TET Practice Questions

Following are English Literature important questions for APSET / TSSET / UGC – NET / Teacher Recruitments (TRT) and other competitive exams related to English Subject. The questions are from 18th Century literature

1. Whose essays were originally published as “Chinese Letters”?
a. Johnson’s b. Boswell’s
c. Gold smith’s d. Addison’s

2. What is the name of the Vicar’s daughter in Goldsmith’s The Vicar of Wakefield ?
a. Helen b. Olivia
c. Barbara d. Portia

3. Goldsmith’s novel ‘The Vicar of Wakefield’ is marked the qualities of ?
a. Humour and Pathos
b. Funny and Satire
c. Bravery d. Ambiguity

4. Tom Bowling in Tobias Smollett’s Roderick Random is a
a. Dancer b. Seaman
c. Artist d. Teacher

5. Tobias Smollett’s ‘The Adventures of Roderick Random’ is a?
a. Picaresque novel
b. Sentimental novel
c. Gothic novel
d. Revolutionary novel

6. Henry Fielding’s Tom Jones has its Picaresque elements and the major part of the action takes place?
a. in the forest b. on the road
c. In the dining hall d. in the den

7. Character Manfred, Isabella, and Conrad are from?
a. The Old English Baron
b. Mysteries of Udolpho
c. Castle of Otranto
d. The Benevolent Man

8. Jane Austen laughed at the book in her ‘Northanger Abbey’ which is a Gothic novel. What is the name of the novel?
a. Castle of Otranto
b. The Old English Baron
c. Mysteries of Udolpho
d. The Romance of the Forest

9. William Beckford wrote Vathek’ first in French in 1782 and translated into English by Samuel Henley in?
a. 1782 b. 1783 c. 1786 d. 1790

10. Natural History of Selborne was written by ?
a. Pope b. Gray c. Cowper d. Gilbert White

11. ‘Memoirs of My Life and Writings (1796) is Edward Gribbon’s life, complied after his death by his friend ?
a. Lord Sheffield b. Burnet
c. Robertson d. David Hume

12. Who was not a member of the Johnson’s Literary Club from the
following ?
a. Edmund Burke b. Edward Gibbon
c. Oliver Goldsmith d. David Hume

13. Sir Joshua Reynolds founded the ’Club’, later called the ‘Literary Club’ Basically he was a/an?
a. Poet b. Essayist
c. Artist d. Philosopher

14. Choose the mismatch from the following.
a. Cibber – Carless Husband
b. Steel – Tender Husband
c. John Home – The Donglas
d. Johnson – Revenge

15. Choose Goldsmith’s play from the following .
1. The Vicer of Wakefield
2. The Vanity of Human Wishes
3. The Good natured Man
4. She Stoops to Conquer
a. Only 1 b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4

16. The Ossianic poems are associated with?
a. Oliver Goldsmith
b. James Macpherson
c. Samuel Johnson
d. Henry Mackensie

17. Mathew Gregory Lewis was called ?
a. Magic Lewis b. Meg Lewis
c. Monk Lewis d. Mott Lewis

18. ‘The Art of Walking the Streets of London‘ is the sub title of the poem from the following
a. Liberty
b. The Deserted Village
c. Trivia d. River

19. The First women novelist is?
a. Jane Austene
b. George Eliot
c. Franceis Burney
d. Virginia Woolf

20. Who says, “the age of prose and reason, our excellent and
indispensable 18th century”
a. Goldsmith b. Bose well
c. Pope d. Arnold

21. Whose poetry was known as ‘nambypamby ’
a. Ambrose Philips
b. John Gay c. Pope
d. John Gay

22. ‘The Err is Human, to forgive divine’ is from
a. The Dunciad
b. The Rape of the Lock
c. The Essay on Criticism
d. Essay on Man

23. Pope’s ‘ The Essay on Criticism was influenced by ?
a. Plato b. Boileau
c. Horace d. b and c

24. Who is not a historian from the following?
a. Edmund Burke b. Robertson
c. David Hume d. Edward Gibbon

25. Mrs. Malaprop is a Character from?
a. The School of Scandal
b. She Stoops to Conquer
c. The Rivals
d. The Good – Natured Man

26. The rise of the English novel in the 18th Century was due to the rise of ?
a. Women education
b. Industrial workers
c. Middle Classes d. peasantry

27. Arrange them in chronological order
a. Songs of Experience, Beggar’s Opera, The Essay on Criticism, The Rape of the Lock
b. The Essay on Criticism, The Rape of the Lock, Beggar’s Opera, Songs of Experience
c. Songs of Experience, The Essay on Criticism, Beggar’s Opera, The Rape of the Lock.
d. The Rape of the Loc,”‘Beggar’s Opera, The Essay on Criticism, Songs of experience

28. Which two countries are related to Laurence Sterne’s A Sentimental Journey’s
a. France, Germany
b. England, Scotland
c. England, France
d. France, Italy

29. Who Says ‘Paradise Lost’ for it’s lack of human interest?
a. George Eliot b. Pope
c. Goldsmith d. Johnson

30. Thomas Deloney’s The Gentle Craft is about ?
a. Praise of Shoemaker
b. Art of Framing
c. Craftsmanship d. b and c

31. Which one of the following was not a satire of William Cowper?
a. Table – talk
b. The Progress of Error
c. Conversation d. The Task

32. All the works are written by Goldsmith except ?
a. The Traveller b. Retaliation
c. The Vanity of Human Wishes
d. Sir Charles Grandson

33. Samuel Johnson’s essays appeared in ?
a. Rambler b. London Magazine
c. a and b d. Gentleman’s Magazine

34. Fingal and Timora were written by?
a. Crabbe b. Gibban
c. Macpherson d. Goldsmith

35. Who wrote the Siege of Troy?
a. Joseph Addision
b. Richard Savage
c. Elkanah Settle d. Johnson

36. The Rise and Fall of the Roman Empire written by?
a. Edmund Burke
b. Edward Gibbon
c. David Hume d. Addison

37. Who was not a letter writer from the following?
a. Lord Chesterfield b. Montagu
c. Horace Walpole d. Boswell

38. Samuel Johnson wrote ‘……’ to pay his mother’s funeral expenses and other debts
a. Irene
b. Rasselas
c. The Vanity of Human Wishes
d. London

39. Caleb Williams was written by?
a. William Godwin
b. Johnson c. Clara Reve
d. Brooke

40. Horace Walpole’s Castle of Otranto story took place in?
a. 12th Century b. 13th Century
c. 5th Century d. 6th Century

41. Mrs Ann Radcliffe’s Mysteries of Udolpho is set?
a. at the end of 12th century
b. at the end of 13th century
c. at the end of 15th century
d. at the end of 16th century

42. Richardson’s second novel is?
a. Virtue Rewarded b. Clarissa
c. Sir Charles Grandson d. b and c

43. The Lousiad is a satire on the personal habits of ?
a. Johnson b. Boswell
c. George III d. Gifford

44. Ode ‘To the Bee’ and to the Gowd spink were written by?
a. Feargusson b. Burns
c. Vaughan d. Herbest

45. Swift’s The Battle of the Books was published in?
a. 1697 b. 1690 c. 1704 d. 1705

46. Which is wrong statement related to 18th century
a. The Essay and the novel were the two chief gifts of the 18th century
b. The 18th century was a great age for letter writing
c. The drama of the 18th century is a dull and dreary
d. The Essay and the novel were not flourished in 18th century

47. Who is called “a dramatic star of the first magnitude”?
a. Shakespeare b. Sheridan
c. Ibsen d. G.B. Shaw

48. Strene’s visit to France influenced his work ?
a. A Sentimental Journey
b. Journal to Eliza
c. Tristram Shandy
d. a and c

49. Who is the funniest Character in Tristram Shady ?
a. Susannah b Corporal Trim
c. Uncle Toby d. Tristram

50. Who is not a character in ‘The School for Scandal’ from the following?
a. Lydia Languish b. Joseph Surface
c. Sir Oliver d. Lady Teazle

Answers:

1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-B, 5-A, 6-B, 7-C, 8-C, 9-C, 10-D, 11-A, 12-D, 13-C , 14-D, 15-D ,16-B, 17-C, 18-C, 19-C, 20-D, 21-A, 22-C, 23-D, 24-A, 25-C, 26-C, 27-B, 28-D, 29-D, 30-A, 31-D, 32-D, 33-A, 34-C, 35-C, 36-B, 37-D, 38-B, 39-A, 40-A, 41-D, 42-B, 43-C, 44-A, 45-A, 46-D, 47-B, 48-B, 49-C, 50-A.

Following are the practice questions for TSPSC – TRT and APPSC – TRT / DSC examinations. The English practice questions for Methodology are given below. Candidates can check the answers at then end of the model / practice questions. These are useful for teachers recruitments, TET cum TRT in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana States.

1. Banishment of Mother Tongue in the class room takes place in ……
1) GT method 2) TPR
3) Bilingual method 4) Direct method

2. The word method in the teaching of reading was first introduced by ……………
1) Dodson 2) Franke
3) Comenius 4) Edmund Prurke

3. The hall mark of structural approach is…..
1) Forming speech habits
2) Mastery of selected structures in meaningful situations.
3) Memorisation of vocabulary.
4) Repetition and drills

4. Selecting frequently occurred structure in SO-S approach denotes ………
1) The utility oriented aspect
2) The simplicity principle
3) The productive oriented aim
4) The easily teachable feature

5. Reading is a ………… skill.
1) Receptive 2) Productive
3) Corrective 4) Possessive

6. Trace out the following reading defect that acts as an obstacle for the reader to read the text in sense group …………
1) Sub vocalising 2) Faulty head movement
3) Regression 4) Finger pointing

7. The rationale in organising skimming and scanning activities is ……….
1) To promote in depth reading
2) To promote reading pace
3) To drive out reading defects
4) To derive pleasure and profit

8. The English teacher can develop speaking skill among the students by …………….
1) Encouraging the students to speak as early as possible
2) Allowing them to speak actively with whatever English they have
3) Accepting even one-word answers to the questions asked
4) All the above

9. James Brown, Ralph Nicholas and Carl Weaver are considered as ……………
1) Fathers of English
2) Fathers of Psychology
3) Fathers of Listening
4) Father of Pedagogy

10. Listening to Judge or evaluate is called…
1) Critical listening
2) Discriminative listening
3) Appreciative listening
4) Therapeutic listening

11. Chapter-3 of NCFSE deals with ……………
1) Pre Service teacher education
2) In-service Teacher Education
3) Language Education with special reference to English
4) Quality Education

12. A pre requisite for language learning is……
1) Input rich communicational environment
2) Rich curriculum
3) Aptitudes and Interests
4) Updated teaching methods

13. Language Laboratories are highly helpful in ……….
1) Practising pattern/ words/ drills
2) Listening comprehension
3) Writing comprehension
4) 1 and 2

14. The main objective of using visual aids in the class room ……….
1) To provide entertainment to the students
2) To provide relief to the teacher
3) To attract the attention of the students
4) All

15. “Bad writing is a sign of imperfect education”- said by ……
1) Jawaharlal Nehru 2) Mahatma Gandhi
3) H. Champion 4) Raimes

16. Which of the following can be used as authentic materials?
1) Readers
2) Supplementry Readers
3) Work books
4) Soap wrappers, advertisements in newspapers etc

17. SUCCESS-stands for ……
1) Successful universalising of secondary schools
2) Successful utilisation of quality and Access in secondary schools
3) Strengthening and universalisation of Quality and Access to secondary schools
4) Strengthening and uplifting of quality and access in secondary schools

18. Mecaulay’s minute aimed at …….
1) Preparing young men who would be English in blood and colour
2) Preparing young men who would be Indian in colour and English in tastes
3) Preparing young men who would be Indians in tastes and beliefs
4) None of the above

19. Good hand writing comes under ……….
1) Syntactical Writing
2) Mechanics of Writing
3) Unity of thought 4) Coherence

20. The words that we could recognise but do not use actively are known as ……….
1) Active Vocabulary
2) Passive Vocabulary
3) Productive Vocabulary
4) Adhoc Vocabulary

21. The first person to use micro teaching was…
1) Dwight Allen 2) CJ Dodson
3) Franke 4) Munby

22. “Writing is a more powerful instrument for shaping, guiding and controlling of thought than speech” – said by ………
1) John Munby 2) D. Byrne
3) Flower and Hayes 4) Vygotsky and Bruner

23. The animal cat (English name) is termed as ‘pili’ in Telugu, bekku in Kannada, Qitte in Arabic. From this we can presume that a language has its own system of speech sounds and words. This characteristic of language is known as ……….
1) Arbitrariness 2) Prevarication
3) Displacement 4) Redundancy

24. The correct progression in Reading is –
1) Sense Sound Symbol
2) Symbol Sense Sound
3) Sound Symbol Shape
4) Symbol Sound Sense

25. A: Could you please tell me the way to Railway Station?
B: Go on the main road for 300 yards, then turn left, go for 100 yards, you reach the Railway station. The details given to B would serve as –
1) Extensive Listening
2) Intensive Listening
3) Casual Listening
4) Dry Listening

26. A person is said to have attained final control and command over a language with the mastery in …….
1) Listening 2) Speaking
3) Reading 4) Writing

27. Non – detailed texts are used to encourage
1) Silent reading 2) Extensive reading
3) Intensive reading 4) Reading aloud

28. The teacher asked the students to find out quickly the costliest and cheapest vegetables from the handout supplied to them. This exercise aims at developing
1) Summarizing skill 2) Scanning skill
3) Skimming skill 4) Subtracting skill

29. She sells sea – shells on the sea – shore
But the sea – shells that she sells
Are not sea – shells of that shore
The above lines stand for …………..

1) a tongue twister could be used to practice difficult English sounds /s/ and /S/ (sh)
2) the lines of a poem to ascertain rhyming
3) a puzzle used for ice – breaking
4) a chaining technique to articulate meaningful sounds

30. ‘Coherence’ and ‘Cohesion’ in writing denote ……….
1) Use of connectives and clarity of ideas
2) Logical arrangement of parts and lexical or grammatical relationship between different parts of the same text
3) Co – ordination and communication
4) All the above

31. A teacher gives many sentences and asks her students to arrange them into a letter using appropriate connectors. The skill that is chiefly involved in this task is ……..
1) collecting the information
2) organizing
3) decoding
4) rewriting

32. ‘Soliloquy’ is an example for……..
1) Mass communication
2) Group communication
3) Intra personal communication
4) Inter – personal communication

33. The teacher gave hints / clues and asked the students to develop a piece of writing. This kind of writing is …………
1) Picture composition
2) Group composition
3) Guided composition
4) Free composition

34. Top priority in oral reading is given to ….
1) Word – sound 2) Word – syllable
3) Word – sense 4) Word – sequence

35. Language skills should be taught in the class room ………………
1) in a fragmented manner
2) in an integrated way
3) through imitation
4) through clear explanations

36. ‘My Christmas day alone. I had rather odd experience’ –
This kind of writing text is called ……
1) Argumentative 2) Expository
3) Narrative 4) Descriptive

37. Detect the reading defect from the following.
1) Pointing finger on the lines
2) Going back and forth on the text
3) Sub – vocalization
4) All the above

38. The teacher gave an activity to the students. He asked them to run their eyes over the given text quickly to get a general idea or gist ….. . This activity relates to …………………….
1) Paraphrasing 2) Predicting
3) Skimming 4) Silent reading

39. Radio and TV lessons can be referred to ….
1) Group communication
2) Mass communication
3) Inter – personal communication
4) Intra – personal communication

40. Speech training is the characteristic feature of ……….
1) Direct method 2) TPR
3) Bilingual method 4) Reading method

41. Which of the following statement best suits ‘Remedial Teaching’?
1) It is not re teaching
2) It is need based
3) It is more like a crash course
4) All

42. A test which is administered at the end of the course is……..
1) diagnostic test 2) placement test
3) achievement test 4) formative test

43. The term Communicative Competence was coined by ……..
1) Wilkins 2) Chomsky
3) Hymes 4) Hornby

Answers:

1-4
2-3
3-1
4-1
5-1
6-4
7-2
8-4
9-3
10-1
11-3
12-1
13-4
14-3
15-2
16-4
17-3
18-2
19-2
20-2
21-1
22-4
23-1
24-4
25-2
26-4
27-2
28-2
29-1
30-2
31-2
32-3
33-3
34-1
35-2
36-3
37-4
38-3
39-2
40-1
41-4
42-3
43-3.