10th Model Papers

SSC PUBLIC EXAMINATION
PHYSICAL SCIENCES PAPER – I (ENGLISH MEDIUM)
PARTS A and B
SECTION – I
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE questions, choosing at least TWO from each group.
2. Each question carries TWO marks. 5 × 2 = 10

Group – A
1. Define positive zero error and least count of a screw gauge.
2. Write differences between mass and weight.
3. What are the uses of radio isotopes?
4. What is centrifuge? How does it work?

Group – B
5. Mention any two demerits of Bohr’s model of atom.
6. What are functions of proteins?
7. Mention any four industrial uses of oils and fats.
8. Write differences between alkanes and alkenes.

SECTION – II
Note: 1. Answer any FOUR questions among the following.
2. Each question carries ONE mark. 4 × 1 = 4

9. What is the maximum height reached by a body, when it is thrown up vertically with an initial velocity of 10 m/ s? (g = 10m/ s2)
10. Write any two uses of infra red rays.
11. State inverse square law of magnetism.
12. State Mendeleev’s periodic law.
13. Why do we add KCl and NaCl2 during Mg extraction?
14. The H+ ion concentration of a solution is 0.0001M. Find its pH.

SECTION – III
Note: 1. Answer any FOUR questions, choosing at least TWO from each group.
2. Each question carries FOUR marks. 4 × 4 = 16

Group – A
15. Describe a ripple tank. How does it help in understanding
reflection and refraction of light?
16. Write differences between a progressive wave and a stationary
wave.
17. Derive Q = i2Rt/J.
18. Describe the formation of p-type and n-type semiconductors.

Group – B
19. Define acids and bases as per Arrhenius theory and write any two defects of the theory.
20. Explain the formation of co-ordinate covalent bond with an example.
21. 4 gms of NaOH (mol.wt = 40) is dissolved in 34.2 gms of water (mol.wt = 18). Find the mole fractions of NaOH and water.
22. Define drug and mention the requirements that an ideal drug should satisfy.

SECTION – IV
Note: 1. Answer any ONE of the following questions.
2. This question carries FIVE marks. 1 × 5 = 5

23. Draw a neat diagram of a nuclear reactor and label the parts.
24. Draw a neat diagram to show the extraction of Mg.

PART – B
Note: 1) Answer all questions
2) Each question carries 1/2 mark
3) Candidates must use the capital letters while answering the multiple choice questions
4) Marks will not be awarded in case of any overwriting or rewriting or erased answers.

I. Multiple choice questions:
1. Units of ‘G’ in S.I. system [ ]
A. Nm2Kg-2 B. N/kg C. kg/Nm2 D. Nm2/kg
2. The velocity of a body when it is dropped from height ‘h’ on
reaching the earth is [ ]
A. u2/2g B. u/g C. 2gh D. √2hg
3. Electromagnetic radiations with shortest wave length are [ ]
A. Infra red rays B. gamma rays C. ultraviolet rays D. X-rays
4. Lumen is the unit of [ ]
A. luminous flux B. solid angle C. luminous intensity D. candle power
5. One K.W.H. = [ ]
A. 36×103 watt. sec. B. 36×1010 watt. sec C. 36×108 watt. sec.
D. 36×105 watt. sec.
6. The number of ‘m’ values for l = 3 is [ ]
A. 7 B. 4 C. 2 D. 3
7. Carnalite is [ ]
A. MgCO3, CaCO3 B. MgCl2, KCl, 6H2O
C. CaSO4, 3H2O D. MgCO3, 2H2O
8. If the pH of a solution is 6, its [H+] is [ ]
A. log 10-6 B. 106 C. 10-6 D. 6
9. This is present in Benedict solution [ ]
A. silver nitrate B. copper carbonate C. copper oxide D. copper sulphate
10. Chromophore [ ]
A. binds the dye to the fibre B. soaks the cloth C. imparts colour to the dye D. intensifies the colour of the dye

II. Fill in the blanks.
11. The scale that is market on index line is called —.
12. Centre seeking force is called —.
13. Oscillations that take place under the influence of external
periodic force are called —.
14. The relationship between magnetic flux density (B), and intensity of magnetic field (H) is —.
15. The camera that contains cathode rays and photocells is known as —.
16. Sixth period in a periodic table has — elements.
17. Some substances such as sucrose, glucose etc., when dissolved
in water do not decompose into ions. These substances are called —.
18. The presence of alcoholic functional group is tested by addition
of — metal.
19. — enzyme breaks the glucose molecule.
20. Azimuthal quantum number (I) gives the — of sub-shell or orbital.

III. Match the following:
1) Physics
Group – A Group – B
21. Velocity of sound in air [ ] A) W/q
22. Angular momentum (L) [ ] B) v.i.t/J
23. Quantity of heat [ ] C) √ϒ.P/ρ
24. Magnetic field induction [ ] D) m.ω.r2
25. potential difference [ ] E) √P/ ϒρ F) m.ω2.r G) μ0.m/4πr2
2) Chemistry

Group-A Group-B
26. pentene [ ] A) C8H16
27. Octane [ ] B) -COOR
28. Butyne [ ] C) -CHO
29. Ester [ ] D) -C5H12
30. Aldehyde [ ] E) C8H18 F) C5H10 G) C4H6

SSC / 10th Class Social Studies Model Paper
Paper – II (English Version)
Parts A and B – Time: 2.30 Hours Max. Marks: 50

PART – A (TIME: 2.00 HOURS MARKS: 35)
SECTION – I
Answer any Five of the following choosing at least two from each group. 5 × 2 = 10

GROUP – A
1) Why is Srinagar called “Heaven (Paradise) on the earth”
2) Differentiate Major, Medium and Minor irrigation schemes
3) What are the extreme places of Indian land frontiers?
4) What are the important soil conservation methods?

GROUP – B
5) When were the annual plans implemented? What were the
reasons to implement annual plans?
6) List out the poverty eradication programmes
7) Classify the industries on the basis of output
8) What are called ‘Intermediate Goods Industries’? Give examples.

SECTION – II
Answer any four of the following questions. 4 × 1 = 4
9) Why are sugar industries concentrated in the sugarcane growing areas only?
10) Name the important coal bases in India
11) Name the important countries who import Indian goods
12) What is meant by ‘Per capita Income’?
13) What are the two important problems faced by Indian economy?
14) What is the primary objective of planning in India?

SECTION – III
Answer any four of the following choosing at least two from each group 4 × 4 = 16

GROUP – A
15) “The transport and communications are the lifelines of a country” why?
16) Explain the structures of East and West coastal plains.
17) What are the problems faced by Indian agriculture?
18) Examine the need for forest development in India?

GROUP – B
19) Distinguish between developed and less developed Countries of the world.
20) What are the factors causing inequalities in income and wealth?
21) Explain the significance of service sector in Indian economy.
22) Describe various economic systems.

SECTION – IV 1 × 5 = 5
23) Mark the following on the outline map of India
Set A 1) Dehradun 2) Pulicat lake 3) Sikkim
4) Head Quarters of Eastern Railway 5) NH 9
(or)
Set B 1) Jamshedpur 2) Chotanagapur Plateau 3) Varanasi
4) Cochin port 5) Railway line from Delhi to Chennai

PART – B (TIME: 30 MINUTES MARKS: 15)
I. Choose the correct answer. 10 × 1/2 = 5
1) These soils are formed by weathering of crystalline and metamorphic
rocks- [ ]
A) Alluvial soils B) Laterite soils
C) Mountain soils D) Red soils

2) The average population density of India (2001) is- [ ]
A) 273 B) 275 C) 324 D) 342

3) Hiracud project is in —– State. [ ]
A) Orissa B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Himachal Pradesh D) Karnataka

4) The average size of land holding in India is- [ ]
A) 0.7 Hectares B) 1.7 Hectares
C) 2.7 Hectares D) 3.7 Hectares

5) The place of India among the countries of manganese producers-
[ ]
A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth

6) Income earned through work and labour is called [ ]
A) National income B) Per Capita income
C) Unearned income D) Earned income

7) Command Area Development projects are introduced in —–[ ]
A) Irrigation B) Housing
C) Health D) Commerce

8) Maximum investment in the unit of small scale industry- [ ]
A) Rs. 5 lakhs B) Rs. 1.5 crores
C) Rs. 20 lakhs D) Rs. 35 lakhs

9) ‘Heavy Industry Development’ was the strategy of- [ ]
A) Second five year plan B) Third five year plan
C) Fourth five year plan D) Fifth five year plan

10) This was the objective of Fifth Five year plan- [ ]
A) Poverty eradication B) Self reliance
C) Agricultural Development D) A and B

II. Fill in the blanks. 10 × 1/2 = 5

11) Sandal wood trees are well grown in —— state.
12) Ooty is in —— hills.
13) Durgapur Steel Plant was built with the assistance of ——
(country).
14) —— country has a largest network of post offices in the
world.
15) Full form of OPEC is ——.
16) Control of the population was one of the main objectives of
—— Five year plan.
17) Reserve Bank of India was established in ——.
18) There are —— sectors in Occupational structure.
19) In —— unemployment the marginal productivity is zero or
negative.
20) In —— economic system, the supply and demand forces
determine the price levels.

III. Match the following. 10 × 1/2 = 5

SET – A
GROUP – A GROUP – B
21) N.H.7 [ ] B) Cochin
22) Malabar Coast [ ] B) Himalayas
23) Secure Flood [ ] C) Delhi
prone zone
24) Continental [ ] D) Kolkata to Kanyakumari
climate
25) Mismi hills [ ] E) Brahmaputra valley
F) Gujarat
G) Kanyakumari
H) Arunachal Pradesh
SET – B
26) Human Development Index [ ] A) Manmohan Singh
27) Plunder of wealth [ ] B) D.Subba Rao
28) Governor of R.B.I. [ ] C) Lord cornwallis
29) Chairman of planning [ ] D) Dadabhai
commission Nauroji
30) Zamindari system [ ] E) Amartya sen
F) D.R.Gadgil
G) Lord Mount Batten
H) J.M.Keynes