TET Practice Questions – Page 6

Q.Nos. (1-4): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Most people can remember a phone number for upto thirty seconds. When this short amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are
erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the Short Term Memory
(STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the working memory.

There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most accepted theory comes from George A. Miller,
a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a
meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number.

Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long term storage.

When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many people engage in “rote rehearsal”. By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice “elaborate rehearsal”. This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term memories.

Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it
may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.

1. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A) They revert from the long term memory.
B) They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C) They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D) They enter via the nervous system.

2. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A) The working memory is the same as the short term memory.
B) A memory is kept alive through constant repetition.
C) Cues help people to recognize information.
D) Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.

3. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A) By organizing it
B) By repeating it
C) By giving it a name
D) By drawing it

4. Why does the author mention a dog’s bark?
A) To give an example of a type of memory
B) To provide a type of interruption
C) To prove that dogs have better memories than humans
D) To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell

5. I shouted ….. him across the river?
Select the appropriate preposition.
A) at B) for C) to D) of

6. A man is walking down a road. There is a dog with ……. man.
Insert suitable article, if necessary.
A) a B) an C) the D) zero article

7. You’ve borrowed such a great deal of money from me lately. I need to ……… exactly how much you owe me. Locate the correct phrasal verb in the context.
A) make up B) put out C) work out D) clear up

8. I ……… come to the conclusion that nowadays nobody cares about anything. Choose the correct verb form to fill in the
blank.
A) will B) had C) do D) have

9. ……… they feel threatened, dogs sometimes display aggressive behaviour. Opt the best conjunction appropriate for the context.
A) Until B) During C) When D) Before

10. Find the sentence in the following which has more than one independent clause and at least one dependent clause.
A) We were exhausted, but we arrived in time for my father’s birthday party.
B) Although he is now 79 years old, he still claims to be 65.
C) After it was all over, my dad claimed he knew we were planning something, but we think he was really surprised.
D) We drove from Mumbai to Cochin in one day.

11. “Carol, speak English.” Choose the right reported speech version.
A) He told Carol to speak in English.
B) He asked Carol to speak in English.
C) He pleaded Carol to speak in English.
D) He suggested Carol to speak in English.

12. They let us go. Find the correct transformation of voice.
A) We were let go.
B) We were let gone.
C) We had been let to go.
D) We were let to go.

13. Which of the following closing sentiments do experts say is
inappropriate in personal letters?
A) Warmly yours B) Lovingly C) Sincerely D) Devotedly

14. Choose the error free sentence.
A) Ramesh is elder than Vijay.
B) Chithra discussed about education.
C) Rohith is cleverer than any girl in the class.
D) Sunny is twelve years.

15. I do not think that it will rain tomorrow, Add the right question tag.
A) will it? B) do you? C) isn’t it? D) doesn’t it?

16. Listening quietly is quite difficult. Identify the part of speech of the word underlined.
A) Adverb B) Adjective C) Verb D) Preposition

17. Which is correct in its spelling?
A) supersede B) supercede C) superceed D) superscede

18. A funny imitation of a poem Pick the right one-word substitute.
A) Caricature B) Parody C) Mockery D) Soliloquy

19. He (A) / will leave (B) / you (C) / in lunch (D). Find the error part.
A) D B) B C) C D) A

20. Rachana is always honest. Label the type of adverb underlined.
A) Adverb of Time
B) Adverb of Frequency
C) Adverb of Degree
D) None of these.

21. There is a law in France, which says that only the family has the right to decide what ……. or not known about the health of
a patient. Choose the right option.
A) must be known
B) must have known
C) must have been known
D) must be knowing

22. I would stay away from that guy if I were you, he has a screw loose. Find out the suitable selection in tune with the part underlined.
A) is dangerous. B) is annoying. C) is crazy D) is a flirt.

23. If I had money, I could spend it. Decide the sense of the clause underlined.
A) I would be able to spend it.
B) I would possibly spend it.
C) I will spend it.
D) I think about spending it.

24. This test is very difficult for children aged fifteen and I’m afraid they will have to … …… it. Choose the best fit.
A) adjust B) fit C) adapt D) alter

ANSWERS : 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) C 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) A 24) C.

1. Language is primarily ……….
1) Speech 2) Sign 3) Gesture 4) Sound

2. The statement ‘Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste, in opinion, in morals and in intellect’ refers to ……….
1) Woods Despatch – 1854
2) Mecaulay’s Minute – 1835
3) Michael Sadler – 1917
4) University commission – 1902

3. The first language Institute in India was established ……….
1) in Allahabad in 1954
2) in Hyderabad in 1958
3) in Bangalore in 1963
4) in Mysore in 1971

4. ‘Language is a system of arbitrary vocal symbols used for human communication’ said by ……….
1) Webster’s Dictionary 2) Wardhaugh
3) Sapir 4) Otto Jesperson

5. The first English Dictionary ……….
1) Samuel Johnson’s Dictionary
2) Webster’s Dictionary
3) A Table Alphabetical
4) Oxford Dictionary

6. Match the following.
1) Phonology a) the system of meaning
2) Morphology b) the system of word order
3) Syntax c) the system of sounds
4) Semantics d) the system of words
1) 1-a 2-b 3-c 4-d
2) 1-b 2-c 3-a 4-d
3) 1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b
4) 1-c 2-d 3-b 4-a

7. The status of ‘Library Language’ was given to English by ……….
1) Prof Gokak Committee
2) Sadler’s Committee
3) Kothari Commission
4) Mudaliar Commission

8. Fathers of Listening ……….
1) James Brown, Ralph Nichols, Carl Weaver
2) Rodger Richards, M.Rivers, Ralph Nichols
3) Carl Weaver, Wohin and Coakley, Krashen
4) Fan Yagnag, Dunkel, Morley

9. Something that deals with procedure and steps followed by the teacher in the language teaching is ……….
1) an approach 2) a method 3) a technique 4) a strategy

10. Remedial teaching is intended to……….
1) revise the topics taught
2) diagnose the difficult areas and plan for learning experiences
3) revise the curriculum
4) change the teaching techniques

11. Example for ‘Structural Words’ ……….
1) determiners
2) helping verbs
3) prepositions and conjunctions
4) all the above

12. The use of Mother Tongue is allowed to be used by the teacher alone in ………. method
1) Direct 2) GT 3) Bilingual 4) Total Physical Response

13. A file/ folder with a collection of learner’s work assembled over a period of time is called ……….
1) Dairy 2) Journal writing 3) Portfolio 4) Narratives

14. The three ‘S’s of Reading are ……….
1) Symbol, Sound and Shape
2) Symbol, Shape and Sense
3) Sound, Symbol and Shape
4) Symbol, Sound and Sense

15. Reading for gist is called ……….
1) Organising 2) Predicting 3) Scanning 4) Skimming

16. Explaining the causes and effects of pollution is an example for ……….
1) Descriptive writing
2) Persuasive writing
3) Expository writing
4) Narrative writing

17. ‘Prose is the words in their best order’ was said by ……….
1) Mathew Arnold 2) S.T. Coleridge
3) Tennyson 4) Francis Bacon

18. Pupils try to understand some words which they come across either in listening or reading, but they don’t need to use them. Such
type of vocabulary is ……….
1) Active Vocabulary
2) Adhoc Vocabulary
3) Recognition Vocabulary
4) None of the above

19. A Scaled down version of the internship Programme of teacher training is known as ……….
1) Team Teaching
2) Micro Teaching
3) Pedagogic teaching
4) Learner centred teaching

20. Coming back on the print to check previous words is ……….
1) Sub vocalisation 2) Regrouping 3) Redundancy 4) Regression

21. Basic English was introduced by ……….
1) H.E. Palmer 2) Ogden 3) Jesperson 4) Thorndike

22. Telephonic Conversation is an example for ……….
1) Intra – Personal Communication
2) Inter – Personal Communication
3) Group Communication
4) Mass Communication

23. Findout the Labio-dental Consonants in the following.
1) /p/ /b/ 2) /f/ /v/ 3) /s/ /z/ 4) /t/ /dz/

24. The earlier inhabitants of British Isles ……….
1) Normans 2) Angles 3) Saxons 4) Celts

25. ‘Beowulf’ was written in ……….
1) Middle English 2) Old English 3) Modern English 4) Greek

26. The following one is the best explanation for the term ‘curriculum’ ……….
1) an organised plan of a course
2) an academic foundation
3) an evaluation process
4) a process of learning

27. The term ‘communicative competence’ was coined by ……….
1) Hymes 2) Canale and Swain 3) Chomsky 4) Keith Morrow

28. Read the following set of words. Some – Sum
Now select the right option to which they belong ……….
1) Synonyms 2) Hypernyms 3) Homophones 4) Homonyms

29. Diary writing of a student could be used in ……….
1) Summative Evaluation
2) Analytical Evaluation
3) Critical Evaluation
4) Formative Evaluation

30. The principal motto of child centred education proposed by NCF-2005 is to ……….
1) all round development of the child
2) link with life outside the school
3) promote knowledge in all spheres
4) Facilitate activity oriented education

31. Glancing rapidly through a text to obtain specific information is ……….
1) skimming 2) scanning 3) predicting 4) interpreting

32. Intonation refers to ……….
1) stress on words
2) variation in pitch of the voice
3) the degree of force on sentences
4) a convenient breath group

33. Transformational Generative Grammar was developed by ……….
1) Chomsky 2) Widdowson 3) Halliday 4) Canale

34. Match the following.
1) GT- Method a) Emphasis on Listening
2) Direct Method b) Fluency and Accuracy
3) Bilingual Method c) A bond between thought and expression
4) Total Physical d) Excessive use of response mother tongue
1) 1-d 2-c 3-b 4-a
2) 1-d 2-c 3-a 4-b
3) 1-c 2-d 3-b 4-a
4) None

ANSWERS : 1)1 2)2 3)1 4)2 5)3 6)4 7)3 8)1 9)2 10)2 11)4 12)3 13)3 14)4 15)4 16)3 17)2 18)3 19)2 20)4 21)2 22)2 23)2 24)4 25)2 26)1 27)1 28)3 29)4 30)2 31)2 32)2 33)1 34)1.

AP TET English Content Paper – II Practice Questions with Answers

TET English Pedagogy Study Material