part of the flower becomes non-functional in transgenic Brassica napus plant?
1) Calyx 2) Corolla 3) Androecium 4) Gynoecium
15. The school of Cyto-genetics and Radiation Research is established at
1) NBRI 2) IARI 3) ICAR 4) BSI
16. The white rust resistant variety of Brassica developed by plant breeding is
1) Himgiri 2) Pusa Swarnim
3) Pusa Shubra 4) Pusa Komal
17. Pusa Sadabahar is a mosaic virus free variety of
1) Wheat 2) Brassica
3) Cauliflower 4) Chillie
18. Pusa Sem 2 and Pusa Sem 3 varieties of flat beans are resistant to
1) Jassids 2) Aphids
3) Fruit borer 4) All the above
19. Which of the following pair of characters prevent boll worm infestation in cotton
1) Smooth leaved and nectar containing cotton plants
2) Smooth leaved and nectar less cotton plants
3) Hairy leaved and nectar containing cotton plants
4) Hairy leaved and nectar less cotton plants
20. The free living fungus very common in root ecosystems is
1) Alternaria species
2) Phytophthora species
3) Trichoderma species
4) Puccinia species
21. The enzyme known to prevent heart attacks is
1) Streptokinase 2) Cyclosporin A
3) Lipase 4) Protease
22. Haploid plant body is a common feature of which of the following groups?
1) Bryophytes and pteridophytes
2) Fungi, algae and pteridophytes
3) Bryophytes and gymnosperms
4) Fungi, algae and bryophytes
23. Parthenogenesis refers to
1) Development of embryo from unfertilised diploid female gamete
2) Development of embryo from diploid zygote
3) Development of fruit without fertilization
4) Development of seed without fertilization
24. The substance responsible for preservation of pollen in fossil plants is
1) Peptidoglycon 2) Sporopollenin
3) Pectin 4) Murein
25. Michaelia and Annona show gynoecium which is
1) Monocarpellary
2) Multicarpellary syncarpous
3) Multicarpellary apocarpous
4) Multicarpellary sub-apocarpus
26. The angiospermic family in which we see 180q curvature of the ovule
1) Fabaceae 2) Asteraceae
3) Cucurbitaceae 4) Cactaceae
27. Anthocephalus kadamba and Kigelia are pollinated by
1) Birds 2) Bees 3) Bats 4) Butterflies
28. Which of the following outbreeding devices is shown by Datura and Solanum to prevent
self-pollination?
1) Protandry 2) Protogyny 3) Dicliny 4) Herkogamy
29. Scutellum is found in the family
1) Solanaceae 2) Poaceae 3) Asteraceae 4) Fabaceae
30. The angiospermic family known for its microscopic seeds produced in large numbers is
1) Poaceae 2) Liliaceae 3) Orchidaceae 4) Fabaceae
31. Which of the following statements truly justifies osmosis through a selectively permeable
membrane?
1) Movement of solvent from a region of higher solvent concentration to a region of lower solvent concentration
2) Movement of solvent from a region of lower solvent concentration to a region of higher solvent concentration
3) Movement of solvent from a region of higher solute concentration to a region of lower solute concentration
4) Movement of solvent from a region of lower water potential to a region of higher water potential
32. Which of the following statements is true?
1) Iron is a constituent of cytochrome and chlorophyll
2) Iron is a constituent of cytochrome but not chlorophyll
3) Magnesium is a constituent of cytochrome and chlorophyll
4) Magnesium is a constituent of cytochrome but not chlorophyll
33. The element required for activity of both nitrogenase and nitrate reductase enzymes is
1) Zinc 2) Magnesium 3) Molybdenum 4) Manganese
34. Chlorine deficiency leads to
1) Bronzing in legume
2) Mouse ear in pecan
3) Whiptail in cauliflower
4) Die back in citrus
35. Assertion (A): Excess of Manganese induces deficiency of Iron, Magnesium and Calcium.
Reason (R): Manganese competes with uptake of calcium and translocation of Iron and Magnesium.
1) Both A and R are true
2) A is true but R is false
3) A is false but R is true
4) Both A and R are false
36. An example of Transferase class of enzymes is
1) Glutamine synthetase
2) Phospho kinase
3) Fructose 1, 6 bis phospatase
4) Argino succinase
37. The co-factor that can form co-ordination bonds with side chain of enzyme active size and also co-ordinate bonds with substrate is
1) Prosthetic group 2) Co-enzyme
3) Metal ions 4) All the above
38. T.W Engelmann in his experiment on action spectrum of photosynthesis used a green alga
1) Chlorella 2) Chlamydomonas
3) Spirogyra 4) Cladophora
39. The utilization of ATPs and NADPHs for every cycle of Calvin is
1) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
2) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
3) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH
4) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH
40. The third oxidation in Kreb’s cycle employs the enzyme
1) Iso citric dehydrogenase
2) D – keto glutaric acid dehydrogenase
3) Succinic dehydrogenase
4) Malic dehydrogenase
41. Auxins were first isolated from
1) Human urine 2) Canary grass
3) Oat coleoptiles 4) Coconut endosperm
42. ABA is derived from which of the following precursors?
1) Adenine 2) Carotenoid
3) Terpene 4) Indole compound
43. Father of Ecology in India is
1) Panchanan Maheswari 2) Ramdeo Misra
3) J.C Bose 4) V. S. RamDas
44. Mangroves of West Bengal are a good
example for the following ecological services
1) Supporting services
2) Provisioning services
3) Cultural services 4) Regulating services
45. Loss of chromosome identity and formation of Golgi complex and Endoplasmic reticulum
are the events during
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase
3) Anaphase 4) Telophase
46. Due to splitting of centromere chromatids move towards poles during anaphase of
1) Mitosis only 2) Mitosis and Meiosis I
3) Mitosis and Meiosis II
4) Mitosis, Meiosis I and Meiosis II
Answers / Key:
1-3, 2-3, 3-2, 4-4, 5-3, 6-4, 7-4, 8-1, 9-2, 10-4, 11-1, 12-2, 13-1, 14-3, 15-2, 16-2, 17-4, 18-4, 19-2, 20-3, 21-1, 22-4, 23-1, 24-2, 25-3, 26-2, 27-3, 28-2, 29-2, 30-3, 31-1, 32-2, 33-3, 34-1, 35-2, 36-2, 37-3, 38-4, 39-2, 40-3, 41-1, 42-2, 43-2, 44-4, 45-4, 46-3.