March 2018 – india vidya

Following are important practice / model questions for RRB examinations. The questions are useful for RRB Group – D and ALP Technical jobs. There will be General Awareness / General Knowledge section in RRB exams. The answers / key for these questions is given at the end of the questions.

1. Robert Langlands, who won the 2018 Abel Prize, is a renowned Mathematician of which country?
A) India B) France C) United States D) Canada

2. Kedarnath Singh passed away recently. He belonged to which field?
A) Politics B) Dance C) Poetry D) Music

3. Which social media platform has been accused of data breach in relation to the Cambridge Analytica controversy?
A) Twitter B) Facebook C) Instagram D) We Chat

4. Akshardham Temple located in
A) Haryana B) Gujarat C) Delhi D) Punjab

5. Gangaikonda Cholapuram built by
A) Raja Raja I B) Rajendra I
C) Kulottunga I D) Aditya I

6. Ezhuthachan Puraskaram is the highest literary award of which among the following Governments?
A) Karnataka B) Tamilnadu C) Kerala D) Jharkand

7. How many Indian languages are recognized by the Sahitya Akademi for its awards?
A) 24 B) 22 C) 16 D) 26

8. “A Brief History of Time” famous book written by
A) Michael Faraday B) Max Planc
C) Stephen Hawking D) Jasson Time

9. Arrhythmia is a disease related to
A) Liver B) Heart C) Lungs D) Eyes

10. What is the Doomsday Clock?
A) It is a World clock at Greenwich
B) It is Oldest clock in the world
C) it reveals the possibility of global catastrophe
D) it measures day and night time of earth

11. Which of the following Committee appointed to Monitor Bad Loans ?
A) Chidambaram B) Y V Reddy
C) Bimal Jalan D) Malegam

12. Which of the following plays an important role in the cause of rainfall ?
A) Evaporation B) Condensation
C) Both evaporation and condensation
D) Filtration

13. Uber Cup related to ?
A) Cricket B) Football C) Tennis D) Badminton

14. Who is the author of ‘Panchatantra’?
A) Vishakhadatta B) Vatsyayana
C) RK. Narayan D) Vishnu Sharma

15. Hawa Mahal is situated in
A) Jaipur C) Bikaner B) Udaipur D) Ajmer

16. Mango Showers is the name of ….
A) Banginapalli Mangos
B) Pre-Monsoon Rainfall
C) New Hybrid Mangos
D) Irrigation Scheme

17. Which Indian mass movement began with the famous ‘Dandi March’ of Mahatma Gandhi?
A) Swadeshi Movement
B) Non-Cooperation Movement
C) Quit India Movement
D) Civil Disobedience Movement

18. Which of the following is a sacred text of Jainism?
A) Triratna B) Jathaka stories
C) Tripitakas D) Angas

19. What is the Motto 0f 2018 Commonwealth games?
A) Divided by Countries United by Sports
B) Spirit of Sports
C) Energy of Commonwealth Countries
D) Share the Dream

20. Which of the following country won highest number of Gold medals in 2018 Winter Paralympics?
A) Norway B) China C) USA D) South Korea

21. All England Open 2018 Women Singles won by
A) PV Sindhu B) Carolina Marin
C) Nozomu Okuhara D) Tai Tzu-Ying

22. Navjot Kaur is first Indian woman to win gold medal at
A) Winter Olympics
B) Asian Wrestling Championship
C) CommonWealth games
D) World Wrestling Championship

23. Fluorimeter measure
A) Fluids in Space Craft
B) Oil spill in the environment
C) Uranium in water
D) Mercury in water

24. Prime Minister was inaugurated 105th Indian Science Congress in
A) Imphal B) Lucknow C) Hyderabad D) Kohima

25. Which of the following is used as moderator?
A) Hydrogen B) Water C) Gasoline D) Boron

26. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring nuclear fuel?
A) Plutonium-239 B) Thorium-233
C) Uranium-238 D) None of these

27. Water movement against gravity is caused by….
A) Imbibitions B) Transpiration
C) Osmosis D) Diffusion

28. Coagulation of blood in the vessel is prevented during normal condition by
A) Calcium B) Prothrombin C) Heparin D) Albumin

29. The SI Unit of power of a lens is
A) Dioptre B) Watt C) Celsius D) Hertz

30. What is the most abundant element on the Earth crust?
A) Silicon B) Aluminium C) Oxygen D) None of these

31. “Why I am A Hindu” written by
A) Mohan Baghawat B) LK Advani
C) Prakash Javedkar D) Sashi Tharoor

32. Which among the following is the correct statement about Black Ice?
A) It is the product of the freezing of water droplets in highly polluted air
B) It is the thin transparent layer of ice made up usually on roads and pavement
C) It is the solid Carbon Dioxide
D) It is the frozen water of a highly polluted river

33. The speed of sound is maximum in which of the following?
A) Air at 0qC B) Air at 100qC
C) Water D) At all places it is maximum

34. Which among the following was founder of Satavahana Dynasty?
A) Satakarni B) Pulomavi
C) Kuntala Satakarni D) Simuka

35. No- Confidence can be introduced in
A) Loksabha only B) Rajysabha only
C) Either of the houses D) None of these

36. No- Confidence motion can be introduced by
A) Opposition party member
B) Ruling party member
C) Any Member of Parliament
D) Loksabha member only

37. Headquarter of International Energy Agency (IEA) is
A) Geneva B) Paris C) Abudabi D) Vienna

38. NFRA stands for
A) National Financial Reform Agency
B) National Fraud Report Agency
C) National Financial Reconstruction Agency
D) National Financial Reporting Authority

39. Which of the following Vitamin is a fat soluble?
A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin B complex
C) Vitamin D D) None of these

40. Cellulose is a
A) Vitamin B) Protein C) Carbohydrate D) Enzyme

41. What will happen if the pH in your mouth is below 5.5?
A) Bacteria in the mouth will get killed
B) Bacteria in the mouth will neutralize the access acid
C) Bacteria in the mouth will produce sugar by degradation of acids
D) Tooth enamel will get corroded

42. Which one among the following does not have an allotrope?
A) Oxygen B) Sulphur C) Nitrogen D) Carbon

Answers / Key:

1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B, 6-C, 7-A, 8-C, 9-B, 10-C, 11-D, 12-C, 13-D, 14-D, 15-A, 16-B, 17-D, 18-D, 19-D, 20-C, 21-D, 22-B, 23-C, 24-A, 25-B, 26-A, 27-B, 28-C, 29-A, 30-C, 31-D, 32-B, 33-C, 34-D, 35-A, 36-D, 37-B, 38-D, 39-D, 40-C, 41-D, 42-C.

Following are important model questions / objective questions for practice for NEET – UG and other medical entrance examinations in the country. Students can practice these multiple choice questions prepared by the experts in subject concerned (Botany). Botany and Zoology questions consist of 50 percent m arks in NEET and state level entrance exams like EAMCET etc.

IIT Stuents from AP

1. The living organisms that show most extensive metabolic diversity are
1) Animals 2) Plants 3) Bacteria 4) Viruses

2. Archebacteria can survive extreme conditions because
1) Their cell wall contains peptidoglycan
2) Their cell wall contains pseudomurein
3) Cell membrane contains branched chain lipids
4) All the above

3. The division spermatophyta includes
1) Gymnosperms and pteridophytes
2) Dicotyledons and monocotyledons
3) Pteridophytes and angiosperms
4) Bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms

Also Read: NEET Physics Important Questions

4. Cyanobacteria are characterised by
(A) Peripheral pigmented chromoplasm
(B) Filaments surrounded by chitin sheath
(C) Specialized cells for nitrogen fixation
(D) Presence of flagella
(E) Asexual fragments called hormogonia
1) ABD 2) ACD 3) BDE 4) ACE

5. Find the wrongly matched among the following.
1) Actinomyces – mycolic acid – mycobacterium
2) Mycoplasma – cell wall absent – pleomorphic
3) Eubacteria – pseudomurein – heterotrophs
4) Archaebacteria – pseudomurein – methanogens

6. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Pteridophytes, anigosperms and gymnosperms are embryophytic
(B) Bryophytes and pteridophytes are nonvascular
(C) Gymnosperms and dicots are archegoniate
(D) Algae and angiosperms are nonarchegoniates
1) AB 2) BC 3) CD 4) AD

7. Match the following:

a. Volvox i. Diplohaplontic
b. Pteris ii. Diplobiontic
c. Polysiphonia iii. Haplodiplontic
d. Funaria iv. Haplontic
1) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 2) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
3) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 4) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

8. Preservation of genetic information is due to
1) Asexual reproduction 2) Sexual reproduction
3) Selection 4) Migration

9. Alternative selective markers are used in
1) Polymerase chain reaction 2) Insertional inactivation
3) Down stream processing 4) Ligation

10. Which of the enzymes are correctly matched to the process?
(A) Chimaeric DNA synthesis – ligase
(B) RNA removal – Ribonuclease
(C) Bacterial cell wall digestion – lysozyme
1) AB 2) AC 3) BC 4) ABC

Also Read: NEET – UG Model Papers

11. Biological pest control of Lepidopterans, coleopterans and dipterans is better achieved by using
1) Bacillus thuringiensis 2) Trichoderma
3) Agrobacterium 4) Aphids

12. The nucleic acid that silences specific mRNA of nematode Meloidegyne incognitia is
1) ss RNA 2) ds RNA
3) ss DNA 4) ds DNA

13. The most powerful tool /technique used to identify genetic disorders is
1) Polymerase chain reaction 2) ELISA
3) DNA fingerprinting 4) RNA interference

14. Which part of the flower becomes non-functional in transgenic Brassica napus plant?
1) Calyx 2) Corolla 3) Androecium 4) Gynoecium

15. The school of Cyto-genetics and Radiation Research is established at
1) NBRI 2) IARI 3) ICAR 4) BSI

16. The white rust resistant variety of Brassica developed by plant breeding is
1) Himgiri 2) Pusa Swarnim
3) Pusa Shubra 4) Pusa Komal

17. Pusa Sadabahar is a mosaic virus free variety of
1) Wheat 2) Brassica
3) Cauliflower 4) Chillie

18. Pusa Sem 2 and Pusa Sem 3 varieties of flat beans are resistant to
1) Jassids 2) Aphids
3) Fruit borer 4) All the above

19. Which of the following pair of characters prevent boll worm infestation in cotton
1) Smooth leaved and nectar containing cotton plants
2) Smooth leaved and nectar less cotton plants
3) Hairy leaved and nectar containing cotton plants
4) Hairy leaved and nectar less cotton plants

20. The free living fungus very common in root ecosystems is
1) Alternaria species
2) Phytophthora species
3) Trichoderma species
4) Puccinia species

21. The enzyme known to prevent heart attacks is
1) Streptokinase 2) Cyclosporin A
3) Lipase 4) Protease

22. Haploid plant body is a common feature of which of the following groups?
1) Bryophytes and pteridophytes
2) Fungi, algae and pteridophytes
3) Bryophytes and gymnosperms
4) Fungi, algae and bryophytes

23. Parthenogenesis refers to
1) Development of embryo from unfertilised diploid female gamete
2) Development of embryo from diploid zygote
3) Development of fruit without fertilization
4) Development of seed without fertilization

24. The substance responsible for preservation of pollen in fossil plants is
1) Peptidoglycon 2) Sporopollenin
3) Pectin 4) Murein

25. Michaelia and Annona show gynoecium which is
1) Monocarpellary
2) Multicarpellary syncarpous
3) Multicarpellary apocarpous
4) Multicarpellary sub-apocarpus

26. The angiospermic family in which we see 180q curvature of the ovule
1) Fabaceae 2) Asteraceae
3) Cucurbitaceae 4) Cactaceae

27. Anthocephalus kadamba and Kigelia are pollinated by
1) Birds 2) Bees 3) Bats 4) Butterflies

28. Which of the following outbreeding devices is shown by Datura and Solanum to prevent
self-pollination?
1) Protandry 2) Protogyny 3) Dicliny 4) Herkogamy

29. Scutellum is found in the family
1) Solanaceae 2) Poaceae 3) Asteraceae 4) Fabaceae

30. The angiospermic family known for its microscopic seeds produced in large numbers is
1) Poaceae 2) Liliaceae 3) Orchidaceae 4) Fabaceae

31. Which of the following statements truly justifies osmosis through a selectively permeable
membrane?
1) Movement of solvent from a region of higher solvent concentration to a region of lower solvent concentration
2) Movement of solvent from a region of lower solvent concentration to a region of higher solvent concentration
3) Movement of solvent from a region of higher solute concentration to a region of lower solute concentration
4) Movement of solvent from a region of lower water potential to a region of higher water potential

32. Which of the following statements is true?
1) Iron is a constituent of cytochrome and chlorophyll
2) Iron is a constituent of cytochrome but not chlorophyll
3) Magnesium is a constituent of cytochrome and chlorophyll
4) Magnesium is a constituent of cytochrome but not chlorophyll

33. The element required for activity of both nitrogenase and nitrate reductase enzymes is
1) Zinc 2) Magnesium 3) Molybdenum 4) Manganese

34. Chlorine deficiency leads to
1) Bronzing in legume
2) Mouse ear in pecan
3) Whiptail in cauliflower
4) Die back in citrus

35. Assertion (A): Excess of Manganese induces deficiency of Iron, Magnesium and Calcium.
Reason (R): Manganese competes with uptake of calcium and translocation of Iron and Magnesium.
1) Both A and R are true
2) A is true but R is false
3) A is false but R is true
4) Both A and R are false

36. An example of Transferase class of enzymes is
1) Glutamine synthetase
2) Phospho kinase
3) Fructose 1, 6 bis phospatase
4) Argino succinase

37. The co-factor that can form co-ordination bonds with side chain of enzyme active size and also co-ordinate bonds with substrate is
1) Prosthetic group 2) Co-enzyme
3) Metal ions 4) All the above

38. T.W Engelmann in his experiment on action spectrum of photosynthesis used a green alga
1) Chlorella 2) Chlamydomonas
3) Spirogyra 4) Cladophora

39. The utilization of ATPs and NADPHs for every cycle of Calvin is
1) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
2) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
3) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH
4) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH

40. The third oxidation in Kreb’s cycle employs the enzyme
1) Iso citric dehydrogenase
2) D – keto glutaric acid dehydrogenase
3) Succinic dehydrogenase
4) Malic dehydrogenase

41. Auxins were first isolated from
1) Human urine 2) Canary grass
3) Oat coleoptiles 4) Coconut endosperm

42. ABA is derived from which of the following precursors?
1) Adenine 2) Carotenoid
3) Terpene 4) Indole compound

43. Father of Ecology in India is
1) Panchanan Maheswari 2) Ramdeo Misra
3) J.C Bose 4) V. S. RamDas

44. Mangroves of West Bengal are a good
example for the following ecological services

1) Supporting services
2) Provisioning services
3) Cultural services 4) Regulating services

45. Loss of chromosome identity and formation of Golgi complex and Endoplasmic reticulum
are the events during
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase
3) Anaphase 4) Telophase

46. Due to splitting of centromere chromatids move towards poles during anaphase of
1) Mitosis only 2) Mitosis and Meiosis I
3) Mitosis and Meiosis II
4) Mitosis, Meiosis I and Meiosis II

Answers / Key:

1-3, 2-3, 3-2, 4-4, 5-3, 6-4, 7-4, 8-1, 9-2, 10-4, 11-1, 12-2, 13-1, 14-3, 15-2, 16-2, 17-4, 18-4, 19-2, 20-3, 21-1, 22-4, 23-1, 24-2, 25-3, 26-2, 27-3, 28-2, 29-2, 30-3, 31-1, 32-2, 33-3, 34-1, 35-2, 36-2, 37-3, 38-4, 39-2, 40-3, 41-1, 42-2, 43-2, 44-4, 45-4, 46-3.

RRB General Awareness and GK Questions for Group-D and ALP Exams

NEET Botany Model Questions for Practice – Objective Type Bits